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26 votes

Is John 6:4 authentic?

According to UBS4, UBS5, NA04, NA27, NA28, Majority text, Byzantine text, Orthodox text, W&H, SBL, F35 (Pickering), Souter, TR, Jerome's Vulgate, Vaticanus, Sinaiticus, THGNT, NIVGNT, (yes, I ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 109k
21 votes
Accepted

Why John 1:1 in (DRB)(Douay-Rheims Bible) is not literal translation from the Latin Vulgate?

Neither "And a god was the Word" nor: "And God was the Word" are correct translations for θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος. To understand the implications of the last clause, you need to understand ...
oldhermit's user avatar
  • 3,498
17 votes
Accepted

How can we reconcile 2 Samuel 6:23 & 2 Samuel 21:7-9?

As a commenter notes, there is a text-critical issue here. The Masoretic Text of the Hebrew Bible plainly reads "Michal" at this point. However, as the textual notes to the Biblia Hebraica ...
Dɑvïd's user avatar
  • 24.8k
12 votes

Is John 6:4 authentic?

NA28: ἦν δὲ ἐγγὺς τὸ πάσχα, ἡ ἑορτὴ τῶν Ἰουδαίων UBS5: ἦν δὲ ἐγγὺς τὸ πάσχα, ἡ ἑορτὴ τῶν Ἰουδαίων P66: ην δε εγʼγυς το πασχα η εορτη τω̅ ̅ϊουδαιων Codex Sinaticus: ην δε εγγυς το πασχα · η εορτη των ...
Robert's user avatar
  • 8,532
12 votes

What are the implications of the recent finding in Vatican Library in relation to Matt 12:1?

The incident in Matt 12:1-7 is also recorded by Mark and Luke. The wording of the first verse is essentially the same in Mark. However, in Luke 6:1 we have the following record: One Sabbath Jesus ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 109k
10 votes
Accepted

Which reading is the original text of Ruth 1:2 (and other similar verses)?

As I think OP is probably already aware, one of the two available manuscripts from among the Dead Sea Scrolls (4QRutha) and the Greek support the singular שדה, so there is indeed a textual problem ...
Susan's user avatar
  • 26.6k
10 votes

2 Samuel 1:26 -- How does the Vulgate have a sentence not present in the Masoretic text or Septuagint?

Scholarly opinion is that the additional sentence in the Latin translation of 2 Sam 1:26 (Sicut mater unicum amat filium suum, ita ego te diligebam) is a mediaeval interpolation; that is to say: it ...
fdb's user avatar
  • 5,340
9 votes
Accepted

Why does the KJV add "desire" to Mark 11:24?

When looking at slightly odd renderings in the KJV (and there are some fascinating ones), it is worth checking on its influences for any clues. And the case of Mark 11:24, along with its parallel in ...
Dɑvïd's user avatar
  • 24.8k
9 votes

What manuscript(s) does BHS get Joshua 21:36-37 from?

I don't usually do tl;dr summaries, but it seems it might help in this case... tl;dr summary OP Q: what the source of the Hebrew of those two verses [i.e., Josh 21:36-67]? A: the majority of ...
Dɑvïd's user avatar
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9 votes
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Does the Codex Sinaiticus contain the Hebrew Tetragrammaton or Greek LORD (KURIOS)?

OP asks several questions, which I will summarize and address. How does Codex Sinaiticus handle the word translated "LORD/lord" in Romans 10:13? We can answer this definitively due to the amazing ...
Susan's user avatar
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9 votes
Accepted

How can we trust the Hebrew Bible to be accurate when the oldest MSS go back only to about the tenth century C.E.?

39+ different answers The Old Testament is not a single book, but a collection of 39 books (or 46, depending on who you ask). Some of these books are well-attested in Hebrew before the 10th century, ...
Hold To The Rod's user avatar
8 votes

Interpreting "psyche" as "soul"?

SOUL, WHAT IS IT? When reading the scriptures , the Hebrew word "ne'phesh" and the Greek word " phy'khe" meaning " Soul", we notice that it is basically used to refer to &...
Ozzie  Ozzie's user avatar
8 votes
Accepted

What does "revocalization" mean in Bible footnotes?

