23

Short Answer: Paul was not in any way endorsing their action. On the contrary, Paul was bringing this up as evidence of their absurdity. The Corinthians were denying that the dead would be raised... but then they were turning around and getting baptized for them! His point is that they are being ridiculous. Context: The flow of the passage First, Paul ...


15

This is an excellent question that has plagued the Christian church for millennia with copious arguments on both sides. What are the Biblical facts: There is no explicit Biblical command against alcohol, except for Nazarenes like john the Baptist. Grape juice (in various forms) was an important part of the eastern diet both socially and physiologically. ...


15

I will base this answer on the premise that an activity cannot be a reason to be excluded from the kingdom of God unless there is something sinful about it. This is a premise that it is reasonable to hold in light of verses such as: Behold, the Lord's hand is not shortened, that it cannot save, or his ear dull, that it cannot hear; 2 but your iniquities ...


13

If there is a contradiction at all between Paul's tradition and the tradition of the Gospel writers, it can be resolved as a text critical issue here in 1 Corinthians 11:24. Most of the early manuscripts simply have Τοῦτό μού ἐστιν τὸ σῶμα τὸ ὑπὲρ ὑμῶν - "This is my body, which is for you." The short phrase τὸ ὑπὲρ ὑμῶν also appears in 2 Corinthians 9:3, ...


13

Short Answer: Paul wanted the Corinthians to address blatant immorality in the congregation, and to be able to work through legal disputes within the context of the Church, but he didn't want them going around criticizing people and fault-finding. Words have a semantic range, so it is always important to look at what the author was attempting to communicate ...


12

Background Points First, Paul is not writing an exact accounting of every instance of Christ being seen in 1 Cor 15:5-8. He does run through an ordered list of instances, which are leading to his point of his own late encounter (v.8). Second, Paul is writing Corinthians after the selection of Matthias. So at the time of his writing, Matthias, chosen to ...


10

The term Paul used that is translated 'homosexual(s)' came directly from the two Greek words in the Greek translation of the Levitical passage (i.e. the Septuagint, which Paul quoted regularly) condemning homosexuality. Paul "coined" the compound word, but it did not come from a vacuum. The Septuagint's translation of the Levitical passage says, in effect, "...


10

Manuscript support Both readings have early manuscript support The reading μυστήριον (mystery) finds early support in P46vid? א* A C 88 436 itr, 61 syrp copbo Hippolytus Ambrosiaster Ephraem Ambrose Pelagius Augustine Antiochus.1 UBS3 cites P46vid? in support of μυστήριον however the question mark follows "vid" because the editors were not sure of the ...


10

Used with an object in the Genitive case (as here), it means "a marker indicating that an activity or event is in some entity’s interest, for, in behalf of, for the sake of someone/something" and "a marker of the moving cause or reason, because of, for the sake of, for" (BDAG lexicon). So, for the sake of our sins and because of our sins. It parallels the ...


10

Excellent question here, and one that is quite instructive more generally. Throughout this chapter, Paul makes a clear distinction between God the Father and the Jesus. Let us observe the following: V1: Christ Jesus by the will of God (Θεοῦ) V2: To the church of God (τοῦ Θεοῦ) in Corinth, to those sanctified in Christ Jesus V3: Grace and peace to you from ...


8

The difference is that one is plural and the other is not. Greek had not invented upper- and lower-case letters at the time of Paul (as some languages still have not). Paul's word is θεοι (the-oi); where he writes of God, as in 1 Cor 8:4, it's θεος (the-os). Or, more accurately, something like ΘΕΟΙ and ΘΕΟC; but there is no differentiation between the ...


8

Paul, in context, leaves no doubt about his monotheism. 1 Cor 8 deals with food offered to idols. As such, we expect the text to deal with "so-called gods". Moreover, I find it interesting that you chose not to include v4 in your quote: 4 Therefore concerning the eating of things offered to idols, we know that an idol is nothing in the world, and ...


8

It seems that many people want to quote the lexicon and be on their way, however in this case the lexicon does not tell the whole story. While the lexicon clearly indicates that the word Arsenokoites came to mean sodomy, it is not at all clear that this is how Paul meant it to be understood. Unfortunately, this word has no established context prior to Paul'...


