29 votes

Was the text of Matthew 28:19 changed?

The position in the question, that Father, Son, and Holy Spirit is not original to Matthew 28:19 is held today by very few scholars. Those that do point to a quotation from the early church historian ...
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29 votes
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Is the 1500-Year-Old Gospel of Barnabas found in Turkey claiming Jesus was never crucified genuine or a hoax?

Your question doesn't break it down this way, but there are really three separate issues at stake here. What does the Gospel of Barnabas claim about Christ? The most significant claim relevant to ...
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  • 5,713
20 votes
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Why John 1:1 in (DRB)(Douay-Rheims Bible) is not literal translation from the Latin Vulgate?

Neither "And a god was the Word" nor: "And God was the Word" are correct translations for θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος. To understand the implications of the last clause, you need to understand ...
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  • 2,848
18 votes

Omission of 'fasting' in Mark 9:29

This is a textual issue. That is, some manuscripts have the words and fasting while others don’t. The NA28 includes the text similar to the GNT you quote: . . . τοῦτο τὸ γένος ἐν οὐδενὶ δύναται ...
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  • 25.7k
17 votes
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How can we reconcile 2 Samuel 6:23 & 2 Samuel 21:7-9?

As a commenter notes, there is a text-critical issue here. The Masoretic Text of the Hebrew Bible plainly reads "Michal" at this point. However, as the textual notes to the Biblia Hebraica ...
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16 votes

Omission of 'fasting' in Mark 9:29

A Plausible Majority Text Argument Susan's answer has correctly given the direct answer to your question when she states: This is a textual issue. That is, some manuscripts have the words and ...
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15 votes
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Is there any reason to think that Mark 7:19 has a later addition?

There are no important textual variations here: all our manuscripts include this parenthetical. There's no manuscript evidence whatsoever that this is a later insertion. (See this list of textual ...
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  • 3,234
15 votes
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Is verse 114 of the Gospel of Thomas a later addition?

The Gospel of Thomas Logion 114 is fairly controversial and (like many questions on BH.SE, it seems) has generated a healthy specialist bibliography.1 The translation alone is disputed (or at least ...
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14 votes
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Why is "christou" translated "God" in KJV Romans 10:17?

Why is “christou” translated “God” in KJV Romans 10:17? It isn't. The text base used for the KJV was primarily the 1588/89 and '98 editions of Theodore Beza, occasionally departing to follow ...
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  • 25.7k
12 votes

Is the ending of the Gospel of Mark (16:9-20) original?

Short Answer: After weighing all of the evidence (both internal and external), it would seem that Mark 16:9-20 was indeed originally part of Mark's Gospel. The ending of Mark's Gospel is one of the ...
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12 votes

Is there any reason to think that Mark 7:19 has a later addition?

This is not a question of textual criticism, nor is there any reason to reject the authenticity of Mark 7:19. It is entirely a question of interpreting the text. Let us look at the oldest versions: ...
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  • 5,180
12 votes
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How many days until Nineveh will be overthrown?

The Idea in Brief Before the appearance of the Masoretic Text in the Tenth Century, at least three early witnesses attest to the forty day period in Jonah: the Dead Sea Scrolls at both Wadi Murabba'...
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11 votes
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Was Jesus angry and if so why in Mark 1:41?

As Wikis noted, there are many Bible versions which render the Greek aor. pass. part. masc. sing. nom. verb CΠΛΑΓΧΝΙCΘΕΙC (σπλαγχνισθεις) as "moved with compassion, " or "moved with pity". The form ...
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11 votes

Omission of 'fasting' in Mark 9:29

Another addendum to Susan's fine answer and ScottS's alternative account. All manuscripts are not the same, which is why the text critic's job is not simply that of counting noses. We have two ...
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10 votes

Understanding Jesus' apparent lie in John 7:8

Aside from the manuscript evidence, which seems inconclusive, the most practical reading is to take it exactly as it is. Or as a not in the NET Bible says in a note on v. 8... "Jesus may simply ...
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10 votes

In Romans 8:28 do "all things work together" or does "God work all things together" for the good?

