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13 votes
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Does Phil. 2:10-11 describe Jesus Christ as God?

Phil 2:9-11 is one of a series of NT texts that take OT passages about YHWH or God, and apply them directly to Jesus. The table below lists some of these texts. OT passage about YHWH or God NT ...
Dottard's user avatar
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12 votes
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Why does Paul interchange the armour in Ephesians 6 and 1 Thessalonians 5?

The two passages have slightly different contexts. Paul is writing to the Thessalonians in Chapter 5:1ff on the need to remain watchful because one does not know when the Lord will return (... the day ...
user33515's user avatar
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10 votes

Does the sower and the planter receive different rewards in 1 Corinthians 3:6-8?

Don't stretch the metaphors too much. While other passages such as 1 Timothy 5:17 do indicate that the ministry of some people is of a higher status than others, what Paul is saying here in 1 ...
curiousdannii's user avatar
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8 votes

What does Paul mean by 'another Jesus'? 2 Cor 11:4

Paul is not saying to watch out for a person coming along claiming to be Jesus Christ, the Messiah. He is saying to watch out for false teaching ABOUT Jesus Christ, the Messiah. False teaching about ...
Anne's user avatar
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8 votes

Which Preposition is Used Concerning Paul's Body in Galatians 6:17?

The Greek preposition ἐν is predominately translated into English as “in” but is indeed sometimes translated as “on”. The apostle Paul refers to στίγματα (lemma στίγμα), which refer to marks made on ...
Der Übermensch's user avatar
7 votes

Does Paul mention anywhere in his own writings his encounter with Jesus and his coming to belief in the gospel?

Short version: Paul tells us the same basic story: he was persecuting Christians in Jerusalem, he was sent to Damascus, he was converted, he left Damascus, and he went to Arabia before going to see ...
Luke Sawczak's user avatar
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7 votes

Does Phil. 2:10-11 describe Jesus Christ as God?

The triune God is a mystery and we can at best hope to get just a partial understanding or revelation until we see Him face to face. Only God is worthy of worship, thus the deity of Jesus is without ...
DaveA's user avatar
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7 votes
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In Romans 8:9 is Paul assuming that Christ is God?

My views about the divinity of Christ are well-known on this site (I have been consistently downvoted for them, often). However, let me set out what Rom 8:9 actually says. If we assume for the moment ...
Dottard's user avatar
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6 votes
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In Romans 6:23 why does Paul speak of the "wages" of sin and not the "penalty" for sin?

The term "wages" builds on the earlier metaphor of man being "slaves/servants" to sin. The phrasing emphasizes the idea when we sin, we've earned death. That's your paycheck at the end of a long day ...
Solocutor's user avatar
  • 254
6 votes

1 Corinthians 13:10 - What Will Cease when "The Perfect" Comes?

Ignorance is what will cease. The “ἐκ μέρους” means that we live and operate within the present where partial knowledge prevails. We only know in part (“ἐκ μέρους”), which is why gifts such as ...
Joseph's user avatar
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6 votes

how can we infer/induce/deduce that ( 2 Corinthians 6:14 ) bible verse's use of "yoked"/ "bound" / "close association" does refer to marriage?

The verb in 2 Cor 6:14 is ἑτεροζυγέω (heterozugeó) is a hapex legomenon. In this verse, according to BDAG, it means: draft animals that need different kinds of yokes because they are different ...
Dottard's user avatar
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6 votes

What does Paul mean by 'one word' in Galatians 5:14?

The "Word" is an allusion to what the OT calls, "words", namely commandments, specifically Deut 10:4 - Then He wrote on the tablets, like the first writing, the Ten Words [ie, ...
Dottard's user avatar
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6 votes

What does 'one' refer to in 1 Corinthians 8:6?

It is an important observation, I think, because this verse was used as a proof text by the Arians against the Divinity of Christ1 and continues to be used to this day by the Jehovah's Witnesses (who ...
user33515's user avatar
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6 votes
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Why did Paul say "But to the rest I, not the Lord, say..." in 1 Cor 7:12?

Short Answer: Because the Lord truly didn't say it. Paul here distinguishes his own words from those that Jesus had explicitly taught for the duration of his earthly ministry. This distinction is what ...
Jason_'s user avatar
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5 votes

In Romans 1:16 why does Paul say "to the Jew first"?

Since you've used the KJV, all the quotations and links in this answer also reference the KJV. We can trace God's dealings with Israel back to Abraham in the famous passage Gen 12:1-3, where it is ...
Lawrence's user avatar
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5 votes
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How does Hebrews 7:18 say the law was weak and useless?

Paul makes it clear in Romans 7:12 that the law is 'holy and just and good'. But the problem lies in flesh : in me, that is in my flesh there dwelleth no good thing, Romans 7:18. Flesh and blood does ...
Nigel J's user avatar
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5 votes

Does the doctrine of Paul coincide with the doctrine of Jesus?

Unless Paul tells lie saying that he posesses the Mind of Christ (1 Cor. 2:16) and that “not he any more but Christ lives in him” (Galatians 2:20), then we can most definitely and confidently assume ...
Levan Gigineishvili's user avatar
5 votes

The Whole Church?

Not so fast - the word ἐκκλησία (congregation, or assembly) has different meanings in different places depending on context. For example, (according to BDAG) the word can mean any of (see BDAG for a ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 105k
4 votes

Is Galatians 1:4 referring to the current time and location or an apocalyptic period and world-wide condition?

Should αἰών be translated as age or world? It should probably be translated "age" instead of "world". I think the ambiguity might be due to the English word “world” and not the ...
user33515's user avatar
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4 votes
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Is it necessary to assert that Paul has never been to Colossae when this letter is written?

What sets the Epistle to the Colossians apart is a sense of personal distance, with not so much as a suggestion anywhere in the epistle that Paul was writing to people he knew personally, at least not ...
Dick Harfield's user avatar
4 votes

Why does Paul change pronouns in 2 Corinthians 4:12?

I had the same question. But as I did some research and called to mind what I have been taught about this letter, here is my understanding: The letter is addressed "from Paul an apostle ... and ...
Cora's user avatar
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4 votes
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In 1 Corinthians 8:6, who does Paul say is the "one God"?

The One God is the Father. The One Lord is Jesus Christ. This language is being used to differentiate between the two. Paul was a monotheist, moreover the expectation of explicit trinitarian ...
Dan S.'s user avatar
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4 votes
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1 Corinthians 4:10 meant to be an irony?

I would say this kind of wording shows a mixture of attitudes within Paul, all of which arise from his love of those who have responded to his preaching of the gospel. He is almost teasing them. But ...
Nigel J's user avatar
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4 votes

Does 1 Corinthians 15:44 refer to Dualist Anthropology?

Paul expresses spirit, soul and body in I Thessalonians 5:23 : And the very God of peace sanctify you wholly; and I pray God your whole spirit and soul and body be preserved blameless unto the ...
Nigel J's user avatar
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4 votes
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In Romans 3, is there an advantage or no advantage?

First, the word translated into English (in the NIV) in v. 1 as “advantage” is τὸ περισσὸν, an adjective, functioning as a substantive, declined from περισσός. With respect to people, περισσός is ...
Der Übermensch's user avatar

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