23 votes

Is John 6:4 authentic?

According to UBS4, UBS5, NA04, NA27, NA28, Majority text, Byzantine text, Orthodox text, W&H, SBL, F35 (Pickering), Souter, TR, Jerome's Vulgate, Vaticanus, Sinaiticus, THGNT, NIVGNT, (yes, I ...
Dottard's user avatar
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21 votes
Accepted

Why John 1:1 in (DRB)(Douay-Rheims Bible) is not literal translation from the Latin Vulgate?

Neither "And a god was the Word" nor: "And God was the Word" are correct translations for θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος. To understand the implications of the last clause, you need to understand ...
oldhermit's user avatar
  • 3,316
17 votes
Accepted

How can we reconcile 2 Samuel 6:23 & 2 Samuel 21:7-9?

As a commenter notes, there is a text-critical issue here. The Masoretic Text of the Hebrew Bible plainly reads "Michal" at this point. However, as the textual notes to the Biblia Hebraica ...
Dɑvïd's user avatar
  • 24.7k
16 votes

What are the implications of the recent finding in Vatican Library in relation to Matt 12:1?

Fake News A scientist said he found a chapter of the Bible hidden for more than 1,500 years. These misleading articles have been circulating for the last few months as clickbait sensational articles,...
Michael16's user avatar
  • 4,999
15 votes
Accepted

Why is "christou" translated "God" in KJV Romans 10:17?

Why is “christou” translated “God” in KJV Romans 10:17? It isn't. The text base used for the KJV was primarily the 1588/89 and '98 editions of Theodore Beza, occasionally departing to follow ...
Susan's user avatar
  • 26.2k
12 votes

Is John 6:4 authentic?

NA28: ἦν δὲ ἐγγὺς τὸ πάσχα, ἡ ἑορτὴ τῶν Ἰουδαίων UBS5: ἦν δὲ ἐγγὺς τὸ πάσχα, ἡ ἑορτὴ τῶν Ἰουδαίων P66: ην δε εγʼγυς το πασχα η εορτη τω̅ ̅ϊουδαιων Codex Sinaticus: ην δε εγγυς το πασχα · η εορτη των ...
Robert's user avatar
  • 8,244
12 votes

What are the implications of the recent finding in Vatican Library in relation to Matt 12:1?

The incident in Matt 12:1-7 is also recorded by Mark and Luke. The wording of the first verse is essentially the same in Mark. However, in Luke 6:1 we have the following record: One Sabbath Jesus ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 96.1k
11 votes

What factors bear on the authenticity of Matthew 23:14?

The Idea in Brief Very able Bible scholars in years past have addressed this question. Both the United Bible Society 4th Edition Greek New Testament (UBS4) and the Nestle-Aland 28th Edition (NA28) ...
Joseph's user avatar
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10 votes
Accepted

What factors bear on the authenticity of Matthew 23:14?

Textual Witness Analysis Here is what the Apparatus to NA28 (which omits the verse) indicates:1 ουαι δε (− 700. 892c) υμιν γραμματεις και Φαρισαιοι υποκριται οτι κατεσθιετε τας (− Δ) οικιας των ...
ScottS's user avatar
  • 20k
10 votes
Accepted

Which reading is the original text of Ruth 1:2 (and other similar verses)?

As I think OP is probably already aware, one of the two available manuscripts from among the Dead Sea Scrolls (4QRutha) and the Greek support the singular שדה, so there is indeed a textual problem ...
Susan's user avatar
  • 26.2k
10 votes

2 Samuel 1:26 -- How does the Vulgate have a sentence not present in the Masoretic text or Septuagint?

Scholarly opinion is that the additional sentence in the Latin translation of 2 Sam 1:26 (Sicut mater unicum amat filium suum, ita ego te diligebam) is a mediaeval interpolation; that is to say: it ...
fdb's user avatar
  • 5,270
9 votes
Accepted

Why does the KJV add "desire" to Mark 11:24?

When looking at slightly odd renderings in the KJV (and there are some fascinating ones), it is worth checking on its influences for any clues. And the case of Mark 11:24, along with its parallel in ...
Dɑvïd's user avatar
  • 24.7k
9 votes

What manuscript(s) does BHS get Joshua 21:36-37 from?

I don't usually do tl;dr summaries, but it seems it might help in this case... tl;dr summary OP Q: what the source of the Hebrew of those two verses [i.e., Josh 21:36-67]? A: the majority of ...
Dɑvïd's user avatar
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9 votes
Accepted

How can we trust the Hebrew Bible to be accurate when the oldest MSS go back only to about the tenth century C.E.?

