The author of Hebrews is quoting Habakkuk 2:4 from the Septuagint (as opposed to the Hebrew.)
In the Hebrew, this part of the verse would literally translate something like this:
"Behold the scornful; his mind shall not be happy" (Stuart)
(Part of the difficulty in translating Heb. 10:38 is that this is an English translation of a Greek interpretation ...
'Clean' (טָהֵר) in Leviticus 16
The Hebrew verb טָהֵר / taher is used consistently throughout the Hebrew Bible in terms of cleansing or purifying, and so in the context of Leviticus 16 the stated meaning is that by performing the described ritual, the High Priest would have his sins cleansed and he would become pure. This ritual purification was required ...
I wrote this in an essay on Hebrews a few years back, and this was also asked here.
Origen (185-254 CE) in the East has been quoted as saying that God only knows who wrote the Epistle although he also suggested that Paul was the author (Robertson, 1932). Hippolytus (170-236 CE) from Rome denied it was written by Paul. Tertullian (160-220 CE) in North Africa ...
It could be contested that Heb 11:9 actually reads "as did Isaac and Jacob", as per the NIV, but that's not your question! In summary:
Abraham was 100 years old when Isaac was born (Genesis 21:5)
Abraham was 175 years old when he died (Genesis 25:7)
Isaac was 60 years old when Jacob was born (Genesis 25:26)
Therefore Jacob would have known Abraham for ...
Well, hardly a "contradiction" as that term is normally understood. But there is a potential misunderstanding, as OP notes, which can be addressed in two ways:
(1) To assume that ἀπέθανον "[these] died" is a simple way of talking about the end of their mortal existence, and not pedantically filling it out with "...or were translated without experiencing ...
The short answer to the question that forms this thread's title is: "no".
Unpacking that, the key words in the second half of the verse, Ἀσπάζονται ὑμᾶς οἱ ἀπὸ τῆς Ἰταλίας, simply refer to native Italians in whatever place the writer was currently located.
This is a long-held view: see for example Marcus Dods' explanation in The Expositor's Greek Testament ...
Hebrews 1:1-4 sets out a thesis that the rest of the book will unpack by way of encouraging its Christian audience to remain faithful.
The author's constant appeal to the Hebrew Scriptures accounts for the traditional title, "The Letter to the Hebrews", although the book doesn't look much like a letter, and it never identifies its audience as ...
Authorship of Hebrews
Expansion of Pauline Authorship
The only overt clue as to the authorship is the reference to Timothy in Hebrews 13:23. This, in addition to the Eastern/Alexandrian tradition of Pauline authorship, led many to believe that Paul was the author. This is supported by significant uncial evidence that places Hebrews with other Pauline works ...
Several techniques that people use to establish literary dependence include:
Identical passages of several words or more
Unusual or unexpected words matching (especially usages that are idiosyncratic to one of the authors)
Overal structure matching
Matches in narrative or parenthetical material (this precludes the possibility that both are just quoting the ...
"Propitiation" is the preferred choice of the two since it addresses both the context and the theology of the act. The meaning of propitiation is actually more forceful than how it is normally translated, as "appeasing." Instead, it's more in line with specifically being the object of the direct wrath of the deity in question (in the Greek mind) for ...
This is because the author of Hebrews was quoting Psalm 8:6, which uses the plural pronoun, and the NIV 2011 translation committee likely was attempting to line the quote up with the original verse. However, the singular pronoun is used in the Greek for this passage in Hebrews 2:8. It appears that all of the pronouns are singular until verse 11 ("He (...
I like Origen's comment on the authorship of Hebrews:
But as for myself, if I were to state my own opinion, I should say
that the thoughts are those of the apostle [Paul], but that the
diction and phraseology are those of someone who wrote down at his
leisure what had been said by his teacher. Therefore, if any church
holds that this epistle is by ...
Historically there is a clear distinction between the king and the high priest. The first was always from the tribe of Judah and the second from the tribe of Levi. Even if there are examples of kings that also were priests, that was never an accepted order.
Still Jesus is claimed to be the Messiah (King):
Jesus and his disciples went on to the villages ...
An important piece of evidence that provides a partial answer for this question comes from the Dead Sea Scrolls (DSS).
A large number of fragments were found in Cave 11, among them a text known as 11Q13 or 11QMelchizedek. In brief (and quoting the "About" text from the DeadSeaScrolls.org.il site),1 it is a short text which
focuses on Melchizedek, ...
