Occurrences in the New Testament Corpus
ᾅδης (Hades) appears 10 times in the New Testament,1 and the context of each occurrence indicates that it is the abode of the dead.
One particular account references the idiomatic idea of 'Abraham's bosom'2 and includes the idea of a division within Hades where some are comforted and others are tormented in fire, ...
This is a textual issue. That is, some manuscripts have the words and fasting while others don’t. The NA28 includes the text similar to the GNT you quote:
. . . τοῦτο τὸ γένος ἐν οὐδενὶ δύναται ἐξελθεῖν εἰ μὴ ἐν προσευχῇ (NA28)
. . . this kind cannot be driven out by anything but prayer (ESV)
The apparatus notes the variant you ask about (the addition ...
A Plausible Majority Text Argument
Susan's answer has correctly given the direct answer to your question when she states:
This is a textual issue. That is, some manuscripts have the words and
fasting while others don’t.
That is the simple fact. Which manuscript tradition the particular translation in question is following determines the omission or ...
Aramaic was the common spoken toungue in Israel at the time of the NT. It's likely that most conversations among the apostles and with other Israelis were in Aramaic. Hebrew was largely ceremonial at that time.
One would think that Aramaic would be a likely language for the NT in general, but if you wanted to be taken seriously as a writer and scholar, ...
I agree with the general consensus here that there probably isn't a great deal of meaningful semantic distinction between Χριστὸς Ἰησοῦς and Ἰησοῦς Χριστὸς. However, there's an incidental morphologic irregularity that explains at least some of the variation.
In NT Greek, the dative form of Ἰησοῦς is Ἰησοῦ, identical in form with the genitive.1 This leads ...
Another addendum to Susan's fine answer and ScottS's alternative account.
All manuscripts are not the same, which is why the text critic's job is not simply that of counting noses.
We have two possible scenarios
an original shorter reading, which was subsequently expanded in transmission by the addition of "+ and fasting" after "prayer";
an original ...
I wouldn't call it a "deeper hidden meaning", but a "graphic obvious meaning" -- at least to John the Baptist's hearers.
Here, and in the parallel synoptic passages (Matt 3:11 // Mark 1:7 // Luke 3:16), John emphasizes the greatness of the one to come by reinforcing his own unworthiness in comparison. He uses the word picture of undoing the sandals -- the ...
To me there is a far simpler and more likely explanation than errors or scribal slips. Especially considering cases like Matthew 27:61, which is surely no slip of the pen:
Μαριὰμ ἡ Μαγδαληνὴ and the other Μαρία were sitting there opposite the tomb.
Note that the author uses the phrase "and the other...", confirming that as far as they were concerned ...
They were the same in the ancient languages and even in modern languages until quite recently. Comparing the uses in Acts 7:45, Hebrews 4:8, and Matthew 10:5:
In the original Greek they're the same: Ἰησοῦς /jeisus/
In the Vulgate they're also the same: Jesus /jesus/
Interestingly, even Wycliffe and the KJV, among a few others, use Jesus in all instances.
In Mark, we see more detail of what Jesus said.
And Jesus answering said unto him, Seest thou these great buildings?
there shall not be left one stone upon another, that shall not be
thrown down. (Mark 13:2)
Walls that surround cities, etc. are not "buildings."
Jesus referred to the stones of the temple itself.
The reason these stones were all ...
Restricting oneself to the most literal of meanings is often wrong in any language. We cannot simply say "what does this word mean at its root?" We must go on to ask "how was this word used in this verse?"
That the preferred form for a Roman cross was indeed a vertical stake with a crosspiece is well established in history. Stauros could ...
I am an amateur at this, but I think that 2 Samuel 23 gives us a big clue as to how to interpret Jesus' remarks. Jesus's language appears to be the same language used by David who refused to drink of the water that the soldiers brought him because they had risked their lives to bring it to him, and what they brought to David was not worth them losing their ...
The four instances of this clause in John 6 are:
6:39 (NET) — "Now this is the will of the one who sent me—that I should not lose one person of every one he has given me, but raise them all up at the last day."
6:40 (NET) — "For this is the will of my Father—for everyone who looks on the Son and believes in him to have eternal life, and I will ...
It seems that most of the commentaries take "at home" to mean Peter's home from Mark 1:29, which seems to have functioned as the base for Jesus' ministry in Capernaum. While both follow this majority opinion, J. Marcus allows that "en oikō̧" could simply mean "in a house" and R. Stein states the possibility that it is Jesus' own home. However, given that the ...
The simple answer is, obviously, YES. we can deduce this because:
The town of Bethlehem was a small town and they could not have taken their flocks with them
They left immediately (Luke 2:15) and hurried (v16) - one cannot hurry with sheep
The shepherds "returned" to their flocks (v20) shortly after.
However, while the shepherds left their ...
From the book The Text of the New Testament: Its Transmission, Corruption, and Restoration by Metzger and Ehrman, chapter 1, The making of ancient books, page 11-12:
In the Greco-Roman world, literary works were customarily
published in the format of a scroll, made of papyrus or parchment.
The papyrus scroll was made by gluing together, side by side, ...
There are two primary pieces of linguistic evidence that can be used to refute Peshitta primacy: the dialect used in Peshitta, and the use of geyr and deyn throughout the text of Peshitta.
First, regarding the dialect of Peshitta: In Peshitta all verbs in the 3rd person Masculine Imperfective form use the n'- prefix. The only Aramaic dialect that used that ...
No, they are not synonymous.
In way of background, we note that the Hebrew rûaḥ is commonly rendered by the Greek pneuma, both commonly rendered by the English spirit. The OP is wondering why, in Isaiah 40:13, the translator has chosen the Greek nous ("mind") rather than the more common pneuma ("spirit").
Despite the default translations rûaḥ ↔ ...
Georg Lünemann answers your question:1
In the context of humans alone, if we heard the expression “he saved him from death,” then normally we would understand that person A prevented person B from dying, so that person B never experienced death.
But, we need to realize that the context here involves God and a human, and as such, as Lünemann notes, “he saved ...
Acts of the Apostles has an unattributed quote from the ancient play, the Bacchae by Euripides (d. 406 BCE): "It hurts you to kick against the goad[or 'pricks']" (Acts 26:14). That this short passage is not a coincidence can be established because the situation and context are the same, and Acts even has Jesus using the same plural form of the noun (kentra) ...
As a supplement to Frank Luke's answer, I add another way of thinking about it.
The construction in English is very similar to the Greek: not X, but [instead] Y. (Wallace calls ἀλλὰ here a contrastive conjunction.1)
For example, if I say
"Put not your hand into boiling water, but use a spoon."
The contrast is between:
X= put your hand into boiling water
Paul state after his conversion that he is still Pharisee on two occasions
Now when Paul perceived that one part were Sadducees and the other
Pharisees, he cried out in the council, “Brothers, I am a Pharisee, a
son of Pharisees. It is with respect to the hope and the resurrection
of the dead that I am on trial.”