7
votes
How do we reconcile the story of the woman caught in adultery in John 8 and the man stoned for picking up sticks on Sabbath in Numbers 15?
Jesus was, indeed, without sin (unlike the woman's accusers who skulked away - the oldest first - after realising Jesus knew exactly what was going on with them regarding this particular episode.)
So, ...
5
votes
How do we reconcile the story of the woman caught in adultery in John 8 and the man stoned for picking up sticks on Sabbath in Numbers 15?
Jesus seems to say that only those without sin should cast a stone at the lawbreaker:
Sort of. Jesus was not saying that it was unlawful for anyone else to cast the first stone, nor was he denying ...
5
votes
What is the difference between ‘coming to Jesus’ and ‘believing in Jesus’ in John 6:35
I am not sure that Jesus is making a distinction between "coming" and "believing". Indeed, the statement in John 6:35 appears to be quintessential Hebrew synthetic parallelism:
...
5
votes
What is the difference between ‘coming to Jesus’ and ‘believing in Jesus’ in John 6:35
In the text quoted, 5,000 had followed Jesus over land and sea, to get to him in a remote region. The reason for such determined following? "Because they saw his miracles which he did on them ...
4
votes
Accepted
Why are Jn 7: .53 and Jn 8:1 in two separate Chapters?
When the books of the Bible were originally written, there were no chapters or verses. Each book was written without any breaks from beginning to end.
The chapter and verse divisions were added to the ...
4
votes
In John's gospel, Jesus says he cannot do anything of himself but only what God tells him to do. If so, how then can Jesus be God?
If Jesus cannot do anything himself but only what God tells him to do, then how can Jesus be God?
While this is not directly about the trinity, take the trinity for example:
God is three in terms of ...
3
votes
How do we reconcile the story of the woman caught in adultery in John 8 and the man stoned for picking up sticks on Sabbath in Numbers 15?
There is a very big difference between these stories both morally and legally.
In numbers 15, it is the LORD who orders the execution. In John 8 it is the lynch mob who wants to stone the woman - ...
2
votes
Why did Jesus choose to pray after they tried making him king?
The four accounts of this part of the incident are as follows:
Matthew 14:23 - After He had sent them away, He went up on the mountain by Himself to pray. When evening came, He was there alone
Mark 6:...
2
votes
What is the difference between ‘coming to Jesus’ and ‘believing in Jesus’ in John 6:35
The concept of "believing in Jesus" is generally well understood and not particularly controversial. However, the notion of "coming to Jesus" would require further examination.
...
2
votes
Accepted
In John 16:13 τὸ πνεῦμα is neuter; why is ἐκεῖνος masculine?
The short answer is "Yes"!
The usual answer is that "He" refers to the grammatically masculine Παράκλητος (parakletos = "advocate") in V7. However, it is a long way back ...
2
votes
How do we reconcile the story of the woman caught in adultery in John 8 and the man stoned for picking up sticks on Sabbath in Numbers 15?
Jesus's new laws are love God and love your neighbor. Stoning a woman to death is not compatible with loving your neighbor. It is lawful to do good on the Sabbath, even if you have to break the ...
2
votes
What is the contextual significance of the verbs "hear" and "follow" (in PIA) on Jesus' statements in John 10:27-29?
The illustration was simple for the people Jesus sp0ke to. Shepherds would bring their flocks to the same watering hole, and the flocks would intermix. The shepherd would bring his sheep away from ...
2
votes
What was Jesus' issue with Mary touching him after he'd returned to earth after His resurrection?
Jesus urged to touch Him not only Thomas but other disciples too.
36 While they were still talking about this, Jesus himself stood among
them and said to them, “Peace be with you.” 37 They were ...
2
votes
What was Jesus' issue with Mary touching him after he'd returned to earth after His resurrection?
Answer
Jesus told Mary not to touch Him because, He was the “Firstfruit” (1 Cor 15:20) of the firstfruits.
And because, that day was the Wave sheaf offering day!
Explanation
Representing Jesus’ First ...
1
vote
How should αἱμάτων in John 1:13 be interpreted: “not of blood” or “not of bloods”?
