7
votes
Difference between eternal & everlasting life
There is absolutely no difference in the meaning of “eternal life” and “everlasting life”. The King James Version (1611) translates both phrases from the same Greek phrase, ζωὴν αἰώνιον, even within a ...
- 11k
7
votes
Difference between eternal & everlasting life
The phrase in both John 3:16 and 12:25 is identical in both cases: ζωὴν αἰώνιον = "life eternal". Most English versions will render this as "eternal life", or, "everlasting ...
- 91.3k
4
votes
Difference between eternal & everlasting life
A simple examination of the word, "eternal", and the words "forever and ever" will reveal their original Greek roots and their meanings. "Eternal" is an unfortunate ...
- 3,173
4
votes
Isn't reason a better translation of the Logos of John 1 than Word?
Translators almost universally use "word" in John 1:1. None that I know of use "reason" although some (rather tendentiously IMO) use "voice" or "Christ." It is ...
- 7,370
2
votes
What is the spiritual meaning of the fish fragments not being gathered in John 6:13?
John Chrysostom gives this interpretation, which I find very sound: the 12 baskets full of the remaining food was to be taken by each of the 12 apostles. This was intended for them to perceive through ...
- 9,940
2
votes
On St. Peter's Sword
The simplest answer is obedience
Let's see the preface of that story as explained by Luke.
And he said unto them, When I sent you without purse, and scrip, and shoes, lacked ye any thing? And they ...
- 212
2
votes
What does John 1:4 mean?
The Psalmist declares of God, “For with You is the fountain of life, and in Your light, we shall see light”.1 Philo wrote, “God is the cause of life”2 and “the ever-flowing fountain of living”.3
To ...
- 11k
2
votes
What does John 1:4 mean?
ἐν αὐτῷ ζωὴ ἦν, καὶ ἡ ζωὴ ἦν τὸ φῶς τῶν ἀνθρώπων· (John 1:4, NA28)
In him was life, and the life was the light of men. (John 1:4, ESV)
How to interpret this verse depends largely on whether you ...
- 19.3k
2
votes
What does John 1:4 mean?
Note the large number of verbal parallels between John 1:1-5 and Gen 1:1-4;
“in the beginning”,
word/spoken,
God,
creation of all things,
light,
darkness, etc.
Thus, John 1:1-5 is directly alluding ...
- 91.3k
2
votes
Isaac and Jesus described with monogenēs
Isaac Typology in the New Testament
The writer of Hebrews describes Isaac using μονογενῆ, monogenēs. This term is used four times in the LXX (cf. Judges 11:34, Psalm 22:20, 25:16, 37:17). However, ...
- 15.1k
2
votes
How do you reconcile world (κόσμος) in 1 John 2:15-17 with John 3:16-17?
The difference is one of perspective and intention. The definition of Kosmos offered by Abarim Publications limits the notion of Kosmos (the world) thusly:
The important noun κοσμος (kosmos) means ...
- 3,547
2
votes
How do you reconcile world (κόσμος) in 1 John 2:15-17 with John 3:16-17?
Reflecting on these two passages, what they present are not two different meanings of “world” but two very different kinds of love. What Jn 3:16-17 describes is God’s divine love for the world, a pure ...
- 2,776
2
votes
In John 3:2 why does "theou" have no article, but "ho theos" does?
A priest says to a rabbi, "Let’s convert each other." The rabbi says, "You go first."
Why does the second reference to the rabbi have the definite article but the first does not?
...
- 1,634
1
vote
In John 3:2 why does "theou" have no article, but "ho theos" does?
I recommend that the OP consult the very extensive material on this large subject found in Daniel B Wallace's book "Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics". Suffice to say here that the rules ...
- 91.3k
1
vote
On St. Peter's Sword
The original question asks:
Why would a disciple (or in this case, Apostle) want (or need) to carry a sword with him?
To fulfill prophecy (Isa 53:12) by appearing to be a law breaker to the Jewish ...
- 31
1
vote
John 1:18 -> "begotten"
I have covered this subject extensively in my book 'The Only
Begotten Son of God' and I supply this extract in particular
for this question.
The whole booklet is available free of charge on my website....
- 29k
1
vote
How do we reconcile John 5:28-29 ("all who are in the tombs") with Luke 20:38 ("God of the living")?
John 5:25 is Jesus' assurance that there is no such thing as 'soul annihilation', because all those who have died will hear the command of the risen Christ at the start of the Day of Resurrection and ...
- 19.9k
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