Skip to main content
16 votes

Is Jesus called YHWH in Joel 2:32/Romans 10:13?

In the old testament (and in many ANE cultures), "name" was a synecdoche for the person, but with the connotation that this is the mechanism by which the person was known. In modern English, ...
Robert's user avatar
  • 8,542
15 votes

What does Romans 4:25 (KJV) mean when it says Jesus was raised "again"?

The language of the KJV here is simply a function of English usage in the sixteenth century - and "again" is not represented in the Greek text, (See Interlinear): "raise again" is a "unit", and you ...
Dɑvïd's user avatar
  • 24.8k
13 votes
Accepted

What does "all" mean in Romans 6:10?

ο γαρ απεθανεν τη αμαρτια απεθανεν εφαπαξ [Romans 6:10 - TR undisputed] For in that he died, he died unto sin once: [KJV] for in that he died, to the sin he died once [YLT] The word εφαπαξ is used ...
Nigel J's user avatar
  • 31.9k
13 votes
Accepted

Didn't Adam make us all sinners?

The Greek word πολλοί (polloi) translated as "many" in Rom 5:19 should not be interpreted as "less than all", but is another way of saying "all humanity" or "the ...
GratefulDisciple's user avatar
13 votes
Accepted

Why would God create vessels of wrath prepared for destruction (Romans 9:21-22) if He has no pleasure in the death of the wicked (Ezekiel 33:11)?

Paul was drawing an illustration from an Old Testament passage of Scripture, Jeremiah 18:3-6. In that passage, God sent Jeremiah to the potter’s house to learn a lesson. The potter was making a vessel;...
Dave's user avatar
  • 8,184
11 votes
Accepted

John 17:19, what is the meaning of "I sanctify myself"?

In John 17:19, the Greek word (correctly) translated "sanctify" is ἁγιάζω (hagiazó). BDAG defines this word as primarily to, "set aside something, or make it suitable for ritual purpose, consecrate, ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 109k
11 votes
Accepted

Is Jesus called YHWH in Joel 2:32/Romans 10:13?

Several modern versions do capitalize Lord in Rom 10:13 such as NLT, NKJV, LSV, etc. This is somewhat justified as the Rom 10:13 passage is unambiguously referencing Joel 2:32 as the OP has correctly ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 109k
10 votes
Accepted

Does everyone know God or not?

There is a noteworthy distinction of verbs: the lemma γινώσκω versus ἐπιγινώσκω, as listed in the following table: Word Verse Lemma γνωστὸν Rom. 1:19 γινώσκω γνόντες Rom. 1:21 γινώσκω ἐπιγινώσκει ...
Der Übermensch's user avatar
10 votes

Romans 3:22 – ‘of’ or ‘in’? Old translations differ from modern ones. Why?

Scholars word the question as: "Is διὰ πίστεως Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ (Literally, "through faith/faithfulness of Jesus Christ") an objective or subjective genitive? So, objective versus ...
Mike Sangrey's user avatar
  • 1,261
9 votes
Accepted

Is He "who searches hearts" the Holy Spirit or the Father (Romans 8:27)?

The Greek text with the ESV runs like this: For we do not know what to pray for as we ought, τὸ γὰρ τί προσευξώμεθα καθὸ δεῖ οὐκ οἴδαμεν, but the Spirit himself intercedes for us with ...
Susan's user avatar
  • 26.6k
9 votes

Why the definite article in 'Abba, Father'?

ἀββα is the Greek transliteration of the Aramaic אַבָּא. In both Hebrew and Aramaic, the vocative is often indicated by definitizing a noun.1 Hence, we can interpret אַבָּא into English as the ...
Der Übermensch's user avatar
9 votes

Has Isaiah 59:20 been changed in Roman 11:26?

The answer, I think, is no. Paul quotes almost exclusively from the Greek Septuagint version of the Old Testament. In the Septuagint, Isaiah 59:20 reads ἥξει ἐκ Σιὼν ὁ ῥυόμενος καὶ ἀποστρέψει ...
user33515's user avatar
  • 12.4k
9 votes
Accepted

Why do the NLT translators say "demons" (Rom 8:38)?

NLT translation philosophy is the following (quote from NLT Bible Introduction, emphases mine): The translators of the New Living Translation set out to render the message of the original texts of ...
GratefulDisciple's user avatar
8 votes

Can someone elaborate on the meaning of the word "Sabaoth" in James 5:4? (cf. Rom. 9:29)

Sabaoth is the transliteration of tsavaot, which is the plural form of the hebrew word tsava. This word is the denominative of the verb tsiva, which means “go into battle, fight”[1] When taken as a ...
Robert's user avatar
  • 8,542
8 votes
Accepted

Where does this quote in Romans 2:24 come from?

