16
votes
In Mark 5:41 and other NT passages, Why is Christ quoted in Aramaic?
Aramaic was the common spoken toungue in Israel at the time of the NT. It's likely that most conversations among the apostles and with other Israelis were in Aramaic. Hebrew was largely ceremonial ...
13
votes
Accepted
Why the Inconsistency of the name Mary in the NT?
To me there is a far simpler and more likely explanation than errors or scribal slips. Especially considering cases like Matthew 27:61, which is surely no slip of the pen:
Μαριὰμ ἡ Μαγδαληνὴ and ...
- 5,757
12
votes
Matthew 24:1-2 No stone left upon another, prophecy failed?
In Mark, we see more detail of what Jesus said.
And Jesus answering said unto him, Seest thou these great buildings?
there shall not be left one stone upon another, that shall not be
thrown down. (...
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10
votes
In Luke 3:16, what does:"not worthy to untie the straps of his sandals" mean?
I wouldn't call it a "deeper hidden meaning", but a "graphic obvious meaning" -- at least to John the Baptist's hearers.
Here, and in the parallel synoptic passages (Matt 3:11 // Mark 1:7 // Luke 3:...
- 24.9k
10
votes
Why is Psalm 22:16 not quoted in the New Testament?
Jesus did quote the beginning of Psalm 22 on the cross (Matt. 27:46; Mark 15:34; Luke 24:44)
אֵלִ֣י אֵ֭לִי לָמָ֣ה עֲזַבְתָּ֑נִי
(Psalm 22:2a, MT)
And about the ninth hour Jesus cried out with a ...
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9
votes
Accepted
Does the Codex Sinaiticus contain the Hebrew Tetragrammaton or Greek LORD (KURIOS)?
OP asks several questions, which I will summarize and address.
How does Codex Sinaiticus handle the word translated "LORD/lord" in Romans 10:13?
We can answer this definitively due to the amazing ...
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9
votes
Accepted
Hebrews 5:7, Did Jesus suffer death or not?
Georg Lünemann answers your question:1
In the context of humans alone, if we heard the expression “he saved him from death,” then normally we would understand that person A prevented person B from ...
- 12.4k
9
votes
Seal on forehead according to Revelation 9:4
We need to compare what Deuteronomy says about keeping the Lords words of commandment (Deuteronomy ch11 vv18-22).
They are to be kept in the heart and the soul and talked about constantly. They are to ...
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8
votes
In Mark 5:41 and other NT passages, Why is Christ quoted in Aramaic?
The Hebrew dialect of Aramaic (as opposed to Babylonian/Imperial Aramaic, Edessan/Syrian Aramaic and other dialects) was the most common vernacular language of Judea, Samaria and Galilee in the ...
- 691
8
votes
Accepted
Did the shepherds leave their flocks?
The simple answer is, obviously, YES. we can deduce this because:
The town of Bethlehem was a small town and they could not have taken their flocks with them
They left immediately (Luke 2:15) and ...
- 118k
8
votes
Does Matthew 3:3 prove the divinity of Christ, and, if so, how?
The Matthew 3:1-3 verses prove that John the Baptist was the one foretold to prepare the way of the Lord, as in Isaiah 40:3. This was also foretold in Malachi 3:1, hundreds of years before the ...
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8
votes
Romans 9:5 Is this a scriptural evidence for Pauline Trinitarian Christology
Short Answer: The difference in these translations largely comes down to punctuation.
The problem is that in the era of ancient Greece, there was no concept similar to our contemporary system of ...
- 12k
7
votes
What arguments exist that would refute the theory concerning Aramaic primacy of the New Testament?
There are two primary pieces of linguistic evidence that can be used to refute Peshitta primacy: the dialect used in Peshitta, and the use of geyr and deyn throughout the text of Peshitta.
First, ...
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7
votes
Hebrews 5:7, Did Jesus suffer death or not?
That is one of the great mysteries of Jesus' death - The Father could save Jesus, and Jesus specifically asked to be excused but was not, Matt 26:39, 42.
as to whether Jesus actually died or not, ...
- 118k
6
votes
What is Babylon refering to in the New Testament?
The typical view that Rome is both the harlot and the beast has several flaws and is not scriptural.
First, the name Babylon was on the forehead of the harlot that sat on top of the beast.
Rev. 17:3,
...
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6
votes
What is Babylon refering to in the New Testament?
The preponderance of the evidence appears to show that this is a reference to Rome.
John AT Robinson provided a helpful summary of supporting evidence that "Babylon" is a reference to Rome. (...
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6
votes
In Acts 15:20 why does James prohibit the gentiles to eat strangled animals?
After an animal dies, the blood coagulates pretty quickly. Also, if an animal is strangled, then drained of blood, you will not get nearly as much blood out by gravity alone (even if the animal is ...
- 61
6
votes
How possible is it that the Gospel of Luke and Acts were written for Paul’s defense?
The article you mention in your comments explains that there are several theories as to who Theophilus was, none of which can be substantiated.
With regard to Luke and his purpose in writing his ...
- 9,355
6
votes
Accepted
Romans 12:1, what is the accurate translation of (λογικὴν)?
The adjective λογικός (logikos) only occurs in Rom 12:1 and 1 Peter 2:2 and is a notoriously difficult word to translate because there is nothing in English close to its meaning. The word is very ...
- 118k
6
votes
How does the indicative mood affect the meaning of 2 Pet. 1:10–11?
The anarthrous ποιοῦντες (v. 10) is functioning as a circumstantial participle which can be translated into English in a variety of ways,1 including means2 (“by doing”) and condition3 (“if you do”). ...
- 12.4k
5
votes
What did Jesus mean by "be perfect" in the Sermon on the Mount?
This text is extremely controversial because it is used, by some, to suggest that we can attain sinless perfection in this life. Therefore, the question is, what is the "perfection" being ...
- 118k
5
votes
Is John 1:2 redundant?
John 1:2 is necessary, logically. Without it, John has not stated coincidence of existence of both parties in the beginning. He has already stated that Logos existed in the beginning and he has ...
- 33k
5
votes
Accepted
Is it "preaching" or "the thing preached" that is foolish in 1 Cor 1:21?
❏ Definition
The word κήρυγμα can refer either to the act of preaching or to the thing preached. For example, we can take a look at the entry of the word in the Greek Dictionary (BillMounce.com):
...
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5
votes
Accepted
What did Jesus mean in John 4:22, ὑμεῖς προσκυνεῖτε ὃ οὐκ οἴδατε?
A use of the masculine pronoun (ὅς) would have been a reference back to "the Father" (τῷ πατρί) immediately preceding as the antecedent. But Jesus is not wanting to say the Samaritans worship the ...
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