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15

We must remember that two people with the same education and knowledge of original Biblical languages, will, and commonly do, conclude opposite conclusions while maintaining proclaimed objectivity in their exegesis. This is exactly what Protestant and Catholic scholars do concerning this verse. The reality is that everyone makes their exegetical conclusion ...


15

The question of how "adoption" as used metaphorically by Paul relates to modern notions of adoption is not as important as comparing it to other ancient understandings. Once this is in place, however, the further comparison of the concept from Roman antiquity with modernity (in industrialized West, by implication?) can benefit from those findings. The Texts ...


15

The language of the KJV here is simply a function of English usage in the sixteenth century - and "again" is not represented in the Greek text, (See Interlinear): "raise again" is a "unit", and you need to take the verb and preposition together to mean "resurrection", as in the Oxford English Dictionary entry: Note that this is already the language of the ...


12

ο γαρ απεθανεν τη αμαρτια απεθανεν εφαπαξ [Romans 6:10 - TR undisputed] For in that he died, he died unto sin once: [KJV] for in that he died, to the sin he died once [YLT] The word εφαπαξ is used five times in scripture and it means 'once'. To say 'once for all' is merely adding an emphasis in the sense of 'once for all time' or 'not to be repeated'. The ...


11

Why is “christou” translated “God” in KJV Romans 10:17? It isn't. The text base used for the KJV was primarily the 1588/89 and '98 editions of Theodore Beza, occasionally departing to follow Stephanus's 1550 Novum Testamentum. These read:1 αρα η πιστις εξ ακοης η δε ακοη δια ρηματος θεου This was correctly translated in the KJV ...the word of God. In ...


10

It would be difficult to give a 100% definitive answer unless there is some commentary by the translation committee on this (which I have not found, but may exist). The following is offered as reasonable conclusions from other evidence. Variation It is deemed by some that good writing avoids an abundance of repetition in word usage. For example, this page ...


10

Short Answer: Yes, they would know what he meant The longer answer is that the letter to the church in Rome (1:7) was to a mixed group of Gentiles (1:13) and Jews (2:17). Most believe the church started from some of the Jews present at Peter's preaching during Pentecost, the "visitors from Rome" (Act 2:10; NKJV/ESV/NASB). Starting at 2:17, Paul begins more ...


9

It should be noted that several terms in the NT have broader and narrower meanings, such as diakonos, which can refer to Christ Himself (Rom 15:8), to an ordained role ("deacon"; see Phi 1:1; 1 Tim 3:8–12) or more generally to any servant of the church, even a "minister" (e.g. in Col 1:25, Paul refers to himself as a diakonos; cf also 1 Tim 4:6: Timothy was ...


9

An alternative explanation could just be rooted in practicality. The pattern had already been established by the Antiochene church in Acts 11:27-30. Agabus predicted an imminent famine and the church in Antioch. There were many famines during Claudius's reign (41-54), the most severe of which occurred in Judea around 46-47. Because of the imminent threat, ...


9

OLD TESTAMENT USAGE: The word "poiema" us used only twice in the New Testament, as you say. But in the Greek translation of the Old Testament, the same word is used several times: 1Sam. 8:8 According to all the works which they have done since the day that I brought them up out of Egypt, even to this day—with which they have forsaken Me and served other ...


9

Of the Possibility of the Middle Voice As you note, Wallace argues against κατηρτισμένα (katērtismena) being a "direct middle," being translated as "having prepared themselves." Let's examine the validity of his arguments first:1 ONE. "The direct middle is quite rare" (418) — which to some extent is an assertion both begging to be proved and ...


9

Psalm 51:4 (v.6 in Hebrew) In BHS1 v.4 is v.6, and the construction in Hebrew is an infinitive construct with both a prepositional prefix and a 2nd person singular pronominal suffix attached (בְשָׁפְטֶֽךָ). The pronominal suffix can be used on an infinitive construct as either a subject or object of the verb.2 That means there is flexibility in the ...


9

I have been looking at this same verse the past few days. There are three important questions in my opinion for understanding this verse: (1) what is the subject of συνεργεῖ, (2) what is the syntax of the dative τοῖς ἀγαπῶσιν τὸν θεὸν, and (3) what is the syntax of πάντα? The evidence indicates to me that the subject of the verb συνεργεῖ is the Holy Spirit ...


9

Great question. The short answer is that there is nothing explicit in the text of Scripture that proves without question that Paul reached Spain, but there is some evidence (both in and out of Scripture) which suggests that he did (at least to some scholars.) A couple of sources which you might find helpful are Homer A. Kent, The Pastoral Epistles, (Moody ...


9

The Greek text with the ESV runs like this: For we do not know what to pray for as we ought, τὸ γὰρ τί προσευξώμεθα καθὸ δεῖ οὐκ οἴδαμεν, but the Spirit himself intercedes for us with groanings too deep for words. ἀλλ᾿ αὐτὸ τὸ πνεῦμα ὑπερεντυγχάνει στεναγμοῖς ἀλαλήτοις· And he who searches hearts ὁ δὲ ἐραυνῶν τὰς καρδίας ...