39+ different answers The Old Testament is not a single book, but a collection of 39 books (or 46, depending on who you ask). Some of these books are well-attested in Hebrew before the 10th century, ...
Hold To The Rod's user avatar
8 votes
Accepted

The religious identity of those who translated Psalms 24:1 into the LXX

Although my initial reaction to this question was (not unlike the response in another answer here) that obviously this day-of-the-week superscription (DWS) reflects the Jewish liturgical background of ...
Susan's user avatar
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8 votes
Accepted

Does the Codex Sinaiticus contain the Hebrew Tetragrammaton or Greek LORD (KURIOS)?

OP asks several questions, which I will summarize and address. How does Codex Sinaiticus handle the word translated "LORD/lord" in Romans 10:13? We can answer this definitively due to the amazing ...
Susan's user avatar
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8 votes
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What does "revocalization" mean in Bible footnotes?

At the beginning the writing system for the Hebrew language only recorded the consonants. The vowels were remembered and passed on as oral tradition as one generation taught the next how to recite the ...
curiousdannii's user avatar
  • 2,972
8 votes

What are the main Textual Differences between KJV and DRB?

The Douay-Rheims Bible is a translation into English from the Latin Vulgate, which dates to a translation from Hebrew (most of the Old Testament) and Greek (New Testament and some Old Testament ...
user33515's user avatar
  • 12.1k
8 votes

Why is the phrase 'not being myself under the law' missing in 1 Corinthians 9:20 in the KJV?

The KJV is translated from the Textus Receptus from the Greek texts of the Computensian Polyglot, from Erasmus, from Beza 1598 and Stephanus 1550. Professor Frederick Scrivener, in 1881, produced a ...
Nigel J's user avatar
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8 votes
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Why is the phrase 'not being myself under the law' missing in 1 Corinthians 9:20 in the KJV?

The phrase in question from the Greek is μὴ ὢν αὐτὸς ὑπὸ νόμον = not being myself under the law. The MSS that include this phrase include (dates in brackets): P46(200), 01(350), 02(V), 03(IV), 04(V), ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 96.1k
8 votes

Psalm 14 or Psalm 53 - Which came first?

The Psalms can be divided into 5 books marked by benedictions. For instance, Book 1 and Book 2 are separated by a verse that is usually included as a conclusion to Psalm 41: Blessed is the LORD, God ...
Jon 'links in bio' Ericson's user avatar
8 votes

Why is the doctrine of fasting omitted by the modern revisions of the Bible?

These are all textual questions and NOT doctrinal questions. Specifically, Matt 17:21 V21 is an addition in the Byzantine manuscripts (with numerous variations) from the 5th century onwards Mark 9:29 ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 96.1k
7 votes
Accepted

In Matthew 5:28, which variant, αὐτὴν or αὐτῆς, is the object of τὸ ἐπιθυμῆσαι?

It's probably αὐτὴν, as the modern critical editions have it. The witnesses The genitive pronoun αυτης is found (among consistently cited witnesses) only in the 4th-6th Century "correction" of ...
Susan's user avatar
  • 26.2k
7 votes

What factors bear on the authenticity of Matthew 23:14?

Matthew 23:14 is absent from some earlier manuscripts, which is a clue that it was not in the autograph, but not actual proof of this. David E. Garland (The Intention of Matthew 23, pages 15-16, ...
Dick Harfield's user avatar
7 votes

Interpreting "psyche" as "soul"?

SOUL, WHAT IS IT? When reading the scriptures , the Hebrew word "ne'phesh" and the Greek word " phy'khe" meaning " Soul", we notice that it is basically used to refer to &...
Ozzie  Ozzie's user avatar
  • 13.7k
7 votes

Is "theos" of the Textus Receptus of 1 Timothy 3:16 the original reading?

John William Burgon wrote “The Revision Revised” (1881) to which anyone would have to refer sooner or later to decide if there was any merit in Sir Isaac Newton’s assertions concerning 1 Timothy 3:16. ...
Andrew Shanks's user avatar
7 votes
Accepted

Acts 11:20 according to the Codex Sinaiticus

(1) OP: ...what do the marks indicate? The supralinear dots in Sinaiticus are erasures. As Bruce Metzger explains in his Textual Commentary on the Greek New Testament, The first hand of codex ...
Dɑvïd's user avatar
  • 24.7k
7 votes
Accepted

Why KJV translated "Χριστοῦ" as "God" in Ephesians 5:21?

The Textus Receptus Greek text for Ephesians 5:21 reads : υποτασσομενοι αλληλοις εν φοβω θεου The KJV translates this as : Submitting yourselves one to another in the fear of God. [KJV 1769] ...
Nigel J's user avatar
  • 29.7k

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