The quote comes from Isaiah 52:5 which reads in the NKJV as Now therefore, what have I here,” says the LORD, “That My people are taken away for nothing? Those who rule over them Make them wail,” says ...
oldhermit's user avatar
  • 3,508
8 votes

Romans 9:5 Is this a scriptural evidence for Pauline Trinitarian Christology

Short Answer: The difference in these translations largely comes down to punctuation. The problem is that in the era of ancient Greece, there was no concept similar to our contemporary system of ...
Jason_'s user avatar
  • 6,163
8 votes

What does "much more shall we be saved" mean in Romans 5:9?

This is part of a larger argument. When Paul says "much more" here, he is not talking about quantity OR quality. Rather, it is about the certainty and completeness of salvation. Paul is ...
Jason_'s user avatar
  • 6,163
7 votes
Accepted

In Romans 11:25 what is "the fullness of the Gentiles"?

The Idea in Brief The "Fulness (sic) of the Gentiles" is the time when Gentile dominion on the earth ends, and the visible theocratic kingdom on earth once again begins. When the theocratic kingdom ...
Joseph's user avatar
  • 16.8k
7 votes
Accepted

In Romans 16:1 does the fact that "deacon" is masculine suggest an "office" or simply "servant"?

Yes it is an office. What I would ask you is to have a look at some of the meanings of this word in the secular Greek of that time, from which Paul borrowed it. There are many occurences where ...
Constantin Jinga's user avatar
7 votes

Why is man condemned if he is incapable of doing good?

Since this is a hermeneutic site (not a theological discussion), I will limit the answer to Paul’s intent and theology. Paul does acknowledge people are incapable of not sinning or keeping the Jewish ...
Perry Webb's user avatar
7 votes

How does the whole creation groan according to Romans 8:22-23?

Everything in creation is subject to decay or entropy. Nothing is permanent in creation. Everything in creation has an end. For the present form of this world is passing away. (1 Cor. 7:31, ESV) ...
Perry Webb's user avatar
7 votes
Accepted

Romans 1:23 an allusion to Ezekiel 8:10?

Be careful not to claim too much here. Several verses in the OT have the same references to "birds and beasts and creeping things" such as: Eze 38:20 - The fish of the sea and the birds of ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 109k
7 votes

How do we translate the Greek word ἐλογίσθη (elogisthē)?

επιστευσεν δε αβρααμ τω θεω και ελογισθη αυτω εις δικαιοσυνην [Romans 4:3 - TR (undisputed) - Beza, Stephanus, Elzevir and Scrivener are all identical] Logizomai Strong 3049 is a deponent verb, ...
Nigel J's user avatar
  • 31.9k
7 votes
Accepted

What does "obey/peithomenois" mean in "but obey unrighteousness" Romans 2:8?

peithomenois comes from peithó: to persuade, to have confidence Original Word: πείθω Part of Speech: Verb Transliteration: peithó Phonetic Spelling: (pi'-tho) Definition: to persuade, to have ...
Jason_'s user avatar
  • 6,163
7 votes
Accepted

Romans 3:22 – ‘of’ or ‘in’? Old translations differ from modern ones. Why?

Justification is a much misunderstood doctrine and, as a result, some have struggled to translate the very precise wording of, particularly, the apostle Paul who wrote some things, as Peter puts it, '...
Nigel J's user avatar
  • 31.9k
6 votes

Does Romans 9:5 assert the deity of Christ?

At least two Greek Church Fathers - Irenaeus (130-202) and Athanasius (296-373) - read the verse in the sense the NIV does; that is, something like ... who is God over all, blessed unto the ages: ...
user33515's user avatar
  • 12.4k
6 votes
Accepted

In what sense is sin said to increase (πλεονάζω) by the introduction of the Law in Romans 5:20?

The Law was not brought in (παρεισηλθεν - pareisēlthen) with the express purpose of increasing trespasses; but rather, it had that effect, since the law made clear which things were transgressions and ...
user33515's user avatar
  • 12.4k
6 votes
Accepted

Why the definite article in 'Abba, Father'?

The word transliterated αββα is Aramaic (אַבָּא), not Hebrew (which would be אָב). Aramaic marks definiteness with the absolute state (usually the suffix -ā), as opposed to Hebrew which uses a prefix. ...
b a's user avatar
  • 3,784
6 votes
Accepted

Is Romans 3:10 a quote from the Septuagint?

For Psalms 14 & 53 as a whole, mostly "yes" A few opening thoughts: Yes, it does seem like he is using or borrowing from the Septuagint in particular. Yes, it seems to be a kind of quote/...
Jesse's user avatar
  • 2,054

Only top scored, non community-wiki answers of a minimum length are eligible