18 votes

Omission of 'fasting' in Mark 9:29

This is a textual issue. That is, some manuscripts have the words and fasting while others don’t. The NA28 includes the text similar to the GNT you quote: . . . τοῦτο τὸ γένος ἐν οὐδενὶ δύναται ...
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16 votes

Omission of 'fasting' in Mark 9:29

A Plausible Majority Text Argument Susan's answer has correctly given the direct answer to your question when she states: This is a textual issue. That is, some manuscripts have the words and ...
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14 votes
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What is the difference in meaning between the phrases «Χριστός Ἰησοῦς» (“Christ Jesus”) and «Ἰησοῦς Χριστός» (“Jesus Christ”)?

I agree with the general consensus here that there probably isn't a great deal of meaningful semantic distinction between Χριστὸς Ἰησοῦς and Ἰησοῦς Χριστὸς. However, there's an incidental morphologic ...
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14 votes

In Mark 5:41 and other NT passages, Why is Christ quoted in Aramaic?

Aramaic was the common spoken toungue in Israel at the time of the NT. It's likely that most conversations among the apostles and with other Israelis were in Aramaic. Hebrew was largely ceremonial ...
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11 votes

Omission of 'fasting' in Mark 9:29

Another addendum to Susan's fine answer and ScottS's alternative account. All manuscripts are not the same, which is why the text critic's job is not simply that of counting noses. We have two ...
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11 votes
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Why the Inconsistency of the name Mary in the NT?

To me there is a far simpler and more likely explanation than errors or scribal slips. Especially considering cases like Matthew 27:61, which is surely no slip of the pen: Μαριὰμ ἡ Μαγδαληνὴ and ...
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  • 5,198
11 votes

Matthew 24:1-2 No stone left upon another, prophecy failed?

In Mark, we see more detail of what Jesus said. And Jesus answering said unto him, Seest thou these great buildings? there shall not be left one stone upon another, that shall not be thrown down. (...
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10 votes

In Luke 3:16, what does:"not worthy to untie the straps of his sandals" mean?

I wouldn't call it a "deeper hidden meaning", but a "graphic obvious meaning" -- at least to John the Baptist's hearers. Here, and in the parallel synoptic passages (Matt 3:11 // Mark 1:7 // Luke 3:...
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9 votes

In the New Testament, why is Jesus called Jesus, but Joshua is still called Joshua?

They were the same in the ancient languages and even in modern languages until quite recently. Comparing the uses in Acts 7:45, Hebrews 4:8, and Matthew 10:5: In the original Greek they're the same: ...
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8 votes
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Whose home was unroofed by the paralytic's friends?

It seems that most of the commentaries take "at home" to mean Peter's home from Mark 1:29, which seems to have functioned as the base for Jesus' ministry in Capernaum. While both follow this majority ...
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8 votes
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Hebrews 5:7, Did Jesus suffer death or not?

Georg Lünemann answers your question:1 In the context of humans alone, if we heard the expression “he saved him from death,” then normally we would understand that person A prevented person B from ...
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8 votes
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Did the shepherds leave their flocks?

The simple answer is, obviously, YES. we can deduce this because: The town of Bethlehem was a small town and they could not have taken their flocks with them They left immediately (Luke 2:15) and ...
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8 votes
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Why is there a separation between Luke and Acts?

From the book The Text of the New Testament: Its Transmission, Corruption, and Restoration by Metzger and Ehrman, chapter 1, The making of ancient books, page 11-12: In the Greco-Roman world, ...
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  • 3,277
8 votes

Does Matthew 3:3 prove the divinity of Christ, and, if so, how?

The Matthew 3:1-3 verses prove that John the Baptist was the one foretold to prepare the way of the Lord, as in Isaiah 40:3. This was also foretold in Malachi 3:1, hundreds of years before the ...
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7 votes

What arguments exist that would refute the theory concerning Aramaic primacy of the New Testament?

There are two primary pieces of linguistic evidence that can be used to refute Peshitta primacy: the dialect used in Peshitta, and the use of geyr and deyn throughout the text of Peshitta. First, ...
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  • 71
7 votes
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Are nous and pneuma synonymous?

No, they are not synonymous. In way of background, we note that the Hebrew rûaḥ is commonly rendered by the Greek pneuma, both commonly rendered by the English spirit. The OP is wondering why, in ...
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7 votes

Hebrews 5:7, Did Jesus suffer death or not?

That is one of the great mysteries of Jesus' death - The Father could save Jesus, and Jesus specifically asked to be excused but was not, Matt 26:39, 42. as to whether Jesus actually died or not, ...
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6 votes

What is Babylon refering to in the New Testament?

The preponderance of the evidence appears to show that this is a reference to Rome. John AT Robinson provided a helpful summary of supporting evidence that "Babylon" is a reference to Rome. (...
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6 votes

"but" deliver us from evil

As a supplement to Frank Luke's answer, I add another way of thinking about it. The construction in English is very similar to the Greek: not X, but [instead] Y. (Wallace calls ἀλλὰ here a ...
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6 votes

Acts 15:5 - Could Christians remain Pharisees?

Paul state after his conversion that he is still Pharisee on two occasions Acts 23:6 Now when Paul perceived that one part were Sadducees and the other Pharisees, he cried out in the council, “...
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  • 159
6 votes
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If a person cannot work, is he condemned?

This passage does not specifically mention the ability to work, but the desire to work. The portion in question you are mentioning is specifically the phrase "that if any would not work, neither ...
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  • 259
6 votes
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Does the Codex Sinaiticus contain the Hebrew Tetragrammaton or Greek LORD (KURIOS)?

OP asks several questions, which I will summarize and address. How does Codex Sinaiticus handle the word translated "LORD/lord" in Romans 10:13? We can answer this definitively due to the amazing ...
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6 votes
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Romans 12:1, what is the accurate translation of (λογικὴν)?

The adjective λογικός (logikos) only occurs in Rom 12:1 and 1 Peter 2:2 and is a notoriously difficult word to translate because there is nothing in English close to its meaning. The word is very ...
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  • 74.3k
6 votes

In Mark 5:41 and other NT passages, Why is Christ quoted in Aramaic?

The Hebrew dialect of Aramaic (as opposed to Babylonian/Imperial Aramaic, Edessan/Syrian Aramaic and other dialects) was the most common vernacular language of Judea, Samaria and Galilee in the ...
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  • 493
6 votes

How does the indicative mood affect the meaning of 2 Pet. 1:10–11?

The anarthrous ποιοῦντες (v. 10) is functioning as a circumstantial participle which can be translated into English in a variety of ways,1 including means2 (“by doing”) and condition3 (“if you do”). ...
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6 votes
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How many distinct persons are present in Malachi 3:1-5? Who are they? Can we link them prophetically to persons from the New Testament?

Jesus quotes this passage in Matthew 11:10 : ιδου εγω αποστελλω τον αγγελον μου προ προσωπου σου ος κατασκευασει την οδον σου εμπροσθεν σου [TR undisputed] Behold, I send my messenger before thy ...
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  • 26.7k
5 votes

What is Babylon refering to in the New Testament?

The typical view that Rome is both the harlot and the beast has several flaws and is not scriptural. First, the name Babylon was on the forehead of the harlot that sat on top of the beast. Rev. 17:3, ...
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