Restatement: What is the difference between Faith and Hope, in New Testament texts? Evidently, the usage of the Greek words, "Faith" and "Hope", are clearly distinct from each other, even used in the same sentence, so it seems there must be a notable difference between the two.
Answer: "Hope" bears with it an emotional sense of "Joyful Expectation" ; ...
The expression διὰ παντός means
always, continually, constantly (BDAG, "διὰ", A.2.a)
This is a formulaic adverbial phrase, but it isn't really so hard to arrive at from the literal meaning of the two words if one understands διὰ as "throughout, through, during" (A.2.a). The following word is the genitive form of the adjective "all" (the genitive being ...
The Idea in Brief
The soul is the very life that all living creatures appear to share. (Thus no cadaver, whether man or animal, possesses the "nephesh.") However, only human beings possess the spirit, which appears to be the "Image of God."
The passage of Hebrews 4:12 appears to discriminate between the material and immaterial aspects of the ...
Although he was a son, he learned obedience through what he suffered. And being made perfect (τελειωθεὶς), he became the source of eternal salvation to all who obey him, being designated by God a high priest after the order of Melchizedek. (Hebrews 5:8-10 ESV)
How this applies to Jesus who was already perfect can be seen in how the word is used elsewhere:
Just because the text identifies the angels doesn't mean that the human characters had that knowledge, or at least not initially.
The Biblical instances which would be commonly understood to be times when people were unaware they were entertaining angels are:
Abraham in Genesis 18
Lot in Genesis 19
Gideon in Judges 6
Samson's parents in Judges 13
Is it not the case that the writer, having clearly stated that Enoch did not see death, then excludes Enoch from the statement, "These all died," ?
It is unnecessary for the writer to break into the second statement and add "except for Enoch" as the writer has already excluded that singular circumstance by previously defining it separately.
The Broader Context Answers "Covenant"
Grammatically, the singular feminine ἡ πρώτη ἐκείνη ("that first") could match to either the singular feminine λειτουργία ("ministry) or singular feminine διαθήκη ("covenant").
Proximity would argue toward the nearer referent to "covenant," but proximity is not always the deciding factor as a further referent can be ...
Hebrews has long been associated with Paul, though, as you say, the Greek style and the focus are different.
The combination of literary Greek and knowledge of the Hebrew Scriptures indicates the author was probably a Greek-speaking Jew.
A few apostles and teachers mentioned in the book of Acts fit this profile:
Barnabas, a Levite from Cyprus (Acts 4:36)
The NWT translation rests on two quirks of Greek.
Ὁ θρόνος σου ὁ θεὸς εἰς τὸν αἰῶνα τοῦ αἰῶνος, ...(SBLGNT)
the throne of you the God into the age of the age, ...(my nearly word-for-word translation)
First, the nominative case and the vocative case often share the same forms. So the original passage has two occurrences of the word form "ὁ" ("the") ...
Yes, I think Jesus is the Logos mentioned in Hebrews 4:12, for a few reasons.
To start with, the ESV translation: "For the word of God is living and active, sharper than any two-edged sword, piercing to the division of soul and of spirit, of joints and of marrow, and discerning the thoughts and intentions of the heart. And no creature is hidden from his ...
For this Melchisedec, king of Salem, priest of the most high God, who met Abraham returning from the slaughter of the kings, and blessed him; To whom also Abraham gave a tenth part of all; first being by interpretation King of righteousness, and after that also King of Salem, which is, King of peace; Without father, without mother, without ...
I think the question arises out of a dubious translation, and I'm not sure what accounts for the ISV's almost unique offering of "fragmentary" here.1 Even so, there is something here worth probing, although the way the question is framed partially obcures this. The central question (slightly tweaked for clarity) is:
[OP] ...what point is [the author of ...
Is 'many' necessarily exclusionary?
No. The relevant bit of Heb 9:28 (NA-28 | ESV):
οὕτως καὶ ὁ Χριστὸς ἅπαξ προσενεχθεὶς εἰς τὸ πολλῶν ἀνενεγκεῖν ἁμαρτίας
so Christ also, having been offered once to bear the sins of many
The contrast is made between Christ's once offering (prospherō) and the many whose sin he has taken upon himself (anapherō). ...
The ones you have in bold are from two Psalms which were considered to have Messianic applications by the writer of Hebrews. He was arguing from the nature of Messiah that he was greater than angels. It seems that at the time the recipients of the letter had a high view of angels as above every possible person outside of God himself. As the writer really ...