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In Mark 5:41 and other NT passages, Why is Christ quoted in Aramaic?

Aramaic was the common spoken toungue in Israel at the time of the NT. It's likely that most conversations among the apostles and with other Israelis were in Aramaic. Hebrew was largely ceremonial ...
Cristobol Polychronopolis's user avatar
14 votes
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What is the difference in meaning between the phrases «Χριστός Ἰησοῦς» (“Christ Jesus”) and «Ἰησοῦς Χριστός» (“Jesus Christ”)?

I agree with the general consensus here that there probably isn't a great deal of meaningful semantic distinction between Χριστὸς Ἰησοῦς and Ἰησοῦς Χριστὸς. However, there's an incidental morphologic ...
Susan's user avatar
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12 votes

Matthew 24:1-2 No stone left upon another, prophecy failed?

In Mark, we see more detail of what Jesus said. And Jesus answering said unto him, Seest thou these great buildings? there shall not be left one stone upon another, that shall not be thrown down. (...
Polyhat's user avatar
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11 votes
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Why the Inconsistency of the name Mary in the NT?

To me there is a far simpler and more likely explanation than errors or scribal slips. Especially considering cases like Matthew 27:61, which is surely no slip of the pen: Μαριὰμ ἡ Μαγδαληνὴ and ...
Steve can help's user avatar
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11 votes

Why is Psalm 22:16 not quoted in the New Testament?

Jesus did quote the beginning of Psalm 22 on the cross (Matt. 27:46; Mark 15:34; Luke 24:44) אֵלִ֣י אֵ֭לִי לָמָ֣ה עֲזַבְתָּ֑נִי (Psalm 22:2a, MT)  And about the ninth hour Jesus cried out with a ...
Perry Webb's user avatar
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10 votes

In Luke 3:16, what does:"not worthy to untie the straps of his sandals" mean?

I wouldn't call it a "deeper hidden meaning", but a "graphic obvious meaning" -- at least to John the Baptist's hearers. Here, and in the parallel synoptic passages (Matt 3:11 // Mark 1:7 // Luke 3:...
Dɑvïd's user avatar
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9 votes
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Hebrews 5:7, Did Jesus suffer death or not?

Georg Lünemann answers your question:1 In the context of humans alone, if we heard the expression “he saved him from death,” then normally we would understand that person A prevented person B from ...
Der Übermensch's user avatar
9 votes

Seal on forehead according to Revelation 9:4

We need to compare what Deuteronomy says about keeping the Lords words of commandment (Deuteronomy ch11 vv18-22). They are to be kept in the heart and the soul and talked about constantly. They are to ...
Stephen Disraeli's user avatar
8 votes
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Does the Codex Sinaiticus contain the Hebrew Tetragrammaton or Greek LORD (KURIOS)?

OP asks several questions, which I will summarize and address. How does Codex Sinaiticus handle the word translated "LORD/lord" in Romans 10:13? We can answer this definitively due to the amazing ...
Susan's user avatar
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8 votes

In Mark 5:41 and other NT passages, Why is Christ quoted in Aramaic?

The Hebrew dialect of Aramaic (as opposed to Babylonian/Imperial Aramaic, Edessan/Syrian Aramaic and other dialects) was the most common vernacular language of Judea, Samaria and Galilee in the ...
wberry's user avatar
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8 votes
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Did the shepherds leave their flocks?

The simple answer is, obviously, YES. we can deduce this because: The town of Bethlehem was a small town and they could not have taken their flocks with them They left immediately (Luke 2:15) and ...
Dottard's user avatar
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8 votes

Does Matthew 3:3 prove the divinity of Christ, and, if so, how?

The Matthew 3:1-3 verses prove that John the Baptist was the one foretold to prepare the way of the Lord, as in Isaiah 40:3. This was also foretold in Malachi 3:1, hundreds of years before the ...
Anne's user avatar
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8 votes

Romans 9:5 Is this a scriptural evidence for Pauline Trinitarian Christology

Short Answer: The difference in these translations largely comes down to punctuation. The problem is that in the era of ancient Greece, there was no concept similar to our contemporary system of ...
Jason_'s user avatar
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7 votes

What arguments exist that would refute the theory concerning Aramaic primacy of the New Testament?

There are two primary pieces of linguistic evidence that can be used to refute Peshitta primacy: the dialect used in Peshitta, and the use of geyr and deyn throughout the text of Peshitta. First, ...
A Craig's user avatar
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7 votes

Acts 15:5 - Could Christians remain Pharisees?

Paul state after his conversion that he is still Pharisee on two occasions Acts 23:6 Now when Paul perceived that one part were Sadducees and the other Pharisees, he cried out in the council, “...
Enoch's user avatar
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7 votes
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Are nous and pneuma synonymous?

No, they are not synonymous. In way of background, we note that the Hebrew rûaḥ is commonly rendered by the Greek pneuma, both commonly rendered by the English spirit. The OP is wondering why, in ...
Susan's user avatar
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7 votes

Hebrews 5:7, Did Jesus suffer death or not?

That is one of the great mysteries of Jesus' death - The Father could save Jesus, and Jesus specifically asked to be excused but was not, Matt 26:39, 42. as to whether Jesus actually died or not, ...
Dottard's user avatar
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6 votes

What is Babylon refering to in the New Testament?

The typical view that Rome is both the harlot and the beast has several flaws and is not scriptural. First, the name Babylon was on the forehead of the harlot that sat on top of the beast. Rev. 17:3, ...
Gina's user avatar
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6 votes

What is Babylon refering to in the New Testament?

The preponderance of the evidence appears to show that this is a reference to Rome. John AT Robinson provided a helpful summary of supporting evidence that "Babylon" is a reference to Rome. (...
Hold To The Rod's user avatar
6 votes

In Acts 15:20 why does James prohibit the gentiles to eat strangled animals?

After an animal dies, the blood coagulates pretty quickly. Also, if an animal is strangled, then drained of blood, you will not get nearly as much blood out by gravity alone (even if the animal is ...
deuce22oz's user avatar
6 votes
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Romans 12:1, what is the accurate translation of (λογικὴν)?

The adjective λογικός (logikos) only occurs in Rom 12:1 and 1 Peter 2:2 and is a notoriously difficult word to translate because there is nothing in English close to its meaning. The word is very ...
Dottard's user avatar
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6 votes

How does the indicative mood affect the meaning of 2 Pet. 1:10–11?

The anarthrous ποιοῦντες (v. 10) is functioning as a circumstantial participle which can be translated into English in a variety of ways,1 including means2 (“by doing”) and condition3 (“if you do”). ...
Der Übermensch's user avatar
5 votes

What did Jesus mean by "be perfect" in the Sermon on the Mount?

This text is extremely controversial because it is used, by some, to suggest that we can attain sinless perfection in this life. Therefore, the question is, what is the "perfection" being ...
Dottard's user avatar
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5 votes

Is John 1:2 redundant?

John 1:2 is necessary, logically. Without it, John has not stated coincidence of existence of both parties in the beginning. He has already stated that Logos existed in the beginning and he has ...
Nigel J's user avatar
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