οἳ οὐκ ἐξ αἱμάτων οὐδὲ ἐκ θελήματος σαρκὸς ⸋οὐδὲ ἐκ θελήματος ἀνδρὸς⸌* ἀλλʼ ἐκ θεοῦ ἐγεννήθησαν. (John 1:13, NA28)
This verse is contrasting spiritual birth with physical birth, a topic which John ...
1
vote
How should αἱμάτων in John 1:13 be interpreted: “not of blood” or “not of bloods”?
Let us not separate John 1:13 from V12 which I will quote (my translation) -
However, as many as received Him, He have to them authority to be
children of God, to those trusting in His Name, who -
...
1
vote
What was Jesus' issue with Mary touching him after he'd returned to earth after His resurrection?
Mary's status as a woman should not be ignored here:
17 Jesus said to her, “Stop holding on to me, for I have not yet
ascended to the Father. But go to my brothers and tell them, ‘I am
going to my ...
1
vote
Should "in spirit and truth" be understood as a hendiadys?
To keep it simple, worshiping the Father in spirit and in truth is a way of worship.
A similar phrasing is used in Joshua 24:14:
KJV Now therefore fear the LORD, and serve him in sincerity and in ...
1
vote
Should "in spirit and truth" be understood as a hendiadys?
Definition of "hendiadys" from Oxford Dictionaries:
"the expression of a single idea by two words connected with 'and'."
Both O.D. and wiktionary give "nice and warm", ...
1
vote
What was Jesus' issue with Mary touching him after he'd returned to earth after His resurrection?
Unlike Thomas, Mary knew he was the resurrected Jesus. She had no need to touch his hands and side.
Jesus communicated something different to her:
So, both Mary and Thomas needed more faith. Mary ...
1
vote
Why are Jn 7: .53 and Jn 8:1 in two separate Chapters?
I have not heard an explanation from "Bible scholars" but you can start much further back and ask why all of the books are not compiled chronologically in the first place; especially since ...
1
vote
What is the contextual significance of the verbs "hear" and "follow" (in PIA) on Jesus' statements in John 10:27-29?
The key to understanding John 10:27 is the question that Jesus is answering which occurs in V24:
So the Jews gathered around Him and demanded, “How long will You keep
us in suspense? If You are the ...
1
vote
What is the contextual significance of the verbs "hear" and "follow" (in PIA) on Jesus' statements in John 10:27-29?
When Jesus spoke those words about hearing and following him, it was winter-time and he was walking through the spectacular Temple in Jerusalem. Jerusalem was thronging with people there for the ...
1
vote
What is the contextual significance of the verbs "hear" and "follow" (in PIA) on Jesus' statements in John 10:27-29?
In John 10:27, the verbs “hear” and “follow” are in the present indicative active (PIA) form, which significantly impacts our understanding of Jesus’ statement. The present tense in Greek indicates ...
1
vote
What is the difference between ‘coming to Jesus’ and ‘believing in Jesus’ in John 6:35
Although in Greek here, this matches synonymous poetic Hebrew form. Thus, in the sense of Jesus' meaning here, he who comes equals he who believes and hunger equals thirst.
ὁ ἐρχόμενος πρὸς ...
1
vote
How can Jesus be God if God is a spirit? Didn't Jesus reveal the spiritual God through his human incarnation?
Jesus, while on earth, was a flesh man. He did not contain all of the qualities of God. Thus, he was not God and not equal to God (the Father). For example, Jesus did not have the same composition of ...
1
vote
What is the deeper significance of the seamless coat of Jesus?
The garment made of a single piece of woven cloth is the clothing of the high priest. Jesus is the high priest. At the passover he celebrated, He is the sacrificial lamb AND the high priest offering ...
1
vote
Why did Jesus choose to pray after they tried making him king?
This is a point at which John is synoptic with Mark (at least to the tune of three words)
He's to be made king in John but doesn't pray, and he prays in Mark but isn't to be made king.
It might be ...
1
vote
Why did Jesus choose to pray after they tried making him king?
The text in John's Gospel account does give a clue, but only in translations that correctly translate the Greek word semeion as 'sign', and not 'miracle'.
"The men, then, having seen the sign ...
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