8

Restatement: What is the difference between Faith and Hope, in New Testament texts? Evidently, the usage of the Greek words, "Faith" and "Hope", are clearly distinct from each other, even used in the same sentence, so it seems there must be a notable difference between the two. Answer: "Hope" bears with it an emotional sense of "Joyful Expectation" ; ...


8

The KJV is translated from the Textus Receptus from the Greek texts of the Computensian Polyglot, from Erasmus, from Beza 1598 and Stephanus 1550. Professor Frederick Scrivener, in 1881, produced a learned text in which, from his extensive knowledge of the manuscripts involved, he compiled a Greek text (which sits beside me as I write) being the actual Greek ...


8

The phrase in question from the Greek is μὴ ὢν αὐτὸς ὑπὸ νόμον = not being myself under the law. The MSS that include this phrase include (dates in brackets): P46(200), 01(350), 02(V), 03(IV), 04(V), 06(VI), 010(IX), 012(IX), 024(VI), 0150(IX), 6(XIII), 33(IX), 104(1087), 256(1100), 263(XIII), 365(XII), 436(1100), 459(1092), 1175(X), 1319(XII), 1573(1200), ...


8

Your arithmetic is incorrect. Hand + foot + ear + eye = 4 So, no, this is not a 'veiled reference' to what you refer to as 'a trinity' of 'three parts' of one body. How could it be ?


7

This does not seem plausible given the assumptions in the theory. It appears that the Corinthians were quite eager to vindicate themselves. This theory appears to be making the assumption that the letter(s) of 2 Corinthians is/are largely in response to 1 Corinthians (which is a possibility). A few observations 1 Corinthians isn't actually the first letter(...


7

In Greek, the word "us" is in direct apposition to the word "apostles" - that is, the "us" are the same as the apostles. Paul may be referring to the twelve apostles, but is more likely using the Greek word "apostolos" to mean "messenger / sent one", as it usually does. In this sense of the word, Paul, Silas, and Timothy were all "apostles", in the same ...


7

No, these verses don't promote deception for the sake of mission. (1) 1 Corinthians 9:20-21 is set in the context of Paul defending his austere life-style as a counter-indicator of his apostleship. As one of many signs of his self-abnegation, he claims to subordinate even his own identity to those to whom he speaks. The contrast does not stop with law/not-...


7

This answer adds some supplementary material to the fine answer already posted. Sebastian Brock records particular comment on his preferred form of maranatha in the preface to the collection of his essays, Fire from Heaven: Studies in Syriac Theology and Liturgy (Ashgate, 2006), p. vi: Invocations of the Holy Spirit are found in all liturgical traditions ...


7

Grammatical gender (in this case feminine) is not (usually) related to human gender. Most words have a single gender that is used in all sentences regardless of whether it belongs to a man or woman. The possessive pronoun in the English of I Corinthians 11:4 does not come from the word for head itself, but rather is "added" to make the English ...


7

It means if there is no afterlife then why bother go through all the opposition, persecution, and trouble of living for God? Why lose friends when we turn to Christ, why give up sinful pleasures? Why give up selfish ambitions if this life is all there is? What would be the point? Why not renounce our faith rather than be thrown to the lions, or covered ...


7

The question makes a leap of logic that is unwarranted. In all the cases cited, Ex 17:17, Num 20:2, literal (as distinct from spiritual or figurative) water is in view. This leaves us with 1 Cor 10:3 and John 4:10-14. During the conversation with the woman at Jacob's well, Jesus used the metaphor of water to teach about about divine grace and the gospel of ...


7

Let us first have a direct literal translation of 1 Cor 15:24-28: [24] ειτα το τελος οταν παραδω την βασιλειαν τω θεω και πατρι οταν καταργηση πασαν αρχην και πασαν εξουσιαν και δυναμιν [25] δει γαρ αυτον βασιλευειν αχρις ου αν θη παντας τους εχθρους υπο τους ποδας αυτου [26] εσχατος εχθρος καταργειται ο θανατος [27] παντα γαρ υπεταξεν υπο τους ποδας αυτου ...


6

I believe Paul used the phrase "Baptism for the dead" vs 29, in the context of a spiritual war. I think it means those who "stand in the gap" for (or in the place of) fallen Christian brothers and sisters. I know that sounds a bit odd so let me explain. The Apostle Paul frequently used military terms to describe the Christian's ongoing spiritual battles ...


Only top voted, non community-wiki answers of a minimum length are eligible