18 votes

Do "Eating and drinking" and "Marrying and given in marriage" in Matthew 24:36-39 refer to evil end times or to normal times before the Second Coming?

Allow me to quote the passage concerned: Matt 24 - 38 For in the days before the flood, people were eating and drinking, marrying and giving in marriage, up to the day Noah entered the ark. 39 And ...
Dottard's user avatar
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15 votes
Accepted

In Revelation 19:16, of which kings is Jesus king?

The phrase 'King of Kings' derives from a kind of superlative phrase common in Hebrew and related languages. The phrase is more about its subject being a sort of archetype or supertype, rather than ...
Steve can help's user avatar
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15 votes

Do "Eating and drinking" and "Marrying and given in marriage" in Matthew 24:36-39 refer to evil end times or to normal times before the Second Coming?

I will propose a different interpretation: Jesus is not saying there's anything wrong with eating or getting married; rather, He is pointing out that the ordinary activities of daily life--life as ...
Hold To The Rod's user avatar
12 votes
Accepted

Does Isaiah 30:6 confirm pre-existence of fire breathing dragons?

The operative word in Isa 30:6 is שָׂרָף (saraph) = serpent/snake which only occurs seven times in the OT as follows: Numbers 21:6, 8 - snakes with a fiery bite because of the burning sensation ...
Dottard's user avatar
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11 votes

Matthew 24:1-2 No stone left upon another, prophecy failed?

In Mark, we see more detail of what Jesus said. And Jesus answering said unto him, Seest thou these great buildings? there shall not be left one stone upon another, that shall not be thrown down. (...
Polyhat's user avatar
  • 6,070
10 votes
Accepted

Why does Jesus quote Zechariah 13:7?

You are correct, the Zechariah passage talks about the killing of false leaders, the shepherd, and the scattering of the followers, the sheep. Jesus is using the principle of sheep scattering when the ...
David D's user avatar
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8 votes

What are the 'diverse manners' by which God spoke to the prophets?

I am a simple soul that sees this in a much less complicated manner. As best I can tell, most modern versions have Heb 1:1 translated quite accurately, namely, "God, after He spoke long ago to ...
Dottard's user avatar
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8 votes
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Is there a contradiction between Hebrews 1:1-3 and Acts 21:8-11?

It appears to me that the OP's question is predicated on the assumption that divine revelation was complete with Jesus and there was nothing more to know about Him. This idea is explicitly refuted by ...
Dottard's user avatar
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8 votes

Did Daniel & his friends submit to King Nebuchadnezzar because of Jeremiah prophecy in Jer 27?

Jeremiah's advice to submit to the King of Babylon must indeed have seemed like traitorous advice to many patriotic Judeans, something like a contemporary prophet telling Americans they should submit ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
7 votes

Did God lose a fight to another deity?

The New American Bible, in note 4 to 2 Kings chapter 3, does initially attribute this triumph to the god Chemosh. However, the New American Bible then suggests an alternative, monotheistic ...
Dick Harfield's user avatar
7 votes

Which covenant was confirmed "with the many"for one week? (Daniel 9:27)

Jesus confirmed his covenant, the New Covenant, for one week. In the middle of the week (3 ½ years into his ministry) he was “cut off” thus, putting an end to the sacrifices and offerings of the old ...
oldhermit's user avatar
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6 votes

What is meant by "The iniquity of the Amorites is not yet full" in Genesis 15:16?

This site explains it with more biblical context for support. Namely: Abram/Abraham was currently allies with an Amorite Gen 14:14. "not yet full" Amorites increased in Idolatry = "iniquity" ...
Dean's user avatar
  • 71
6 votes

John 19:30 - What did Jesus say "was finished"?

The phrase actually translates one word in Greek, tetelestai, from the root tele­ō, which means "to finish, fulfill." Significantly, this specific form of the verb, tetelestai, is only found twice in ...
Michael King's user avatar
6 votes
Accepted

In Isaiah 45:23 is God saying that all shall bow to God or to Cyrus?

כִּי־לִי תִּכְרַ֣ע כָּל־בֶּ֔רֶךְ For to me every knee shall bow תִּשָּׁבַע כָּל־לָשֽׁוֹן Every tongue shall confess. The highlighted לי is the preposition lamed ("to", "for", "toward") ...
Susan's user avatar
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6 votes
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How should the 2300 evenings and mornings be understood in Daniel 8:13-14?

They are literal days. This vision concerns the rise of Antiochus IV Epiphianes and the Maccabean Revolt during the 2nd cent. BC. The time period is pin pointed by verses 20 - 21. "20 The ram ...
Gina's user avatar
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6 votes

In Revelation 6:6 what is meant by "Do not damage the oil and the wine”?

The English Standard Version Study Bible offers an interesting and insightful comment on verse 6: ESV Comment - Do not harm the oil and wine: Local crops such as oil and wine are unaffected, showing ...
Lesley's user avatar
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6 votes

Which of these interpretations of Malachi 3:1 can be eliminated?

It is Mark who interprets this passage for us in the opening two verses of his gospel account : As it is written in the prophets "Behold I send my messenger before thy face, which shall prepare ...
Nigel J's user avatar
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6 votes
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Who was preventing Jesus's statement from being understood? Luke 9:45

We look at these wonderful stories with hind-sight which the disciples did not have. They expected a Messiah something like a political strong-man to free them from the Roman yoke! Jesus was not ...
Dottard's user avatar
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6 votes
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What is the meaning of "fulfill" in John 17:12 and Matthew 26:54?

The intonations are different in those two quotations: John 17:12 says it with an apparent intonation of a remorse and sadness, as if Jesus said: "how bad that the Scripture is to be fulfilled, ...
Levan Gigineishvili's user avatar
6 votes
Accepted

How can the Holy Spirit be a person if He (or it) can be 'poured out' according to Acts 2:17?

This argument about the Holy Spirit being "pourable" is specious because it is based on an idiom with which we are unfamiliar. Note the following that discusses other people being "...
Dottard's user avatar
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6 votes
Accepted

Why doesn't the widow of Zarephath acknowledge God's commandment in 1 Kings 17?

The word "command" has a broader sense of meaning which includes the concept of "ordained" (i.e. "chosen"). It could also mean "appoint." For example, the ...
Biblasia's user avatar
  • 4,758
6 votes

Why was the prophecy of Zechariah 4:9 - that Zerubbabel would finish building the Temple - not fulfilled?

Historically Zerubbabel did not complete God's house, namely the restored Temple of Jerusalem. It was finished in a later generation during the time of Ezra and Nehemiah. Ezra 4 describes how ...
Biblasia's user avatar
  • 4,758
5 votes

Who is the woman in Revelation 12?

I disagree with the answer given here. the Woman cannot be spiritual Israel without any connection to physical Israel, because spiritual Israel did not birth Yahuwshuwa (Jesus). No where in the ...
diego b's user avatar
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5 votes
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Why did Rachel weep for her children?

A close examination of scripture reveals Rachael's death and burial location as falling short of reaching Ephrath. Jacob made mention of this: Gen 48:7 As for me, when I came from Paddan, Rachel ...
wilberteric's user avatar
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5 votes

Does the word 'prophesy' in 1 Corinthians 14:3 include preaching/teaching?

It appears that when one utters a prophecy it could apply to both preaching and teaching. In an broader sense, prophesying means that one serves as a mouthpiece for God. I speak as one who grew up ...
wilberteric's user avatar
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