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Matthew 11:29; Mark 11:15; how is it be, Jesus is meek and in the same time overthrew the tables of the moneychangers?

The operative word translated (by some) "meek" in Matt 11:29 is πραΰς and occurs just four times in the NT (Matt 5:5, 11:29, 21:5, 1 Peter 3:4). BDAG provides this definition: pertaining ...
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7 votes

Matthew 11:29; Mark 11:15; how is it be, Jesus is meek and in the same time overthrew the tables of the moneychangers?

Biblically, "meek" does not mean "weak", nor is it merely a synonym of "humble". The Greek word πραΰς has been defined, in a religious sense, as: exercising God's ...
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4 votes

Peace and Jesus

In Matthew 10:34 the Greek word machaira is used, and that word refers to a fighting weapon. There is another word for a sabre, which is a brandishing weapon, and that is used seven times in the New ...
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4 votes
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Is Jesus using multiple definitions of "life" in Matthew 10:39?

Technically, the word, ψυχή (psyche) is used in an identical sense both times it occurs in Matt 10:39. What is different, is the implied pronoun, "it". Let me be more specific by setting ...
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3 votes

What is the punishment of eternal fire according to Matt. 18:8, Matt. 25:41, and Jude 7?

This is a Hermeneutics site, not a theology site. So, we are asking what certain words mean across Bible passages, not what belief we conclude by comparing multiple Bible passages. There is no concept ...
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3 votes

Is Jesus using multiple definitions of "life" in Matthew 10:39?

[Matthew 10:39] Whoever finds his life will lose it, and whoever loses his life for my sake will find it. The latter part of the verse will help us understand the former part. If you have lost your ...
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3 votes

Did Jesus change his view on preaching to Gentiles?

This is where collating information from another gospel account, that of Mark, helps show that Jesus did not "change his mind on this matter, as at the end of his life (or rather after the end of ...
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3 votes

Does Jesus' teaching on marriage implicitly condemn polygamy as adulterous?

I agree with Dottard that this passage isn't really about polygamy, one way or the other. These verses have been taken out of context more than almost any other in all of scripture. I suggest that ...
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2 votes

In what sense is divorce and remarriage "adultery" according to Jesus?

These verses have been taken out of context more than almost any other verses in all of scripture. I suggest that Jesus' teachings on divorce here cannot be understood if divorced from 4 critical ...
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2 votes

"Pray then like this...Your will be done on earth as it is in heaven" - What does Jesus' inclusion of the petition imply?

Young's Literal Translation renders the relevant section of the Sermon on the Mount: "Thus therefore pray ye, 'Our Father who [art] in the heavens! Hallowed be thy name. Thy reign come: Thy will ...
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2 votes
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What is the punishment of eternal fire according to Matt. 18:8, Matt. 25:41, and Jude 7?

The perspective of "eternal fire" in traditional teaching has been to apply the adjective to the person undergoing judgment rather than to the fire. What is the word "eternal" ...
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2 votes

How did Jesus fulfill the law in Matt. 5:17-20?

Romans 5:18-21 ESV Therefore, as one trespass led to condemnation for all men, so one act of righteousness leads to justification and life for all men. For as by the one man's disobedience the many ...
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2 votes

How does "the day of judgement" in Matthew 10:15 compare with "is condemned already" in John 3:18?

Matthew 10:15 speaks of the future Day of Judgment in which all people will stand before God, the righteous being commended and the unrighteous being condemned in the final eschatological sense. See: (...
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2 votes

Using the word: father. Is Exodus 20:12 contradicting Matthew 23:9? (or vice-versa)?

The answer to this question can be readily deduced from the context of the previous verse. So, let me quote Matt 23:8, 9 But you are not to be called ‘Rabbi,’ for you have one Teacher, and you are ...
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1 vote

Is Jesus using multiple definitions of "life" in Matthew 10:39?

