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4 votes

What is the reason for the difference between Eloi and Eli?

Mark, whose book focuses on the Messenger of the Covenant (see Mark 1:1,2 and Malachi 3: 1-4) whilst Matthew is writing in regard to the kingdom of the heavens (literal) against the background of the ...
Nigel J's user avatar
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4 votes

What is the reason for the difference between Eloi and Eli?

Both of these are usually understood to be Aramaic renditions of Psalm 22:1. But Matthew's version is closer to the Hebrew, changing "my God" from Eloi to Eli. The reason for this change ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
3 votes

Is Acts 19:19–20 demonstrating the supremacy of Scripture over magic books?

Acts 19 13 Then some itinerant Jewish exorcists tried to invoke the name of the Lord Jesus over those with evil spirits, saying, “I adjure you by the Jesus whom Paul preaches.” 14 When the seven sons ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
2 votes

The meaning of "akoe" in Matthew 24:6

Context The verse in question is found in part of the Olivet Discourse given by Jesus to describe the coming destruction of Judea, and in particular, the Temple. This is the context that must be kept ...
ray grant's user avatar
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2 votes

The meaning of "akoe" in Matthew 24:6

First, the word ἀκοή (akoe) is often used in the sense of hearing "rumor", eg, Matt 4:24, 14:1, 24:6; Mark 1:28; 13:7, etc. A rumor is, by definition, an unconfirmed report that may or may ...
Dottard's user avatar
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2 votes

How would an early Matthew, written before Paul's writings, change our understanding of Paul's writings?

Certainly full books could be written on this question! As @DanFefferman has noted, on this site it may be more fruitful to focus a single question on a single passage (and you could of course ask ...
Hold To The Rod's user avatar
2 votes

Is Acts 19:19–20 demonstrating the supremacy of Scripture over magic books?

Short Answer: Acts 19:19–20 speaks of the supremacy of the name of the Lord Jesus over magic books not necessarily the written word of the Lord. The phrase "word of the Lord" in this context ...
Jason_'s user avatar
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2 votes
Accepted

What is the connection between the slaughter of the innocents and Jeremiah 31:15?

In brief, the connection is supposed to be that Rachel herself was buried in Bethlehem, and she too had lost children. I say “supposed” because there are variant traditions about the place where ...
Stephen Disraeli's user avatar
2 votes

Is Jesus specifically talking about giving to our Enemies? Matthew 5:23

I would agree that it is a general principle, but I would say that is applies universally—to both the needy and to enemies. Jesus' greater message calls us to extend love and compassion to all people, ...
Jason_'s user avatar
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1 vote

Is Jesus specifically talking about giving to our Enemies? Matthew 5:23

Not so fast - that is not what the text is saying! Jesus' sermon in Matt 5:21-48 uses a classic Rabbinic technique - "You have heard that ... but I say ...". In this part of Jesus' sermon ...
Dottard's user avatar
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1 vote

To What Prior Writing (proegraphē) Was Paul Referring in Galatians 3:1 Which Speaks of Christ as Crucified?

The operative verb here (as correctly listed by the OP) is προγράφω (prographó) whose meaning is given by BDAG as: to write in advance or before, write before(hand) (a) in the same document in which ...
Dottard's user avatar
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1 vote

How should one interpret "if you wish to be perfect" in Matthew 19:21?

If surrendering all wealth were a prerequisite for achieving perfect followership of Jesus, why is this concept only mentioned once in this account, and not emphasized elsewhere? In the account ...
Vincent Wong's user avatar
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1 vote

Is Matthew alluding to Psalm 2 in Herod's court?

Psalm 2:1-2 Why do the nations [the heathen] protest and the peoples conspire in vain? Kings on earth rise up and princes plot together against the Lord and against his anointed one It is important ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
1 vote

Might Matthew 7:7 have had parallel grammar in Aramaic?

Sure, it could have if Jesus had wished to say it that way. For example, Greek δεῖξον (δείκνυμι) in Mark 1:44 is translated in the Peshitta as חוא, to show, reveal. It's a transitive verb, and I don't ...
ldghdlghdghdsflsgh's user avatar
1 vote

Might Matthew 7:7 have had parallel grammar in Aramaic?

The statement is part of the Sermon on the Mount which was given to a large crowd in Galilee and that strongly suggests Jesus spoke in Greek. Matthew 7:7 (ESV) Ask, and it will be given to you; seek, ...
Revelation Lad's user avatar
1 vote

Centurion Dispute

Here is a table comparing the two accounts: OPTION #1. The Centurion came AFTER sending emissaries. While the centurion originally felt shame in approaching Jesus (Lk. 7:6), it’s possible that he ...
Jason_'s user avatar
  • 4,504
1 vote

Centurion Dispute

Both accounts are true: Matt 8:5-13 - the centurion speaks for himself Luke 7:1-10 - the centurion sends servants with a message When a servant/diplomat/messenger delivers a message, he delivers on ...
Dottard's user avatar
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1 vote

Does anyone know precisely whether the gospel of Matthew was written before or after AD 70?

Am glad to see that questions regarding the dating of Matthew, along with its original language, continue to be voiced. However, I don't suspect that you'll ever find sufficient "evidence" ...
Dan Moore's user avatar
1 vote

Acts 2:38 vs Matthew 28:20- "In" vs "On" - By what nuance of meaning would Jesus use εἰς (eis) in Matthew while Peter would use ἐπί (epi) in Acts

Baptism involves two different people; one who performs the baptism and one who is baptized. As such there are two different baptismal confessions. The first is made by the one who has chosen to be ...
Revelation Lad's user avatar
1 vote

Did the disciples, the priests ,David with his men, and Yeshua (Jesus) sin by transgressing the Torah?

No they did not sin in the acts mentioned The Pharisee was famously blind to the intent of the Law of Moses! (chiefly being a law in, a moral sense, to show love and mercy and in a ceremonial sense to ...
Mike's user avatar
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1 vote

Did the disciples, the priests ,David with his men, and Yeshua (Jesus) sin by transgressing the Torah?

Yes, David sinned without a doubt. His sin was not imputed. Romans 4:7 -8 7 Blessed are those whose lawless deeds are forgiven, And whose sins are covered; 8 Blessed is the man to whom the Lord shall ...
Apologetics's user avatar
1 vote

Did Ephesians 2:15 intend to contradict Mathew 5:17?

Both verses can be fully true when realized that fulfilling something often causes it to expire in a sense or become obsolete. For example you make an order of 1 hamburger at McDonalds. Until the ...
Mike's user avatar
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