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25 votes
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Is there a much simplified version of the Old Testament?

Beginner learners of Hebrew might expect a more 1:1 ratio of English words for their translation, but they are unaware of many of the facts with regard to Hebrew word construction and grammar. Let us ...
Biblasia's user avatar
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21 votes
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Why John 1:1 in (DRB)(Douay-Rheims Bible) is not literal translation from the Latin Vulgate?

Neither "And a god was the Word" nor: "And God was the Word" are correct translations for θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος. To understand the implications of the last clause, you need to understand ...
oldhermit's user avatar
  • 3,478
20 votes

Is it appropriate to translate Galatians 3:21 as "If a law had been given"?

The OP questions the validity of the article "a" in English versions given the lack of a corresponding word in Greek. I will argue that "a law" is indeed an accurate translation. There is no ...
Susan's user avatar
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15 votes
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Why does להבריאכם mean "to make yourselves fat" in 1 Samuel 2:29

The OP questions why translators take the root ברא (brʾ) here in the sense "to be fat" rather than the homonym "to create", which is more common in the Hebrew Bible. I see several good reasons. The ...
Susan's user avatar
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15 votes

Answer not a fool, or answer a fool?

I think the thing which is causing you to see a contradiction is the use of the imperative. Rephrase using conditionals: If you answer a fool according to his folly, you risk becoming like him. ...
Peter Taylor's user avatar
13 votes

Is there a much simplified version of the Old Testament?

The other answers here are not wrong, but I think they're missing an important point, which is that the Hebrew of that verse is not what you say it is; you seem to have misunderstood your source, in a ...
ruakh's user avatar
  • 233
11 votes

Does the postfixed χ in Jewish Greek transliterations simply denote the aleph, i.e. vs. other vowels?

For OP's question: Is the chi (χ) used to indicate the kind of a vowel in the original Hebrew (namley the aleph א), a transliteration as it is from Hebrew in already Hebraic Greek? The short ...
Dɑvïd's user avatar
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11 votes

Answer not a fool, or answer a fool?

The contradiction is intended, and rhetorical—and present in the Hebrew. However, there may be a slight play on the use of the preposition כ which means "according to, like" as in "according to his ...
Sola Gratia's user avatar
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10 votes

Proverbs 18:22's grossly oversimplified, glib, nonchalant view about getting married

Here's a more positive way to look at Proverbs 18:22. Proverbs 18 is an anthology of traditional sayings for a variety of different circumstances that are not elucidated in the text itself because at ...
Abu Munir Ibn Ibrahim al Yahud's user avatar
9 votes
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Why does the KJV add "desire" to Mark 11:24?

When looking at slightly odd renderings in the KJV (and there are some fascinating ones), it is worth checking on its influences for any clues. And the case of Mark 11:24, along with its parallel in ...
Dɑvïd's user avatar
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9 votes
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What does the phrase "to cover his feet" refer to in 1 Samuel 24:3?

According to the BDB Lexicon the Hebrew translated to "cover his feet" by the KJV (literal translation of לְהָסֵ֣ךְ אֶת־רַגְלָ֑יו) is a euphemism for emptying the bowels: Hiph. Impf. 3 ms. יָ֑סֶךְ ...
Perry Webb's user avatar
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9 votes
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How should we understand Gen 31:24 in view of the context (i.e., Laban speaks to Jacob) and an apparent Hebrew language nuance?

The Hebrew phrase in question is מִטּוֹב עַד־רָע (metov ad ra), literally “from good to bad.” According to Gesenius on מן...עד (min...ad),1 There are used in opposition to each other—(α) מִן אֶל … ...
Der Übermensch's user avatar
9 votes
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How does the Douay Rheims Bible translate שַׁדַּי as God of Jacob in Psalms 91:1?

The Douay-Rheims version is a translation of the Vulgate. The Vulgate to Psalms seems to have gone through multiple revisions. I looked through all the versions I could find easily and found these ...
b a's user avatar
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9 votes
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How should intentionally repeated words in Hebrew be translated? (e.g. Gen 2:17, 45:10)

Repetitions in the Bible are quite frequent (over 220 times) and generally fall into two categories: literal meaning of two things An intensification. Sometimes this can also mean "every" (...
Robert's user avatar
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8 votes
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James and Jacob are translated as the same name. What were the criteria followed for name translations?

