18 votes
Accepted

Do angels commit sins?

2 Peter 2:4 explicitly states that angels have sinned. For if God did not spare the angels who sinned, but rather, after he cast them into Tartarus into chains of darkness, He delivered [them] to be ...
Der Übermensch's user avatar
15 votes
Accepted

Why will drunkards not inherit the kingdom of God?

This is an excellent question that has plagued the Christian church for millennia with copious arguments on both sides. What are the Biblical facts: There is no explicit Biblical command against ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 101k
10 votes
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1 Corinthians 1:25, who is God?

Excellent question here, and one that is quite instructive more generally. Throughout this chapter, Paul makes a clear distinction between God the Father and the Jesus. Let us observe the following: ...
Dottard's user avatar
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10 votes
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Is the Son second in authority under God the Father? 1 Corinthians 15:24-28

Let us first have a direct literal translation of 1 Cor 15:24-28: [24] ειτα το τελος οταν παραδω την βασιλειαν τω θεω και πατρι οταν καταργηση πασαν αρχην και πασαν εξουσιαν και δυναμιν [25] δει γαρ ...
David's user avatar
  • 476
10 votes

How to reconcile Matthew 5:22 and 1 Corinthians 15: 36?

1 Corinthians 15:36 uses the Greek word ἄφρων (aphrōn), which Strong's defines as: properly, mindless, i.e. stupid, (by implication) ignorant, (specially) egotistic, (practically) rash, or (morally) ...
Ray Butterworth's user avatar
10 votes

Does the sower and the planter receive different rewards in 1 Corinthians 3:6-8?

Don't stretch the metaphors too much. While other passages such as 1 Timothy 5:17 do indicate that the ministry of some people is of a higher status than others, what Paul is saying here in 1 ...
curiousdannii's user avatar
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10 votes
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1 Cor 12:4-6 - Trinity or something else?

Though I've got no issues with the Trinitarian interpretation of these verses, I would suggest that there's a general risk across the New Testament of eisegesis by capitalising the 'S' in spirit. ...
Steve can help's user avatar
  • 5,635
9 votes
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How to reconcile Matthew 5:22 and 1 Corinthians 15: 36?

Matthew 5:22 But I say to you that everyone being angry with his brother will be liable to the judgment, and whoever shall say to his brother 'Raca,' will be liable to the Sanhedrin. But whoever shall ...
Lucian's user avatar
  • 149
9 votes

Why doesn’t Paul use a Greek word for “influence” in 1 Corinthians 15:33?

Paul is using a line from the Thais of the Greek poet Menander1, whose work would have been well-known to Paul's Corinthian audience. It is not uncommon for preachers in English to quote Shakespeare, ...
Hold To The Rod's user avatar
8 votes

Why is the phrase 'not being myself under the law' missing in 1 Corinthians 9:20 in the KJV?

The KJV is translated from the Textus Receptus from the Greek texts of the Computensian Polyglot, from Erasmus, from Beza 1598 and Stephanus 1550. Professor Frederick Scrivener, in 1881, produced a ...
Nigel J's user avatar
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8 votes
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Why is the phrase 'not being myself under the law' missing in 1 Corinthians 9:20 in the KJV?

The phrase in question from the Greek is μὴ ὢν αὐτὸς ὑπὸ νόμον = not being myself under the law. The MSS that include this phrase include (dates in brackets): P46(200), 01(350), 02(V), 03(IV), 04(V), ...
Dottard's user avatar
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8 votes
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In the Greek, does 1 Corinthians 5:7 say Jesus is our Passover Lamb?

The Greek of 1 Cor 5:7 is: ἐκκαθάρατε τὴν παλαιὰν ζύμην, ἵνα ἦτε νέον φύραμα, καθώς ἐστε ἄζυμοι. καὶ γὰρ τὸ πάσχα ἡμῶν ἐτύθη Χριστός. The highlighted words above are literally: "Also, for the ...
Dottard's user avatar
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8 votes

Someone who could have considered Paul a false witness of Christ's resurrection and for what reasons?

