17 votes
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Do angels commit sins?

2 Peter 2:4 explicitly states that angels have sinned. For if God did not spare the angels who sinned, but rather, after he cast them into Tartarus into chains of darkness, He delivered [them] to be ...
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16 votes
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Why will drunkards not inherit the kingdom of God?

This is an excellent question that has plagued the Christian church for millennia with copious arguments on both sides. What are the Biblical facts: There is no explicit Biblical command against ...
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  • 70k
16 votes

Why will drunkards not inherit the kingdom of God?

I will base this answer on the premise that an activity cannot be a reason to be excluded from the kingdom of God unless there is something sinful about it. This is a premise that it is reasonable to ...
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13 votes
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1 Cor 15:5: Jesus "was seen of Cephas, then of the twelve" - why "twelve" and not eleven?

Background Points First, Paul is not writing an exact accounting of every instance of Christ being seen in 1 Cor 15:5-8. He does run through an ordered list of instances, which are leading to his ...
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12 votes
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What did Paul mean by "Arsenokoitēs"? Was he condemning homosexual activity as we know it today?

The term Paul used that is translated 'homosexual(s)' came directly from the two Greek words in the Greek translation of the Levitical passage (i.e. the Septuagint, which Paul quoted regularly) ...
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  • 152
11 votes
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1 Cor 12:4-6 - Trinity or something else?

Though I've got no issues with the Trinitarian interpretation of these verses, I would suggest that there's a general risk across the New Testament of eisegesis by capitalising the 'S' in spirit. ...
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  • 5,176
10 votes
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What is the difference between hope and faith?

Restatement: What is the difference between Faith and Hope, in New Testament texts? Evidently, the usage of the Greek words, "Faith" and "Hope", are clearly distinct from each other, even used in the ...
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  • 4,966
10 votes
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In 1 Corinthians 2:1, which variant is more likely: «μαρτύριον» v. «μυστήριον»?

Manuscript support Both readings have early manuscript support The reading μυστήριον (mystery) finds early support in P46vid? א* A C 88 436 itr, 61 syrp copbo Hippolytus Ambrosiaster Ephraem Ambrose ...
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10 votes

What does the word "for" mean in the phrase "Christ died for our sins"?

Used with an object in the Genitive case (as here), it means "a marker indicating that an activity or event is in some entity’s interest, for, in behalf of, for the sake of someone/something" and "a ...
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10 votes
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1 Corinthians 1:25, who is God?

Excellent question here, and one that is quite instructive more generally. Throughout this chapter, Paul makes a clear distinction between God the Father and the Jesus. Let us observe the following: ...
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10 votes

How to reconcile Matthew 5:22 and 1 Corinthians 15: 36?

1 Corinthians 15:36 uses the Greek word ἄφρων (aphrōn), which Strong's defines as: properly, mindless, i.e. stupid, (by implication) ignorant, (specially) egotistic, (practically) rash, or (morally) ...
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9 votes

What does Paul mean by "unworthy manner" in 1 Corinthians 11:27-32?

I'd tend to look back at 1 Corinthians 10:14-17 (NIV), note the focus on one and unity. 14 Therefore, my dear friends, flee from idolatry. 15 I speak to sensible people; judge for yourselves what ...
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  • 199
9 votes
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How to reconcile Matthew 5:22 and 1 Corinthians 15: 36?

Matthew 5:22 But I say to you that everyone being angry with his brother will be liable to the judgment, and whoever shall say to his brother 'Raca,' will be liable to the Sanhedrin. But whoever shall ...
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  • 55
9 votes

Does the sower and the planter receive different rewards in 1 Corinthians 3:6-8?

Don't stretch the metaphors too much. While other passages such as 1 Timothy 5:17 do indicate that the ministry of some people is of a higher status than others, what Paul is saying here in 1 ...
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  • 2,880
9 votes

Why doesn’t Paul use a Greek word for “influence” in 1 Corinthians 15:33?

Paul is using a line from the Thais of the Greek poet Menander1, whose work would have been well-known to Paul's Corinthian audience. It is not uncommon for preachers in English to quote Shakespeare, ...
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8 votes

What did Paul mean by "Arsenokoitēs"? Was he condemning homosexual activity as we know it today?

It seems that many people want to quote the lexicon and be on their way, however in this case the lexicon does not tell the whole story. While the lexicon clearly indicates that the word Arsenokoites ...
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8 votes
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The Prophet and the Mystery

And does not infer causation in Greek nor English, unless there is other context to definitively create an implication. For example: I am a skilled juggler and can walk on my hands.1 The above ...
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  • 5,176
8 votes

Why is the phrase 'not being myself under the law' missing in 1 Corinthians 9:20 in the KJV?

The KJV is translated from the Textus Receptus from the Greek texts of the Computensian Polyglot, from Erasmus, from Beza 1598 and Stephanus 1550. Professor Frederick Scrivener, in 1881, produced a ...
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8 votes
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Why is the phrase 'not being myself under the law' missing in 1 Corinthians 9:20 in the KJV?

The phrase in question from the Greek is μὴ ὢν αὐτὸς ὑπὸ νόμον = not being myself under the law. The MSS that include this phrase include (dates in brackets): P46(200), 01(350), 02(V), 03(IV), 04(V), ...
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  • 70k
8 votes
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Is the Son second in authority under God the Father? 1 Corinthians 15:24-28

Let us first have a direct literal translation of 1 Cor 15:24-28: [24] ειτα το τελος οταν παραδω την βασιλειαν τω θεω και πατρι οταν καταργηση πασαν αρχην και πασαν εξουσιαν και δυναμιν [25] δει γαρ ...
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  • 476
8 votes
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Did Paul allow divorce between a believing couple?

It may be necessary here to distinguish between separating from a spouse while remaining married, and outright divorce - and that for adultery on the part of the one being divorced by the other. As ...
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  • 11.7k
7 votes

Which experts believe Paul "lost" his arguments in 1st Corinthians?

This does not seem plausible given the assumptions in the theory. It appears that the Corinthians were quite eager to vindicate themselves. This theory appears to be making the assumption that the ...
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  • 8,596
7 votes
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In 1 Cor 5:5 how does delivering someone to Satan destroy the flesh? What does this have to do with being saved?

The destruction of the flesh is indeed a difficult expression to determine the meaning of. One of the difficult aspects of interpreting a difficult-to-interpret phrase is related to exegesis. Exegesis ...
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  • 6,818
7 votes

Does Paul support deception to convert people?

No, these verses don't promote deception for the sake of mission. (1) 1 Corinthians 9:20-21 is set in the context of Paul defending his austere life-style as a counter-indicator of his apostleship. ...
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  • 24.5k
7 votes

Why is “maranatha” in 1 Cor 16:22?

This answer adds some supplementary material to the fine answer already posted. Sebastian Brock records particular comment on his preferred form of maranatha in the preface to the collection of his ...
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  • 24.5k
7 votes
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Why does biblehub.com translate κεφαλῆς of I Corinthians 11:4 as "[his] head"?

Grammatical gender (in this case feminine) is not (usually) related to human gender. Most words have a single gender that is used in all sentences regardless of whether it belongs to a man or woman. ...
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  • 4,122
7 votes

What does 1 Corinthians 15:19 actually mean?

It means if there is no afterlife then why bother go through all the opposition, persecution, and trouble of living for God? Why lose friends when we turn to Christ, why give up sinful pleasures? ...
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