24

My impression is that Aramaic primacy is not taken very seriously among experts, so there's not much in the way of scholarly works debunking it. (This is not unusual, compare to say mythicism or the theory that Jesus and Mary Magdaline were married, neither of which had scholarly debunkings until recently.) So rather than citing experts, I'm just going to ...


21

Jesus Himself quoted non-biblical sources. He quoted (loosely, I presume) a popular, Farmer's Almanac-type saying when He said, "When it is evening, you say, 'It will be fair weather, for the sky is red.' And in the morning, 'There will be a storm today, for the sky is red and threatening.' Do you know how to discern the appearance of the sky, but ...


17

Noah has given an excellent answer, but I would like to give other issues with Aramaic primacy. There are NT fragments in Greek that are older than anything in Aramaic. Very early fragments. The John Rylands fragment of John's Gospel, P52 (AD ~125), is older by centuries than any copy of the Peshitta that has survived, and even older than the work in the ...


16

Occurrences in the New Testament Corpus ᾅδης (Hades) appears 10 times in the New Testament,1 and the context of each occurrence indicates that it is the abode of the dead. One particular account references the idiomatic idea of 'Abraham's bosom'2 and includes the idea of a division within Hades where some are comforted and others are tormented in fire, ...


16

This is a textual issue. That is, some manuscripts have the words and fasting while others don’t. The NA28 includes the text similar to the GNT you quote: . . . τοῦτο τὸ γένος ἐν οὐδενὶ δύναται ἐξελθεῖν εἰ μὴ ἐν προσευχῇ (NA28) . . . this kind cannot be driven out by anything but prayer (ESV) The apparatus notes the variant you ask about (the addition ...


15

A Plausible Majority Text Argument Susan's answer has correctly given the direct answer to your question when she states: This is a textual issue. That is, some manuscripts have the words and fasting while others don’t. That is the simple fact. Which manuscript tradition the particular translation in question is following determines the omission or ...


12

Short Answer: In context "you are to be perfect" means "you are to love as God loves: without partiality" Justification First, consider the immediate context: You have heard that it was said, ‘You shall love your neighbor and hate your enemy.’ But I say to you, love your enemies and pray for those who persecute you, so that you may be sons of your ...


11

I agree with the general consensus here that there probably isn't a great deal of meaningful semantic distinction between Χριστὸς Ἰησοῦς and Ἰησοῦς Χριστὸς. However, there's an incidental morphologic irregularity that explains at least some of the variation. In NT Greek, the dative form of Ἰησοῦς is Ἰησοῦ, identical in form with the genitive.1 This leads ...


11

Another addendum to Susan's fine answer and ScottS's alternative account. All manuscripts are not the same, which is why the text critic's job is not simply that of counting noses. We have two possible scenarios an original shorter reading, which was subsequently expanded in transmission by the addition of "+ and fasting" after "prayer"; an original ...


11

I wouldn't call it a "deeper hidden meaning", but a "graphic obvious meaning" -- at least to John the Baptist's hearers. Here, and in the parallel synoptic passages (Matt 3:11 // Mark 1:7 // Luke 3:16), John emphasizes the greatness of the one to come by reinforcing his own unworthiness in comparison. He uses the word picture of undoing the sandals -- the ...


9

I. Howard Marshall gives a concise statement of the options for harmonization in his commentary: It is quite possible that Matthew or Luke is simply reporting what was commonly said in Jerusalem, and that we are not meant to harmonize the two accounts. If we do try to harmonzie (sic) them, the following possibilities arise: (1). Judas hanged himself (Matt....


8

Yes. Titus 1:12: One of Crete’s own prophets has said it: ‘Cretans are always liars, evil brutes, lazy gluttons.’ The footnote in the NIV says, "From the Cretan philosopher Epimenides". Researching Epimenides led me to Non-canonical books referenced in the Bible which also mentions 1 Corinthians 15:33: Do not be misled: ‘Bad company corrupts good ...


