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10 votes

Does "Lord" in the NT, after the Gospels, predominantly refer to Jesus, except for when the OT is in view? (Limiting to Acts 1-5 for now)

Let us examine the actual data in all 18 instances of "Lord" in Acts 1-5 - Acts 1:6 - So when they came together, they asked Him, “Lord, will You at this time restore the kingdom to Israel?”...
Dottard's user avatar
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10 votes
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Does Jesus mean "Salvation" or "God is Salvation"?

This is a linguistically tortuous story. Our English Jesus comes a transliteration of the Greek Ἰησοῦς (Iesous). In turn, the Greek Ἰησοῦς (Iesous) is a transliteration of the late Hebrew יֵשׁוּעַ (...
Dottard's user avatar
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5 votes

Matthew 22 and Psalms 110. Did Jesus lose the original meaning?

The context is that no Pharisee in this instance doubts that Lord speaks to David’s Lord, and that the same David!’s Lord is Christ, whom the Pharisees expect still to come, because they do not ...
Levan Gigineishvili's user avatar
5 votes

Why did Nicodemus visit Jesus at night?

We are not directly told the answer to this question but here are some plausible reasons for the night visit of Nicodemus based on educated guesses: Nicodemus was a pharisee and thus came from a sect ...
Dottard's user avatar
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4 votes

Does Jesus mean "Salvation" or "God is Salvation"?

My answer was taken from https://researchsupportsthetruth.wordpress.com/ “Originally, the name of the Messiah was pronounced Yehoshua. This is the Messiah’s original name and meant ‘Jehovah is ...
Alex Balilo's user avatar
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3 votes

Luke 2:49-50. What is the earliest translation?

As far as the specific text of Luke 2:49, 50 is concerned, the oldest copy of the Greek text is Codex Sinaiticus from about 350 AD the oldest translation, into Old Latin, is Codex Palatinus from ...
Dottard's user avatar
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3 votes

Was Jesus going to symbolically marry the Father? Mark 2:19-20

Mark 2:19-20 NKJV 18 The disciples of John and of the Pharisees were fasting. Then they came and said to Him, “Why do the disciples of John and of the Pharisees fast, but Your disciples do not fast?” ...
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3 votes

Does "Lord" in the NT, after the Gospels, predominantly refer to Jesus, except for when the OT is in view? (Limiting to Acts 1-5 for now)

Introduction The term “Lord” in the NT, including the Gospels, officially refers to Jesus Christ by apostolic authority. The slogan of faith in the New Testament taught by the apostles in authority is ...
Nephesh Roi's user avatar
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3 votes

Does "Lord" in the NT, after the Gospels, predominantly refer to Jesus, except for when the OT is in view? (Limiting to Acts 1-5 for now)

In the list of Acts scriptures, it would be most remiss to leave out this one. The context is one of the disciples having been falsely accused of speaking blasphemously against Moses and God. He gives ...
Anne's user avatar
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3 votes

How do scholars reconcile Acts 4:12 with Mtt 1:23?

there is no other name under heaven given to mankind by which we must be saved. The question takes the word "name" too literally. Thayer's Greek Lexicon says this of the Greek word "...
Ray Butterworth's user avatar
3 votes

How do scholars reconcile Acts 4:12 with Mtt 1:23?

The one and only name of Messiah was "Jesus" (of Nazareth). He is addressed as such countless times by this personal name throughout the Gospel records. However, Jesus has numerous other ...
Dottard's user avatar
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3 votes

How do scholars reconcile Acts 4:12 with Mtt 1:23?

Naming of God Incarnate It is the custom today, and has been the tendency throughout the ages, to give a person more than one name. And sometimes a nickname. Gideon was also called Jerubbaal (Judges ...
ray grant's user avatar
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3 votes

How do scholars reconcile Acts 4:12 with Mtt 1:23?

You are having trouble with the meaning of "the name" among people in Biblical times especially among the Jews. The “name” of Yahweh does not merely refer to the four consonants of God’s ...
Perry Webb's user avatar
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3 votes

Where did Jesus perform the “Feeding of the 4,000"?

Preliminary point: Some suggest that the feeding of the 5000 and the 4000 are the same incident. However, it is clear from Matthew and Mark's account that the two are distinct incidents for the ...
Dottard's user avatar
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2 votes

Is Jesus specifically talking about giving to our Enemies? Matthew 5:23

I would agree that it is a general principle, but I would say that is applies universally—to both the needy and to enemies. Jesus' greater message calls us to extend love and compassion to all people, ...
Jason_'s user avatar
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2 votes
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Does "great tribulation" (Matthew 24:21) refer to a massive End Time trauma, or is it a general description of the Conquest of Jerusalem in 70 A.D.?

