Does the postfixed χ in Jewish Greek transliterations simply denote the aleph, i.e. vs. other vowels?
Should the word 'satan' be left untranslated, merely be transliterated and left to the traditional connotations?
How should we understand Gen 31:24 in view of the context (i.e., Laban speaks to Jacob) and an apparent Hebrew language nuance?
James and Jacob are translated as the same name. What were the criteria followed for name translations?
In Genesis 11:1, what is the difference in Hebrew between the word "language" and the word "speech"?
Two N.T. verses in two different Greek Interlinears have differences that seem critically important so I ask for clarification
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