At the beginning the writing system for the Hebrew language only recorded the consonants. The vowels were remembered and passed on as oral tradition as one generation taught the next how to recite the ...
curiousdannii's user avatar
  • 3,003
8 votes

What are the main Textual Differences between KJV and DRB?

The Douay-Rheims Bible is a translation into English from the Latin Vulgate, which dates to a translation from Hebrew (most of the Old Testament) and Greek (New Testament and some Old Testament ...
user33515's user avatar
  • 12.4k
8 votes

Why is the phrase 'not being myself under the law' missing in 1 Corinthians 9:20 in the KJV?

The KJV is translated from the Textus Receptus from the Greek texts of the Computensian Polyglot, from Erasmus, from Beza 1598 and Stephanus 1550. Professor Frederick Scrivener, in 1881, produced a ...
Nigel J's user avatar
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8 votes
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Why is the phrase 'not being myself under the law' missing in 1 Corinthians 9:20 in the KJV?

The phrase in question from the Greek is μὴ ὢν αὐτὸς ὑπὸ νόμον = not being myself under the law. The MSS that include this phrase include (dates in brackets): P46(200), 01(350), 02(V), 03(IV), 04(V), ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 109k
8 votes

Psalm 14 or Psalm 53 - Which came first?

The Psalms can be divided into 5 books marked by benedictions. For instance, Book 1 and Book 2 are separated by a verse that is usually included as a conclusion to Psalm 41: Blessed is the LORD, God ...
Jon Ericson's user avatar
  • 30.8k
8 votes

Why is the doctrine of fasting omitted by the modern revisions of the Bible?

These are all textual questions and NOT doctrinal questions. Specifically, Matt 17:21 V21 is an addition in the Byzantine manuscripts (with numerous variations) from the 5th century onwards Mark 9:29 ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 109k
7 votes

Is "theos" of the Textus Receptus of 1 Timothy 3:16 the original reading?

John William Burgon wrote “The Revision Revised” (1881) to which anyone would have to refer sooner or later to decide if there was any merit in Sir Isaac Newton’s assertions concerning 1 Timothy 3:16. ...
Andrew Shanks's user avatar
7 votes
Accepted

Acts 11:20 according to the Codex Sinaiticus

(1) OP: ...what do the marks indicate? The supralinear dots in Sinaiticus are erasures. As Bruce Metzger explains in his Textual Commentary on the Greek New Testament, The first hand of codex ...
Dɑvïd's user avatar
  • 24.8k
7 votes
Accepted

Why KJV translated "Χριστοῦ" as "God" in Ephesians 5:21?

The Textus Receptus Greek text for Ephesians 5:21 reads : υποτασσομενοι αλληλοις εν φοβω θεου The KJV translates this as : Submitting yourselves one to another in the fear of God. [KJV 1769] ...
Nigel J's user avatar
  • 31.8k
7 votes
Accepted

What is the most accurate (original Greek text), and (translation) of Jude 1:4?

The ASV and the KJV are based on a different set of Greek manuscripts, so this might account for part of the difference. According to the apparatus in the 27th edition of the Nestle-Aland Greek New ...
user33515's user avatar
  • 12.4k
7 votes
Accepted

Why is the word wife removed from most translation in Matthew 19:29?

It's a matter of textual variants and which Biblical manuscripts the translators chose to follow. The Majority Text, a superset of manuscripts which includes what are popularly called "the ...
Biblasia's user avatar
  • 5,023
7 votes

What are the implications of the recent finding in Vatican Library in relation to Matt 12:1?

What are the implications of the recent finding in the Vatican Library in relation to Matt 12:1? As @Michael16's answer shows, there is no new text discovered. As @Dottard points out, the longer ...
GratefulDisciple's user avatar
6 votes
Accepted

Is Joshua 21:36-37 authentic or an addition?

Joshua 21:36-37 (KJV): And out of the tribe of Reuben, Bezer with her suburbs, and Jahazah with her suburbs, Kedemoth with her suburbs, and Mephaath with her suburbs; four cities. These words do ...
Dick Harfield's user avatar
6 votes

Were NT authors aware of differences between MT and LXX

The Masoretic Text (MT) did not come into existence until some 700 years after the New Testament was written. As such, there is no possible way the New Testament writers could have anticipated ...
user33515's user avatar
  • 12.4k

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