I have been looking at this same verse the past few days. There are three important questions in my opinion for understanding this verse: (1) what is the subject of συνεργεῖ, (2) what is the syntax of ...
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10 votes
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In 1 Corinthians 2:1, which variant is more likely: «μαρτύριον» v. «μυστήριον»?

Manuscript support Both readings have early manuscript support The reading μυστήριον (mystery) finds early support in P46vid? א* A C 88 436 itr, 61 syrp copbo Hippolytus Ambrosiaster Ephraem Ambrose ...
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10 votes
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Is it corruption of the LXX for adding Deut 32:43 or of the Masoretic for lacking it as quoted in Hebrews 1:6?

As the OP correctly notes, Hebrews 1:6: ὅταν δὲ πάλιν εἰσαγάγῃ τὸν πρωτότοκον εἰς τὴν οἰκουμένην, λέγει Καὶ προσκυνησάτωσαν αὐτῷ πάντες ἄγγελοι θεοῦ. (Westcott and Hort) And again, when he ...
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  • 4,132
10 votes
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What factors bear on the authenticity of Matthew 23:14?

Textual Witness Analysis Here is what the Apparatus to NA28 (which omits the verse) indicates:1 ουαι δε (− 700. 892c) υμιν γραμματεις και Φαρισαιοι υποκριται οτι κατεσθιετε τας (− Δ) οικιας των ...
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10 votes

What factors bear on the authenticity of Matthew 23:14?

The Idea in Brief Very able Bible scholars in years past have addressed this question. Both the United Bible Society 4th Edition Greek New Testament (UBS4) and the Nestle-Aland 28th Edition (NA28) ...
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  • 16.2k
10 votes
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Which reading is the original text of Ruth 1:2 (and other similar verses)?

As I think OP is probably already aware, one of the two available manuscripts from among the Dead Sea Scrolls (4QRutha) and the Greek support the singular שדה, so there is indeed a textual problem ...
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  • 25.7k
10 votes

2 Samuel 1:26 -- How does the Vulgate have a sentence not present in the Masoretic text or Septuagint?

Scholarly opinion is that the additional sentence in the Latin translation of 2 Sam 1:26 (Sicut mater unicum amat filium suum, ita ego te diligebam) is a mediaeval interpolation; that is to say: it ...
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  • 5,180
9 votes

On what basis do some modern Bible manuscripts omit Matthew 17:21?

According to The Greek New Testament (4th Edition), edited by Aland, Metzger, et al. (2012), this verse does not appear in the best Greek manuscripts available. In order to save ourselves the tedious ...
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9 votes
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Why does the KJV add "desire" to Mark 11:24?

When looking at slightly odd renderings in the KJV (and there are some fascinating ones), it is worth checking on its influences for any clues. And the case of Mark 11:24, along with its parallel in ...
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  • 24.5k
9 votes

What manuscript(s) does BHS get Joshua 21:36-37 from?

I don't usually do tl;dr summaries, but it seems it might help in this case... tl;dr summary OP Q: what the source of the Hebrew of those two verses [i.e., Josh 21:36-67]? A: the majority of ...
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  • 24.5k
8 votes

Was Jesus angry and if so why in Mark 1:41?

The Idea in Brief The passage leans more toward the reading σπλαγχνισθεὶς based on various textual readings to include Ephraem Syrac's commentary on Tatian's Diatessaron. Discussion Based on best ...
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  • 16.2k
8 votes
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Earliest attestation to Luke's gospel

Indisputable? I agree with Frank Luke's comment, further adding that using such a term does technically make the question unanswerable (because, as Frank noted, people dispute things that ought not ...
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8 votes
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The religious identity of those who translated Psalms 24:1 into the LXX

Although my initial reaction to this question was (not unlike the response in another answer here) that obviously this day-of-the-week superscription (DWS) reflects the Jewish liturgical background of ...
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  • 25.7k
8 votes
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What does "revocalization" mean in Bible footnotes?

At the beginning the writing system for the Hebrew language only recorded the consonants. The vowels were remembered and passed on as oral tradition as one generation taught the next how to recite the ...
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