8

It is common for verbs to be implied in the Greek but not actually appear in the text. Often the context will make little sense without it or will make it clear which verb is to be used, as is the case here. This is standard in many languages even today (especially with the verb "to be"), but not in English. Let me begin with an example in English: I ...


8

What Promise is this? There is none in these words. So write Sanday and Headlam (A critical and exegetical commentary on the Epistle to the Romans, 5th edn (ICC; T & T Clark, 1902), p. 111). They don't go on to explain much, and here James Denney (notable Scottish theologian) does a better job in the Expositor's Greek Testament (Hodder & Stoughton, ...


8

The heart of the problem is that the earliest manuscripts-the uncials and papyri don't have punctuation. There has got to be a comma and or period in there, but where? Murray Harris in his study of this question (Jesus as God: The New Testament Use of Theos in Reference to Jesus [Baker, 1992], ch. 6, pp. 143-172) found that, of the 56 commentaries he ...


8

I submit that there can be no fuller answer to this question than that given by Dr. Martyn Lloyd-Jones some 70 years ago in a lecture on this verse.1 He summarizes the factors to consider in making a decision on how to translate this verse, and interpret it, presents evidence from the best scholarship of the 20th Century, and a short list of theologians ...


8

This verse happens to appear in the portion of Scripture that is a key part of my dissertation. This is all my own work (and thinking through Romanides's examples helped solidify further my own take on the verse that I had previously come to). Romanides's Errors Romanides makes some errors in his argument that should be exposed. Your quote from him was as ...


8

ἀββα is the Greek transliteration of the Aramaic אַבָּא. In both Hebrew and Aramaic, the vocative is often indicated by definitizing a noun.1 Hence, we can interpret אַבָּא into English as the nominative “the father” (e.g., as the subject of a sentence) or the vocative “father” (e.g., in an address). In each of its three occurrences in the Greek NT,2 it is ...


8

NLT translation philosophy is the following (quote from NLT Bible Introduction, emphases mine): The translators of the New Living Translation set out to render the message of the original texts of Scripture into clear, contemporary English. As they did so, they kept the concerns of both formal-equivalence and dynamic-equivalence in mind. On the one hand, ...


8

In John 17:19, the Greek word (correctly) translated "sanctify" is ἁγιάζω (hagiazó). BDAG defines this word as primarily to, "set aside something, or make it suitable for ritual purpose, consecrate, dedicate". Thus, Jesus was simply saying that He was dedicating Himself to the task that lay ahead of Him - His high priestly ministry and kingly duties on our ...


7

The bridge that connects Jesus the Nazarene as "Yahweh" is Isaiah 8:13-14, which both Paul (in Romans 9:33) and Peter (in 1 Peter 2:6-8) use to make the nexus between "calling on Jesus" and "calling on Yahweh" to be saved. First, in Psalm 118:22 we find an unqualified mention of a stone "which the builders rejected" that in turn "became the chief ...


7

The Greek text for Romans 4:25 (from the NA28, emphasis mine) reads: ὃς παρεδόθη διὰ τὰ παραπτώματα ἡμῶν καὶ ἠγέρθη διὰ τὴν δικαίωσιν ἡμῶν. The preposition διὰ followed by an accusative generally has a gloss of "on account of" or "because of," but could also carry the connotation "for the sake of." It almost always carries the force of the NASB ...


7

For what it's worth, my observation of the context is that the debt is derived from his call to preach the gospel (see verses 11-13 & verses 15-17) to the groups listed. Particularly note in verse 1 how Paul views himself as a servant of Christ (some versions 'bondservant'). His debt was primarily to Christ who had purchased the apostle's life with the ...


7

Not ambiguous, but inclusive in meaning Ambiguity implies two or more possible meanings that are unclear as to which it is, or more broadly simply being unclear. I do not believe that is the situation here at all. Examining the statements Let's start with the basically undisputed OT reference Paul is using in Romans. Habakkuk 2:4 The (very literal) ...


7

The explanation is not contradictory. First we see how Paul expands the meaning of Habakkuk 2:4 in the relevant verse here in Romans - Romans 1:17 (GNT) δικαιοσύνη γὰρ θεοῦ ἐν αὐτῷ ἀποκαλύπτεται ἐκ πίστεως εἰς πίστιν, καθὼς γέγραπται, Ὁ δὲ δίκαιος ἐκ πίστεως ζήσεται. The key in this verse is that we live "from faith to faith" (ἐκ πίστεως εἰς πίστιν). ...


7

May Viably Be Construed as Either Middle or Passive Voice Your observation about the grammar of the verb compared to the English translations is very astute. Unfortunately, I do not think grammar itself will entirely answer this question. And context fits either option as being viable. If Passive, then in a Sense, All Three of Your Ideas are Correct The ...


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