8

A reinked manuscript is indeed a manuscript where a later scribe wrote over the letters. The scribe might be trying to preserve a text that otherwise would be lost or might be making "corrections." Reinking a manuscript makes paleographic analysis very difficult because the original handwriting is overwritten. Reinking also tends to obscure accent marks and ...


8

Restricting oneself to the most literal of meanings is often wrong in any language. We cannot simply say "what does this word mean at its root?" We must go on to ask "how was this word used in this verse?" That the preferred form for a Roman cross was indeed a vertical stake with a crosspiece is well established in history. Stauros could mean "cross" more ...


8

It seems that most of the commentaries take "at home" to mean Peter's home from Mark 1:29, which seems to have functioned as the base for Jesus' ministry in Capernaum. While both follow this majority opinion, J. Marcus allows that "en oikō̧" could simply mean "in a house" and R. Stein states the possibility that it is Jesus' own home. However, given that the ...


8

To me there is a far simpler and more likely explanation than errors or scribal slips. Especially considering cases like Matthew 27:61, which is surely no slip of the pen: Μαριὰμ ἡ Μαγδαληνὴ and the other Μαρία were sitting there opposite the tomb. Note that the author uses the phrase "and the other...", confirming that as far as they were concerned ...


7

Typically the word "righteous" or "just" are simply alternative translations of the same word, "dikaios" (δικαιος and cognate verbs and such). There is simply no difference. I'll go ahead and add an analogous example that people also often confuse, and that is the difference between "faith" and "belief". In Greek they are translations of the same root. In ...


7

I am an amateur at this, but I think that 2 Samuel 23 gives us a big clue as to how to interpret Jesus' remarks. Jesus's language appears to be the same language used by David who refused to drink of the water that the soldiers brought him because they had risked their lives to bring it to him, and what they brought to David was not worth them losing their ...


7

The four instances of this clause in John 6 are: 6:39 (NET) — "Now this is the will of the one who sent me—that I should not lose one person of every one he has given me, but raise them all up at the last day." 6:40 (NET) — "For this is the will of my Father—for everyone who looks on the Son and believes in him to have eternal life, and I will ...


7

No, they are not synonymous. In way of background, we note that the Hebrew rûaḥ is commonly rendered by the Greek pneuma, both commonly rendered by the English spirit. The OP is wondering why, in Isaiah 40:13, the translator has chosen the Greek nous ("mind") rather than the more common pneuma ("spirit"). Despite the default translations rûaḥ ↔ ...


7

This passage does not specifically mention the ability to work, but the desire to work. The portion in question you are mentioning is specifically the phrase "that if any would not work, neither should he eat." Here is the Greek for that phrase: ὅτι εἴ τις οὐ θέλει ἐργάζεσθαι μηδὲ ἐσθιέτω I have emphasized the word which we translate "would". In English,...


7

They were the same in the ancient languages and even in modern languages until quite recently. Comparing the uses in Acts 7:45, Hebrews 4:8, and Matthew 10:5: In the original Greek they're the same: Ἰησοῦς /jeisus/ In the Vulgate they're also the same: Jesus /jesus/ Interestingly, even Wycliffe and the KJV, among a few others, use Jesus in all instances. ...


6

Jesus seems to have followed, out of courtesy, the taboo by the Rabbis on pronouncing the Lords name (יהוה‎) Yahweh as though there was something sacred about it. This was not the original practice of the Hebrews but a ban on pronouncing the name started to appear around the time of Antiochus IV (175 BC). Simply from the fact that the New Testament never ...


6

The oldest and most studied claim of this sort is that there was an Aramaic gospel which served as a source for the synoptics. In particular, many early church fathers believed that the original version of Matthew was written in Aramaic based in part on the writings of Papias who said: "For Matthew composed the logia [sayings] in Hebrew style; but each ...


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