In Mt 10:39 Jesus presents us with a paradox: there is only one way to find one’s life, and that is by losing it for the sake of Christ. There is only one way to life, and it is through Jesus. The key ...
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1 vote

Is Jesus using multiple definitions of "life" in Matthew 10:39?

Yes, of course there are different semantics here of two "lives", for one life means everything, all aspects of our existence that are not related to Christ's commandments and Christ's life ...
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1 vote

How did Jesus fulfill the law in Matt. 5:17-20?

If Jesus is a Davidic Prince & potential King of Israel, then the Torah (specifically [Deuteronomy 4-30] ) should be his Law. For Davidic Princes, “The-Law” (νόμος) discussed in [Matthew 5:17] was ...
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1 vote

How did Jesus fulfill the law in Matt. 5:17-20?

Jesus came to ‘fulfil’ – clearly means to continue the laws of what had gone before and not change – Matt 5:18 – not ‘one jot’ will be changed. Jesus was a Jew and followed the laws as did his mother ...
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1 vote

How did Jesus fulfill the law in Matt. 5:17-20?

Both John the Baptist and Jesus categorically reject the religious institution of the time and confront their mob that bug them systematically. Jesus is simply disarming them by saying don’t panic, [...
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1 vote

How did Jesus fulfill the law in Matt. 5:17-20?

As Jesus was saying elsewhere most of his audience simply had deficient understanding of the Torah and the prophets and also the power of God: You are mistaken, not understanding the Scriptures, or ...
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1 vote

How did Jesus fulfill the law in Matt. 5:17-20?

Under God's law, a wife is under the law of her husband until he dies. God had divorced His wife, the nation of Israel. He promised to remarry her, but that is not possible under the law. So just ...
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1 vote
Accepted

How did Jesus fulfill the law in Matt. 5:17-20?

The following verses in Luke 16 sound a lot to me like it 'rhymes' with Matt. 5:17-20. Jesus says: 16 The law and the prophets were until John: since that time the kingdom of God is preached, and ...
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1 vote

How did Jesus fulfill the law in Matt. 5:17-20?

Depending on the interpreter, one reads the famous (and much misquoted) passage in Matt 5:17-19 in different ways. People either read it as: "I have come to fulfill the law" - meaning that ...
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1 vote

How did Jesus fulfill the law in Matt. 5:17-20?

How did Jesus fulfill the law in Matt. 5:17-20? Jesus fulfills the Law in two ways: obedience and prophecy fulfillment. As the perfect son of God, he was born without inherited sin like Adam and his ...
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1 vote

How did Jesus fulfill the law in Matt. 5:17-20?

Notice the expression "the law or the prophets". This refers to the first two major divisions of the Bible. The law is the Torah, the five books of Moses. This is where God's commandments ...
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1 vote

"Pray then like this...Your will be done on earth as it is in heaven" - What does Jesus' inclusion of the petition imply?

It means that the earth is currently under the reign of the devil - he is the god of this world. His will is being done by the majority of all who ever lived. In a real sense by all who ever lived ...
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1 vote

Mt. 22:14 - Who are the "many" (invited) and "few" (chosen) Jesus refers to in the parable of the wedding banquet?

This verse is, of course, part of Jesus ’parable of the wedding feast that describes the relationship between the Christian church and Jesus. Several interpretations have been put forward. It is often ...
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1 vote

Does Jesus' teaching on marriage implicitly condemn polygamy as adulterous?

The context of those passages is the right interpretation and application of the law which focuses on the spirit rather than letter, and to denounce the wicked, evil and legalistic tradition of men. ...
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  • 2,610
1 vote

Does Jesus' teaching on marriage implicitly condemn polygamy as adulterous?

The Bible frequently refers to marriage as a man and a woman becoming one, which clearly excludes polygamous relationships. But the Bible also shows examples of polygamy (e.g. Abraham, Jacob, Saul, ...
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