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What did 'adoption' mean to the Romans?

The question of how "adoption" as used metaphorically by Paul relates to modern notions of adoption is not as important as comparing it to other ancient understandings. Once this is in place, however, ...
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15 votes

What does Romans 4:25 (KJV) mean when it says Jesus was raised "again"?

The language of the KJV here is simply a function of English usage in the sixteenth century - and "again" is not represented in the Greek text, (See Interlinear): "raise again" is a "unit", and you ...
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14 votes
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Why is "christou" translated "God" in KJV Romans 10:17?

Why is “christou” translated “God” in KJV Romans 10:17? It isn't. The text base used for the KJV was primarily the 1588/89 and '98 editions of Theodore Beza, occasionally departing to follow ...
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13 votes

Does Romans 9:5 assert the deity of Christ?

I submit that there can be no fuller answer to this question than that given by Dr. Martyn Lloyd-Jones some 70 years ago in a lecture on this verse.1 He summarizes the factors to consider in making ...
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13 votes
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Didn't Adam make us all sinners?

The Greek word πολλοί (polloi) translated as "many" in Rom 5:19 should not be interpreted as "less than all", but is another way of saying "all humanity" or "the ...
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Why would God create vessels of wrath prepared for destruction (Romans 9:21-22) if He has no pleasure in the death of the wicked (Ezekiel 33:11)?

Paul was drawing an illustration from an Old Testament passage of Scripture, Jeremiah 18:3-6. In that passage, God sent Jeremiah to the potter’s house to learn a lesson. The potter was making a vessel;...
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12 votes

Has the Apostle Paul ever been to Spain?

Great question. The short answer is that there is nothing explicit in the text of Scripture that proves without question that Paul reached Spain, but there is some evidence (both in and out of ...
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12 votes
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What does "all" mean in Romans 6:10?

ο γαρ απεθανεν τη αμαρτια απεθανεν εφαπαξ [Romans 6:10 - TR undisputed] For in that he died, he died unto sin once: [KJV] for in that he died, to the sin he died once [YLT] The word εφαπαξ is used ...
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12 votes

Is Jesus called YHWH in Joel 2:32/Romans 10:13?

In the old testament (and in many ANE cultures), "name" was a synecdoche for the person, but with the connotation that this is the mechanism by which the person was known. In modern English, ...
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10 votes
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In Romans 3:26, why not translate dikaiosunēs as "justice" rather than "righteousness?"

It would be difficult to give a 100% definitive answer unless there is some commentary by the translation committee on this (which I have not found, but may exist). The following is offered as ...
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10 votes
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Who is being judged in Romans 3:4?

Psalm 51:4 (v.6 in Hebrew) In BHS1 v.4 is v.6, and the construction in Hebrew is an infinitive construct with both a prepositional prefix and a 2nd person singular pronominal suffix attached (...
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10 votes

In Romans 8:28 do "all things work together" or does "God work all things together" for the good?

I have been looking at this same verse the past few days. There are three important questions in my opinion for understanding this verse: (1) what is the subject of συνεργεῖ, (2) what is the syntax of ...
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Would the Romans have known what Paul meant by "works of the law"?

Short Answer: Yes, they would know what he meant The longer answer is that the letter to the church in Rome (1:7) was to a mixed group of Gentiles (1:13) and Jews (2:17). Most believe the church ...
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10 votes

Does Romans 9:5 assert the deity of Christ?

The heart of the problem is that the earliest manuscripts-the uncials and papyri don't have punctuation. There has got to be a comma and or period in there, but where? Murray Harris in his study of ...
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John 17:19, what is the meaning of "I sanctify myself"?

In John 17:19, the Greek word (correctly) translated "sanctify" is ἁγιάζω (hagiazó). BDAG defines this word as primarily to, "set aside something, or make it suitable for ritual purpose, consecrate, ...
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9 votes

Are the 'vessels of wrath' in Romans 9:22 'prepared for' or are they 'preparing themselves for destruction'?

Of the Possibility of the Middle Voice As you note, Wallace argues against κατηρτισμένα (katērtismena) being a "direct middle," being translated as "having prepared themselves." Let's examine the ...
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9 votes

In Romans 1:26-27 what are "unnatural" relations or "use beyond nature"?

First let's do a quick exercise: Forget all the discussion and simply read this without the missing word: For their women exchanged ______ relations for those that are contrary to nature; v27 and the ...
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9 votes
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Is He "who searches hearts" the Holy Spirit or the Father (Romans 8:27)?

The Greek text with the ESV runs like this: For we do not know what to pray for as we ought, τὸ γὰρ τί προσευξώμεθα καθὸ δεῖ οὐκ οἴδαμεν, but the Spirit himself intercedes for us with ...
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9 votes
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Why do the NLT translators say "demons" (Rom 8:38)?

NLT translation philosophy is the following (quote from NLT Bible Introduction, emphases mine): The translators of the New Living Translation set out to render the message of the original texts of ...
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8 votes

Translation of Romans 5:12

This verse happens to appear in the portion of Scripture that is a key part of my dissertation. This is all my own work (and thinking through Romanides's examples helped solidify further my own take ...
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8 votes

Why the definite article in 'Abba, Father'?

ἀββα is the Greek transliteration of the Aramaic אַבָּא. In both Hebrew and Aramaic, the vocative is often indicated by definitizing a noun.1 Hence, we can interpret אַבָּא into English as the ...
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8 votes

Can someone elaborate on the meaning of the word "Sabaoth" in James 5:4? (cf. Rom. 9:29)

Sabaoth is the transliteration of tsavaot, which is the plural form of the hebrew word tsava. This word is the denominative of the verb tsiva, which means “go into battle, fight”[1] When taken as a ...
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7 votes
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Is Romans 1:17 ambiguous?

Not ambiguous, but inclusive in meaning Ambiguity implies two or more possible meanings that are unclear as to which it is, or more broadly simply being unclear. I do not believe that is the ...
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7 votes

Is Romans 1:17 ambiguous?

The explanation is not contradictory. First we see how Paul expands the meaning of Habakkuk 2:4 in the relevant verse here in Romans - Romans 1:17 (GNT) δικαιοσύνη γὰρ θεοῦ ἐν αὐτῷ ἀποκαλύπτεται ...
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7 votes
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What is the (grammatical) subject of Romans 10:10?

May Viably Be Construed as Either Middle or Passive Voice Your observation about the grammar of the verb compared to the English translations is very astute. Unfortunately, I do not think grammar ...
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7 votes

Does Paul believe that God sandbagged the Jews with a law they couldn't keep?

It is helpful to understand the purpose(s) of the Mosaic Law. Quickly: It was intended to point people to their need for a Savior (Gal 3:19; Rom 5:20). It was intended to highlight their sinful ...
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7 votes
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In Romans 1:26-27 what are "unnatural" relations or "use beyond nature"?

Coital vs. Non-Coital Sex: Rom.1:26-27 in Context Firstly, ‘natural relations’ is a modern, dynamic translation, and its technical meaning in theological circles may mislead. So let’s start with ...
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  • 2,463
7 votes

Greek text of Romans 8:28

There are several Greek words occasionally translated "things", but in Romans 8:28, Greek is using the adjective πᾶς (all) substantivally, that is, as a noun. In English, adjectives require ...
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