@Ray Butterworth wrote in a comment: The destruction of the Temple and the conquest of Jerusalem are hardly on the same scale. I'd like to answer the question by suggesting that, in fact, it ...
Mike Sangrey's user avatar
2 votes

Does "Lord" in the NT, after the Gospels, predominantly refer to Jesus, except for when the OT is in view? (Limiting to Acts 1-5 for now)

Yes, Jesus Christ is referred to as Lord and is implied, thus, to have the same divine, worshipable dignity as God the Father. Moreover, if one denies the Deity of Christ, it is necessarily a calumny ...
Levan Gigineishvili's user avatar
2 votes

How to interpret? - "As I hear, I judge, and my judgment is just" (John 5:30, ESV)

There is much here of interest, and it has been very well expressed. However, the point of asking a question on this site is to get others to expound the text, the OPs question in view, and then the ...
Anne's user avatar
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2 votes

Matthew 22 and Psalms 110. Did Jesus lose the original meaning?

Short answer: No, Jesus did not lose the original meaning. Psalm 110:1 (NIV): Of David. A psalm. The Lord says to my lord:[a] “Sit at my right hand until I make your enemies a footstool for your feet....
Jed Schaaf's user avatar
2 votes

Matthew 22 and Psalms 110. Did Jesus lose the original meaning?

Did Jesus lose the original meaning of Psalm 110:1? No, Jesus did not lose the original meaning of Psalm 110:1. Jesus asked "How is it that David under inspiration called the Messiah "lord&...
Alex Balilo's user avatar
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2 votes

Is the dove mentioned in Luke 3:22 the same dove mentioned in Genesis 8:12?

In Genesis 8 6 At the end of forty days Noah opened the window of the ark that he had made 7 and sent forth a raven. It went to and fro until the waters were dried up from the earth. 8 Then he sent ...
David D's user avatar
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2 votes

Why did Nicodemus visit Jesus at night?

The name Nicodemus appears in the Bible five times all in John. John 3:1 John 3:4 John 3:9 John 7:50 John 19:39 Twice - John 3:2 and John 19:39 we see that Nicodemus visited Jesus by night. At no ...
David D's user avatar
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2 votes

Why did Nicodemus visit Jesus at night?

"Busy schedule" is the best choice, especially considering Nicodemus' duties as a member of the Sanhedrin, which convened every day except festivals and sabbaths in Jerusalem. Fear of ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
2 votes

Where did Jesus perform the “Feeding of the 4,000"?

Mark reports a location missing in Matthew. Following Jesus's healing of the Canaanite woman's child, Mark 7:31 reports that Jesus departed from the vicinity of Tyre, passed through Sidon, proceeded ...
Vincent Wong's user avatar
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1 vote

Luke 2:49-50. What is the earliest translation?

Thw Peshita is second century: https://www.dukhrana.com/peshitta/index.php Lk 2:49 Khabouris_C Khabouris_T Paul_Younan PNT_NY_1886 PNT_NY_1886_UBonn M_Syr_148 PNT_Malayalam Ishodad of Merv Luke 2:49 - ...
Perry Webb's user avatar
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1 vote

Thoughts? Interpreting the Missing Years of Jesus from the gospel Luke?

Let's clarify what the text tells us: 41 Every year Jesus’ parents went to Jerusalem for the Festival of the Passover. 42 When he was twelve years old, they went up to the festival, according to the ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
1 vote

What is the meaning of Hosea 2:16 and is it relevant to Jesus?

Question: What is the meaning of Hosea 2:16 and is it relevant to Jesus? Short Answer: In terms of its relevance to Jesus, we can note that the language of marriage and covenant used in Hosea is ...
Jason_'s user avatar
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1 vote

What is the meaning of Hosea 2:16 and is it relevant to Jesus?

The answer to this is found in the Hos 2:2 - it is part of a pattern that repeatedly represent the relationship between God and His people as a marriage. See Isa 62:5, Jer 2:1, 2, Matt 9:15, Mark 2:19,...
Dottard's user avatar
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1 vote

Matthew 22 and Psalms 110. Did Jesus lose the original meaning?

Psalm 110 is King David speaking prophetically, describing a conversation between God the Father (The LORD) and Messiah (my Lord) that he (David) somehow witnessed. David heard God the Father say to ...
Rusty's user avatar
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1 vote

Matthew 22 and Psalms 110. Did Jesus lose the original meaning?

What a beautiful Psalm of David! I read it multiple times in the interlinear Hebrew to get a better sense of its power and flow. https://biblehub.com/interlinear/psalms/110.htm Consider the ...
Dieter's user avatar
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