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No Blunder at All The word "seed," whether Hebrew or English, is often used in a figurative sense to refer to one descending from another (and not normally to the actual sperm or egg of the parent that is the source of propagation). The word can have a singular or a collective meaning. Even a collective meaning, however, is viewing the individual elements ...


14

1. Paul and rabbinic citation formula I take it this is OP's primary question. Three factors, at least, come into play in accounting for the absence of such formulae from Paul's writings: The traditional rabbinic citation form is a product of the schools which post-date the fall of the Temple. I think this is the most important. Although "rabbi" is used (e....


9

One of the critical scholars who believe the attribution to Paul is clearly fictional is Burton L. Mack, who says (Who Wrote the New Testament, p206) the language, style and thought of Titus is thoroughly un-Pauline. He says the ‘personal’ references to particular occasions in the lives of Timothy, Titus, and Paul do not fit with reconstructions of that ...


8

Fairly Certain Based on the prologues and epilogues Paul wrote in his letters, he had clearly previously visited the churches in: Thessalonica (e.g. I Thes. 1:5) Corinth (e.g. II Cor. 13:1) Galatia (e.g. Gal 1:8) Philippi (e.g. Phil 4:15). Paul certainly knew Timothy (who cosigns several of Paul's letters) and Titus (2 Cor. 7:6, Gal 2:1). (Indeed some ...


8

OP's interest in quantifying Paul's (or, if you like, the NT's Pauline tradition) most frequently used designations for "Christians" makes for a challenging question, and one that would take a long time to deal with definitively. Here is my best shot. Methodology: I have tabulated the figures for the thirteen NT letters in the "Pauline tradition", using the ...


8

We can be sure that Paul also spoke Hebrew fluently. First up, Mishnaic Hebrew was a living language in first century Judea and well-known even among the common people. Along with that, even though modern translations use "Aramaic" when referring to the language spoken in Judea (such as there in Acts 22:2 and 21:40), the Greek reads, "...in the Hebrew ...


8

Although Paul does not use the same word for 'abolish' as Jesus in Matthew 5:17, I think it helpful to bear that verse in mind, as Paul did not intend to contradict what Jesus says: 17“Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. 18For truly, I say to you, until heaven and earth ...


7

The answer is very simple. First, as already noted by the OP, the Hebrew word for seed (zera`) is both collective and singular. Throughout the Hebrew Bible the particular word occurs in the grammatical singular but with reference to the collective plural sense (and sometimes even to the singular sense); in these respects context is very important. For ...


7

Ignorance is what will cease. The “ἐκ μέρους” means that we live and operate within the present where partial knowledge prevails. We only know in part (“ἐκ μέρους”), which is why gifts such as knowledge (and/or the supernatural communication of that knowledge through foreign languages) helps to mitigate ignorance. In other words, the spiritual gift of ...


7

Short version: Paul tells us the same basic story: he was persecuting Christians in Jerusalem, he was sent to Damascus, he was converted, he left Damascus, and he went to Arabia before going to see the church fathers and beginning his apostlehood. He also says he "has seen Jesus", which he doesn't link to a particular time but it makes sense in his ...


6

It is not about grammar but about the mystical interpretation of Abraham's seed that both the Hebrew and the Greek scriptures argue according to Pauline theology: He is not laying stress on the particular word used, but on the fact that a singular noun of some kind, a collective term, is employed, where τὰ τέκνα or οἱ ἀπόγονοι for instance might have ...


6

Paul is referring to James, the brother of Jesus as an apostle. A word for word translation appears here: ἕτερον δὲ τῶν ἀποστόλων οὐκ εἶδον εἰ μὴ Ἰάκωβον τὸν ἀδελφὸν τοῦ Κυρίου Other. moreover (but/also). of the. apostles. none. I saw. if. not. James. the. brother. of the. Lord. Biblehub (Sanday: Ellicott's Commentary) states: "From the form of this ...


5

This text consists of five imperatives: κήρυξον τὸν λόγον, | kēryxon ton logon | (Preach the Word) ἐπίστηθι εὐκαίρως ἀκαίρως, | epistēthi eukairōs akairōs | (be ready in season [and] out of season) ἔλεγξον, | elenxon | (reprove) ἐπιτίμησον, | epitimēson | (rebuke) παρακάλεσον, | parakaleson | (exhort) ἐν πάσῃ μακροθυμίᾳ καὶ διδαχῇ. | en pasē makrothymia ...