We need to follow through the logic of the argument. Paul and the other disciples have been witnessing that Christ rose from the dead (vv1-11). So IF (and only if) Christ did NOT rise from the dead, ...
Stephen Disraeli's user avatar
7 votes

What were the Corinthians doing when they "baptized on behalf of the dead"?

Looking through the answers posted so far, one view seems to be missing, which happens to be my view. Baptism in 1 Corinthians Additionally, the context of 1 Corinthians shows that water baptism had a ...
ScottS's user avatar
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7 votes
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Why does biblehub.com translate κεφαλῆς of I Corinthians 11:4 as "[his] head"?

Grammatical gender (in this case feminine) is not (usually) related to human gender. Most words have a single gender that is used in all sentences regardless of whether it belongs to a man or woman. ...
ThaddeusB's user avatar
  • 4,272
7 votes

What does 1 Corinthians 15:19 actually mean?

It means if there is no afterlife then why bother go through all the opposition, persecution, and trouble of living for God? Why lose friends when we turn to Christ, why give up sinful pleasures? ...
Andrew Shanks's user avatar
7 votes
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How to understand John 4 in light of Exodus 17 and Numbers 20?

The question makes a leap of logic that is unwarranted. In all the cases cited, Ex 17:17, Num 20:2, literal (as distinct from spiritual or figurative) water is in view. This leaves us with 1 Cor 10:3 ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 101k
7 votes

Do angels commit sins?

There are several passages of scripture that reveal what happened such as Rev 12:7-9 - 7 Then a war broke out in heaven: Michael and his angels fought against the dragon, and the dragon and his ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 101k
7 votes

In 1 Corinthians 15:24-28 "The last enemy to be destroyed is Death". Who are the enemies before the last enemy?

The hermenutical approach is to deal with the words and context of the verse in question. It is verse 24 (which you quote) that gives the answer. After Christ has come for the second time, and 'the ...
Anne's user avatar
  • 22.6k
7 votes

What does Paul mean by “we have the mind of Christ”?

Those who have the mind of Christ are able to discern spiritual things that the natural man cannot understand or see. Having the mind of Christ enables one to see what is freely given to him that the ...
Sherrie 's user avatar
  • 3,446
7 votes
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Is ‘flesh and blood’ different to ‘flesh and bones’ in the Bible?

"Bone and flesh" or "flesh and bone" is a Hebraism of the Bible: Gen 2:23 - Then the man said, “This at last is bone of my bones and flesh of my flesh; she shall be called Woman, ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 101k
6 votes

What does Paul mean by "unworthy manner" in 1 Corinthians 11:27-32?

The word Paul uses here, is αναξιως, a compound word consisting of αν + αξιως. So, it means "not" + "appropriately" or "inappropriately". In 1 Corinthians 11:24-25, Paul records how Jesus instituted ...
enegue's user avatar
  • 5,032
6 votes
Accepted

The Prophet and the Mystery

And does not infer causation in Greek nor English, unless there is other context to definitively create an implication. For example: I am a skilled juggler and can walk on my hands.1 The above ...
Steve can help's user avatar
  • 5,635
6 votes

1 Corinthians 1:25, who is God?

In 1 Corinthians 1, the apostle Paul distinguishes between “Jesus Christ” and God.1 Footnotes         1 1 Cor. 1:1, 1:2, 1:3, 1:4, 1:9, 1:30 For example, 1 Cor. 1:3: Grace and peace [be] to you from ...
Der Übermensch's user avatar
6 votes

Does "asleep" in 1 Corinthians 15 mean that the dead are unconscious prior to the resurrection?

At your suggestion here is a longer series of comments about what the Bible teaches about man during death. Mortal man is just that, and the soul can die. Eze 18:4, 20, 24, Gen 6:3, 1 Tim 6:15, 16. ...
Dottard's user avatar
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