Jacob Jacob is a transliteration of the Hebrew יַעֲקֹב (formal transliteration: yaʿăqob). This labels only one person in the Hebrew Bible: the patriarch also known as Israel, the eponymous ancestor of ...
Susan's user avatar
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8 votes

Why is 2 Peter 1:19 commonly translated with "day star" rather than "Lucifer"?

The Greek word"phosphoros" occurs only here in the New Testament. It can be translated as "Lucifer", light-bringer or light-bearer". As the name assigned to the planet Venus by the ancients, it can ...
user42723's user avatar
  • 126
8 votes
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Why does the LXX translate דֹּדֶ֖יךָ as μαστοί in Song of Songs 1:2?

The consonantal text, דדיך, can be read דַּדַּיִך, from דַּד "nipple" (Ezekiel 23:3,8,21). This was the reading used in translating דדיך as μαστοί σου. The meaning "beloved" is consistently spelled ...
b a's user avatar
  • 3,756
8 votes
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What does "revocalization" mean in Bible footnotes?

At the beginning the writing system for the Hebrew language only recorded the consonants. The vowels were remembered and passed on as oral tradition as one generation taught the next how to recite the ...
curiousdannii's user avatar
  • 3,013
8 votes

What are the main Textual Differences between KJV and DRB?

The Douay-Rheims Bible is a translation into English from the Latin Vulgate, which dates to a translation from Hebrew (most of the Old Testament) and Greek (New Testament and some Old Testament ...
user33515's user avatar
  • 12.3k
7 votes

What does Genesis 28:22 mean with the repeated word

In Genesis 28:22, the verb is used twice: the infinitive absolute, then the finite verb: עַשֵּׂ֖ר אֲעַשְּׂרֶנּוּ to tithe I will tithe it This is, of course, an absurd translation. It is an ...
Susan's user avatar
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7 votes
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In Genesis 11:1, what is the difference in Hebrew between the word "language" and the word "speech"?

Good question. The Hebrew for this verse is: וַֽיְהִ֥י כָל־הָאָ֖רֶץ שָׂפָ֣ה אֶחָ֑ת וּדְבָרִ֖ים אֲחָדִֽים׃ The word translated "language" is שָׂפָה sapha. This word appears to have a ...
Luke Sawczak's user avatar
  • 1,609
7 votes
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Two N.T. verses in two different Greek Interlinears have differences that seem critically important so I ask for clarification

Here is the Greek text of the two verses you ask about: 1 John 4.14 καὶ ἡμεῖς τεθεάμεθα καὶ μαρτυροῦμεν ὅτι ὁ πατὴρ ἀπέσταλκεν τὸν υἱὸν σωτῆρα τοῦ κόσμου. Luke 2.29-30 Νῦν ἀπολύεις τὸν δοῦλόν σου, ...
Peter Kirkpatrick's user avatar
7 votes

Did Jesus speak pidgin or ungrammatically at John 8:58?

πριν αβρααμ γενεσθαι εγω ειμι [TR] John 8:58 [Text undisputed] Baxter's Analytical Greek Lexicon says of the word γενεσθαι, genesthai, that it is the aorist 2, infinitive and is an inflection of ...
Nigel J's user avatar
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7 votes
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Why KJV translated "Χριστοῦ" as "God" in Ephesians 5:21?

The Textus Receptus Greek text for Ephesians 5:21 reads : υποτασσομενοι αλληλοις εν φοβω θεου The KJV translates this as : Submitting yourselves one to another in the fear of God. [KJV 1769] ...
Nigel J's user avatar
  • 31.4k
7 votes

Proverbs 18:22's grossly oversimplified, glib, nonchalant view about getting married

I liked the other answers and have upvoted; this answer is not intended to compete with them but to complement them. Passages like Prov 18:22 appear glib and simplistic, somewhat akin to a motherhood ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 106k
7 votes

Genesis 3:6 "Desirable to make one wise"

Often it is local context that informs a definition as well as other usages. This particular word is only used one other time and, there as well, it is translated in terms of wisdom: To the chief ...
Mike Borden's user avatar
  • 4,360
7 votes

Should "among" in John 1:14 really be translated "within"?

“and dwelt among us” is the correct translation of «καὶ ἐσκήνωσεν ἐν ἡμῖν» for the simple fact that the author states, “and we beheld his glory” («καὶ ἐθεασάμεθα τὴν δόξαν αὐτοῦ») which would not be ...
Der Übermensch's user avatar

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