5

The term "wages" builds on the earlier metaphor of man being "slaves/servants" to sin. The phrasing emphasizes the idea when we sin, we've earned death. That's your paycheck at the end of a long day of sin: Death. Verse 21 of the same chapter says this explicitly. What benefit did you reap at that time from the things you are now ashamed of? Those ...


5

In his commentary on 1 Timothy 2:12 Adam Clarke writes: Nor to usurp authority - A woman should attempt nothing, either in public or private, that belongs to man as his peculiar function. This was prohibited by the Roman laws: In multis juris nostri articulis deterior est conditio foeminarum quam masculorun,; l. 9, Pap. Lib. 31, Quaest. Foeminoe ab omnibus ...


5

The answer requires multi-level considerations. The meaning of "inerrant" is free from error. First, is all scripture speaking truth? That answer is No, as we must determine who the speaker of record is. When the adversary speaks, he is speaking a lie (John 8:44). He lied to Eve in Gen. 3:4 by adding the word "not" to God's ...


5

Paul makes it clear in Romans 7:12 that the law is 'holy and just and good'. But the problem lies in flesh : in me, that is in my flesh there dwelleth no good thing, Romans 7:18. Flesh and blood does not inherit the kingdom of God, as saith Paul, 1 Corinthians 15:50. But nor does flesh and blood possess goodness, in and of itself. It is just flesh. By ...


4

It is clear, from the text in Galatians that you quoted, that the seed is Jesus. Jesus Himself clarified how this seed goes from a singular to a plural seed: 23 But Jesus answered them, saying, “The hour has come that the Son of Man should be glorified. 24 Most assuredly, I say to you, unless a grain of wheat falls into the ground and dies, it remains ...


4

Paul is actually defending himself here in this second letter to the Corinthians. In this passage when he says "us" he is meaning the people that he has been ministering to as well as the Corinthians, but when he gets to that last line So then, death is at work in us, but life is at work in you, he is telling them, almost forcefully, that they are not alone ...


4

I agree with the previous answer by Joseph and will seek to reiterate it by looking at the immediate context of 1 Thess. 4. In 1 Thess. 4:13 Paul refers to "those who are asleep" and is simply trying to encourage them since it seems that some of them were grieving. They were under the misconception that the dead would not experience the coming of the Lord. ...


4

The law given to Moses at Sinai was abrogated with the advent of the new covenant. To put it a better way: The entirety of the Mosaic Covenant was fulfilled in Christ. The law of Moses no longer serves as direct and immediate judge over the lives and conduct of God's people. God's children today obey the Law of Christ [Gal 6.2, 1 Cor 9:21]. Jesus, who is ...


4

Common Misconception of a Purely Technical Usage It is commonly believed that Paul's usage of "in Christ" refers to a particular concept in all cases. That is, that it is a technical phrase "meaning" a specific thing every place it is used. However, this is not a demonstrable idea. Paul does regularly use the phrase to refer to the concept of essentially ...


4

What sets the Epistle to the Colossians apart is a sense of personal distance, with not so much as a suggestion anywhere in the epistle that Paul was writing to people he knew personally, at least not until the final verse, 4:18, and then only to say that the Colossians knew of him: Colossians 4:18: The salutation by the hand of me Paul. Remember my bonds....


4

The Epistle to the Laodiceans is a possible lost letter of Paul the Apostle, the original existence of which is inferred from the Epistle to the Colossians to send their letter to the church in Laodicea, and likewise obtain a copy of the letter "from Laodicea" (Colossians 4:16) Our knowledge of the letter to the Laodiceans is therefore dependent on our ...


4

I would say this kind of wording shows a mixture of attitudes within Paul, all of which arise from his love of those who have responded to his preaching of the gospel. He is almost teasing them. But he is also shaming them. And he is exhorting them. By every means, by many expressions, he desires their increase, he seeks their restoration, he labours for ...


4

Paul expresses spirit, soul and body in I Thessalonians 5:23 : And the very God of peace sanctify you wholly; and I pray God your whole spirit and soul and body be preserved blameless unto the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, putting spirit first indicating, as I understand, that the soul is infused with the living spirit as is the body infused with ...


4

The potential for exegetical error by treating "God" as a noun to which simple anaphoric axioms are applied may be seen by comparing the openings of the two letters to the Thessalonians: Since this letter is the second, the exegetical consideration of an anaphoric use does not begin with the second greeting. Rather, the greeting in the first ...


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