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35

Jon gives a good answer as to why Jesus would have been able to speak Greek, Aramaic, and Hebrew. He also asked for more information regarding the existence of Hebrew in the Land at the time of Jesus. Mishnaic Hebrew was very well known in the first century and was distinguished from Aramaic in such works as the Letter of Aristeas and Josephus. See below for ...


22

Yes. This is a predicate nominative construction. That is, both θεὸς (God) and ὁ λόγος (the word) are in the nominative case, and they are joined by an equative verb (here, a form of "to be"). John 1:1 (NA28): Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος. In English, we generally distinguish the subject (S) from the predicate ...


20

Short Answer: Many have come up with various numerological interpretations of the number 153 in John. I believe this to be reading into the text things not intended by the author. As the two previous answers to this questions illustrate well, this numerological method allows for several different interpretations of the same passage. Each of the words in the ...


17

The Phrasing is Not a Direct Comment on Jesus being over 40 Years Old Irenaeus is in error with his logic here, partly because he is missing the context and particular significance of the statement. Background Rather than being a direct comment on Jesus' age (i.e. over 40 years old), the number 50 is stated because of its significance in Levitical service. ...


16

Every commentary I could find has seemingly a different interpretation on this passage! I have however, managed to distil these down into two main interpretations: 1. Jesus was going to pass them by, but was diverted The phrase "meant to" in the ESV and RSV is also translated "would have" in the KJV. The Greek word used here is thelō which means to wish or ...


15

Reading this passage today made me want to research it. Jesus is Lord of the Sabbath, and He came to fulfill the law not break it. This passage has several aspects that are best read together as Jesus combines them: Jesus and Disciples Pluck and Eat Grains on the Sabbath At that time Jesus went through the grainfields on the Sabbath. And His disciples ...


15

No. The tetragrammaton was not used in Jesus' time. Faithful Jews would avoid saying it so as to not transgress the third commandment. The most common circumlocution was "Lord" (Andonai in Hebrew or Kurios in Greek), though he might also be referred to simply as "Heaven." In answer to Jesus using El from the cross. El is the common word for God from all ...


14

The similar command in Matthew 10:37 shows that the ancient world understood this saying of Jesus to be not complete hatred 37 "Anyone who loves their father or mother more than me is not worthy of me; anyone who loves their son or daughter more than me is not worthy of me". There is no reason to assume an Aramaic source for the Gospels based on ...


14

Similarly, Elisha instructed his servant in 2 Kings 4:29 Elisha said to Gehazi, "Tuck your cloak into your belt, take my staff in your hand and run. Don't greet anyone you meet, and if anyone greets you, do not answer. Lay my staff on the boy's face." Jesus sent his disciples out on a mission tour. He didn't want them to waste time and be ...


13

As has already been pointed out, the progression is Jesus ἀγαπᾷς ἀγαπάω Verb Second Present Active Indicative Singular Peter φιλῶ φιλέω Verb First Present Active Indicative Singular Jesus ἀγαπᾷς ἀγαπάω Verb Second Present Active Indicative Singular Peter φιλῶ φιλέω Verb First Present Active Indicative Singular ...


11

Tithing was an institute of the Mosaic Law and consisted of agricultural produce and reared livestock (Lv 27:30-33). The Israelites offered the tithe to the landless Levites who in turn offered a tenth of the tithe to the Aaronic priesthood (Nm 18:26-28). Unlike the other tribes, the Levites were denied any inheritance or land ownership in Israel. They were, ...


11

I agree with the general consensus here that there probably isn't a great deal of meaningful semantic distinction between Χριστὸς Ἰησοῦς and Ἰησοῦς Χριστὸς. However, there's an incidental morphologic irregularity that explains at least some of the variation. In NT Greek, the dative form of Ἰησοῦς is Ἰησοῦ, identical in form with the genitive.1 This leads ...


11

The Bible Answers this as "No" Quoting you (all quotations are from prior to editing the "tone" of the question): Is the Urantia Book ("White Stone") foretold in The Book of Revelation 2:17 ? There is no textual evidence to link the "white stone" symbol to the Urantia Book. Such a connection is an arbitrary assertion. Of course, because we are dealing ...


11

Jesus means none of the four things you noted Here is a slightly expanded context to the words you quote. John the Baptist had just sent messengers to confirm some things about Jesus (Lk 7:18-23). After they leave, Jesus says some very impressive words about John the Baptist (Lk 7:24-28). At this point is... Luke 7:29-35 29 (All the people, even the ...


11

The phrase in question is prōtotokos pasēs ktiseōs. But does this mean "firstborn of every creature" (distributive, as in the KJV), or "firstborn of all creation" (collective, as in ASV, RSV, NASB, NEB, NIV)? The collective seems to be preferred by what immediately follows: "all things" were created by him, through him, and for him (v. 16), and he is ...


11

I have consulted Thayer, Young, Bauer, Strong and also Liddell & Scott regarding the word τεκτων tektwn Strong 5045 and there is general agreement that 'carpenter' is the best rendering suitable. See Matthew 13:55 and Mark 6:3. But it should be noted that the lexicons make it clear that the word also has a general meaning of 'artificer' and even the ...


10

I'm surprised no one mentioned Matthew 26:25! It's the same chapter: And Judas, who was betraying Him, said, “Surely it is not I, Rabbi?” Jesus said to him, “ You have said it yourself.” (KJV) No one questions what Jesus meant here, do they? Same exact phrase is used. There is no question that Jesus's answer is an affirmation, just as in verse 64 He ...


10

Aside from the manuscript evidence, which seems inconclusive, the most practical reading is to take it exactly as it is. Or as a not in the NET Bible says in a note on v. 8... "Jesus may simply have been refusing to accompany his brothers with the rest of the group of pilgrims, preferring to travel separately and “in secret” (v. 10) with his disciples....


10

Jesus is being compared to John the Baptist by the Pharisees in that John ate sparingly and only things such as locust and honey and drank no wine. Jesus ate pretty much whatever he wanted to and drank wine, and was accused of gluttony and being a winebibber or drunken, because of this. They thought John the Baptist diet strange and too controlled, but when ...


10

It depends on what one sees as the point of fulfilling the Old Testament prophecies. If you mean "is the only reason to ride a donkey because it matches the prophecy" as being a formulaic fulfillment then perhaps one has to expand the understanding of why the prophecy exists. The prophecy doesn't just identify the mode of transport, it also says something. ...


10

Basic principles One of the basic principles of understanding the text of scripture is to allow the text to explain its self in the original context and setting. Here we have three temptations. We know they are temptations because we are told in v1 that Jesus' purpose in going to the wilderness was to face the tempter (see also Mk 1:12-13 & Luke 4:1-2) ...


9

The time Jesus was on earth, specifically during +-3.5years of ministry he was sent to the lost sheep of the house of Israel (Matt 15:24). Not that he didn't minister to any gentiles at all, but the Israelites were his primary mission. When you read the passage, the Greeks came to Philip. Instead of simply bringing them to Him, Philip goes and gets Andrew, ...


9

Mark is more reliable.¹ Even if you were to completely discredit Mark², something is more than nothing. You cannot reasonably compare the accuracy of one document that exists with one that is only speculated to exist. Anybody that tries to tell you differently is selling something³. Answering your stated question is really that simple. In the world of ...


9

In the English language the expression "son of X" usually means an offshoot from X and therefore something which is distinct from X. Therefore "Son of God" may seem to imply a being who is not God. But in Hebrew idiom "A is the son of B" may mean that A shares the same nature as B, or A is a member of the group B. For example: Genesis 5:32 says literally "...


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