18
votes
Accepted
Do angels commit sins?
2 Peter 2:4 explicitly states that angels have sinned.
For if God did not spare the angels who sinned, but rather, after he cast them into Tartarus into chains of darkness, He delivered [them] to be ...
- 11k
15
votes
Accepted
Why will drunkards not inherit the kingdom of God?
This is an excellent question that has plagued the Christian church for millennia with copious arguments on both sides. What are the Biblical facts:
There is no explicit Biblical command against ...
- 91.3k
10
votes
Accepted
1 Corinthians 1:25, who is God?
Excellent question here, and one that is quite instructive more generally.
Throughout this chapter, Paul makes a clear distinction between God the Father and the Jesus. Let us observe the following:
...
- 91.3k
10
votes
Accepted
Is the Son second in authority under God the Father? 1 Corinthians 15:24-28
Let us first have a direct literal translation of 1 Cor 15:24-28:
[24] ειτα το τελος οταν παραδω την βασιλειαν τω θεω και πατρι οταν καταργηση πασαν αρχην και πασαν εξουσιαν και δυναμιν [25] δει γαρ ...
- 476
10
votes
How to reconcile Matthew 5:22 and 1 Corinthians 15: 36?
1 Corinthians 15:36 uses the Greek word ἄφρων (aphrōn), which Strong's defines as:
properly, mindless, i.e. stupid, (by implication) ignorant, (specially) egotistic, (practically) rash, or (morally) ...
- 5,585
10
votes
Does the sower and the planter receive different rewards in 1 Corinthians 3:6-8?
Don't stretch the metaphors too much. While other passages such as 1 Timothy 5:17 do indicate that the ministry of some people is of a higher status than others, what Paul is saying here in 1 ...
- 2,943
10
votes
Accepted
1 Cor 12:4-6 - Trinity or something else?
Though I've got no issues with the Trinitarian interpretation of these verses, I would suggest that there's a general risk across the New Testament of eisegesis by capitalising the 'S' in spirit. ...
- 5,546
9
votes
Accepted
How to reconcile Matthew 5:22 and 1 Corinthians 15: 36?
Matthew 5:22 But I say to you that everyone being angry with his brother will be liable to the judgment, and whoever shall say to his brother 'Raca,' will be liable to the Sanhedrin. But whoever shall ...
- 149
9
votes
Why doesn’t Paul use a Greek word for “influence” in 1 Corinthians 15:33?
Paul is using a line from the Thais of the Greek poet Menander1, whose work would have been well-known to Paul's Corinthian audience.
It is not uncommon for preachers in English to quote Shakespeare, ...
- 15.8k
8
votes
Why is the phrase 'not being myself under the law' missing in 1 Corinthians 9:20 in the KJV?
The KJV is translated from the Textus Receptus from the Greek texts of the Computensian Polyglot, from Erasmus, from Beza 1598 and Stephanus 1550.
Professor Frederick Scrivener, in 1881, produced a ...
- 29k
8
votes
Accepted
Why is the phrase 'not being myself under the law' missing in 1 Corinthians 9:20 in the KJV?
The phrase in question from the Greek is μὴ ὢν αὐτὸς ὑπὸ νόμον = not being myself under the law.
The MSS that include this phrase include (dates in brackets):
P46(200), 01(350), 02(V), 03(IV), 04(V), ...
- 91.3k
8
votes
Accepted
In the Greek, does 1 Corinthians 5:7 say Jesus is our Passover Lamb?
The Greek of 1 Cor 5:7 is:
ἐκκαθάρατε τὴν παλαιὰν ζύμην, ἵνα ἦτε νέον φύραμα, καθώς ἐστε ἄζυμοι.
καὶ γὰρ τὸ πάσχα ἡμῶν ἐτύθη Χριστός.
The highlighted words above are literally: "Also, for the ...
- 91.3k
8
votes
Accepted
In what sense was Paul considered a false witness to Christ's resurrection?
We need to follow through the logic of the argument.
Paul and the other disciples have been witnessing that Christ rose from the dead (vv1-11).
So IF (and only if) Christ did NOT rise from the dead, ...
- 4,795
7
votes
What were the Corinthians doing when they "baptized on behalf of the dead"?
Looking through the answers posted so far, one view seems to be missing, which happens to be my view.
Baptism in 1 Corinthians
Additionally, the context of 1 Corinthians shows that water baptism had a ...
- 20k
7
votes
Accepted
Why does biblehub.com translate κεφαλῆς of I Corinthians 11:4 as "[his] head"?
Grammatical gender (in this case feminine) is not (usually) related to human gender. Most words have a single gender that is used in all sentences regardless of whether it belongs to a man or woman. ...
- 4,191
7
votes
What does 1 Corinthians 15:19 actually mean?
It means if there is no afterlife then why bother go through all the opposition, persecution, and trouble of living for God? Why lose friends when we turn to Christ, why give up sinful pleasures? ...
- 783
7
votes
Accepted
How to understand John 4 in light of Exodus 17 and Numbers 20?
The question makes a leap of logic that is unwarranted.
In all the cases cited, Ex 17:17, Num 20:2, literal (as distinct from spiritual or figurative) water is in view.
This leaves us with 1 Cor 10:3 ...
- 91.3k
7
votes
Do angels commit sins?
There are several passages of scripture that reveal what happened such as Rev 12:7-9 -
7 Then a war broke out in heaven: Michael and his angels fought against the dragon, and the dragon and his ...
- 91.3k
7
votes
In 1 Corinthians 15:24-28 "The last enemy to be destroyed is Death". Who are the enemies before the last enemy?
The hermenutical approach is to deal with the words and context of the verse in question. It is verse 24 (which you quote) that gives the answer. After Christ has come for the second time, and 'the ...
- 19.9k
7
votes
Accepted
Is ‘flesh and blood’ different to ‘flesh and bones’ in the Bible?
"Bone and flesh" or "flesh and bone" is a Hebraism of the Bible:
Gen 2:23 - Then the man said, “This at last is bone of my bones and flesh of my flesh; she shall be called Woman, ...
- 91.3k
6
votes
What does Paul mean by "unworthy manner" in 1 Corinthians 11:27-32?
The word Paul uses here, is αναξιως, a compound word consisting of αν + αξιως. So, it means "not" + "appropriately" or "inappropriately".
In 1 Corinthians 11:24-25, Paul records how Jesus instituted ...
- 4,999
6
votes
1 Corinthians 13:9-10 - What Does "ἐκ μέρους" Mean?
Grammatically, 1 Corinthians 13:9 is ambiguous enough that Paul could be referring to the parts of the body of Christ ("individually"). However, the context makes it clear that this is not ...
- 4,191
6
votes
Accepted
The Prophet and the Mystery
And does not infer causation in Greek nor English, unless there is other context to definitively create an implication. For example:
I am a skilled juggler and can walk on my hands.1
The above ...
- 5,546
6
votes
1 Corinthians 1:25, who is God?
In 1 Corinthians 1, the apostle Paul distinguishes between “Jesus Christ” and God.1
Footnotes
1 1 Cor. 1:1, 1:2, 1:3, 1:4, 1:9, 1:30
For example, 1 Cor. 1:3:
Grace and peace [be] to you from ...
- 11k
6
votes
Does "asleep" in 1 Corinthians 15 mean that the dead are unconscious prior to the resurrection?
At your suggestion here is a longer series of comments about what the Bible teaches about man during death.
Mortal man is just that, and the soul can die. Eze 18:4, 20, 24, Gen 6:3, 1 Tim 6:15, 16.
...
- 91.3k
Only top scored, non community-wiki answers of a minimum length are eligible