14

I agree with much of what Jon Ericson has said but I think we can get even closer to the meaning of the "sin that leads to death" from the context of 1st John. John is dealing with a division that has occurred in his church (1 John 2:18-19). Some have left, denying that Jesus' had a physical body (1 John 4:1-3). The young men of the congregation (2:12-...


10

The Greek is unambiguously referring to the church, not God. The word church (ἐκκλησία) is nominative case; the word God is in the genitive case (modifying the word church). The two words pillar (στῦλος) and ground (ἑδραίωμα ) are also nominative case, showing that they are in apposition to the church, not God. The Greek cases match each other when in an ...


10

The word in the Greek for all here is πάντας (pantas) whose root is πᾶς (pas). Vines Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words says of πᾶς: When used without the articles, it means, "every kind or variety." When used with the article, it means "whole or the totality of persons or things referred to." Analytical Lexicon of the Greek New Testament (...


9

(1) [OP] Is it meant as a summary of what precedes it or as an introduction to what follows it? That's a very good question. On the face of it, it would appear to be an introduction. This formula, usually referred to simply as the "toledot" formula (from the Hebrew ...אֵלֶּה תֹולְדֹות = ʾēlleh tolədôt... "these are the generations of...") occurs a number ...


8

The name “Theophilus” may indicate a primarily Gentile audience, perhaps in Rome, given its decidedly Greek nature and that Luke’s account ends with Paul’s arrival in Rome. However, Theophilus could have just as easily been a diaspora Jew living in Rome. Heinz Joachim Held takes this perspective further by hypothesizing that Luke’s intent was to reach the ...


8

The Greek text with the ESV runs like this: For we do not know what to pray for as we ought, τὸ γὰρ τί προσευξώμεθα καθὸ δεῖ οὐκ οἴδαμεν, but the Spirit himself intercedes for us with groanings too deep for words. ἀλλ᾿ αὐτὸ τὸ πνεῦμα ὑπερεντυγχάνει στεναγμοῖς ἀλαλήτοις· And he who searches hearts ὁ δὲ ἐραυνῶν τὰς καρδίας ...


7

Jesus is referring to when he multiplied the bread and fish in John 6:1-14. He is making commentary on the fact that people are seeking him in order to receive more food rather than observing the signs that confirm his being the Messiah, the latter being that which they ought to be doing. Let's take a look at the context of John 6:26. [25] When they ...


7

The Idea in Brief The received Masoretic Text and its translation into English by the New American Standard Bible appear to be the best rendering of this verse in Hebrew and English, respectively. Psalm 12:7 (NASB) 7 You, O Lord, will keep them; You will preserve him from this generation forever. The logical antecedent of them are the “afflicted” ...


6

Good question! Most English translations take παντας as "all men," or "all people" simply because παντας is an adjective functioning substantively, and it makes sense to render it that way in English. Usually when we have a substantival adjective we want to look for an antecedent noun, but in this case there is no easily identifiable antecedent. Our ...


6

The early christians made a tradition out of meeting on "the first day of the week", which is Sunday, because Saturday is the last day of the week (you can compare this to an American calendar which start the week on a Sunday and ends it on a Saturday.) Acts 20:7: On the first day of the week we came together to break bread. Paul spoke to the people ...


6

Contributor sbunny is on the right track, I believe. The "sons of God" are angelic beings. Satan himself was an angel who was cast out of heaven when he rebelled against God. Whether the sons of God are fallen or unfallen angels, I will not speculate. Notice in the account of God's meeting with the sons of God and Satan we find the words "present ...


6

Ambiguity is present in all languages. Just as the referent of "them" in verse 7 is ambiguous in English, the Hebrew also allows several interpretations, although I think that the "scholars" mentioned in the question probably have the conclusion right. Below is the text of the KJV with the transliterated Hebrew (BHS). The bold words are those in question. ...


6

Indeed this verse is so unclear that there arose so many different interpretations throughout the years and it is almost impossible to say which one is correct and which one is not. Literally the words "ויעש להם בתים" mean "and he made them houses". But the text doesn't indicate who made it and to whom it was made as the OP points out. Some have suggested ...


6

כִּי־לִי תִּכְרַ֣ע כָּל־בֶּ֔רֶךְ For to me every knee shall bow תִּשָּׁבַע כָּל־לָשֽׁוֹן Every tongue shall confess. The highlighted לי is the preposition lamed ("to", "for", "toward") with a suffixed first person singular personal pronoun. The translation "to me" adds nothing of the translator's opinion. The NIV (quoted in the question) uses "...


5

The Bible Forgery URL states that Jeremiah 8:8 should be translated as: “How can you people say ‘We are the experts, for we have the Lord’s Bible,’ when behold, like a forgery, the pen has been manipulated by dishonest Bible copiers!” (Jeremiah 8:8) You're right that is far from the common interpretation. Most English translations have something along ...


5

Theophilus was certainly used as a given name by people in the right era: there was a High Priest in the early first century named Theophilus and a bishop of Antioch in the late 2nd century named Theophilus. Unfortunately, neither of these Theophilus's (nor any other known Theophilus) lived during the time frame that most scholars think that Luke was ...


5

According to Meyer's NT Commentary, many commentators have taken different positions on this question, those that view 15-21 as a continuation include Chrysostom, Theodoret, Jerome, Estius, Bengel, Rosenmüller, Tittmann, Knapp, Flatt, Winer, Rückert, Schott, Baumgarten-Crusius, de Wette and Möller, Hilgenfeld, Ewald and Holsten. Those opposed include ...


5

"Love your neighbour" has one meaning in the Old Testament and a subtly different meaning in the New Testament, where we acknowledge it to have a more universal meaning. However, this question is about its use in the OT. In Leviticus 19:18, the word 'neighbour' refers to fellow-Israelites and was understood that way by the earliest rabbinic interpretations. ...


5

In this case the syntax is clear: ἀλλὰ τῷ αὐτῶν παραπτώματι ἡ σωτηρία τοῖς ἔθνεσιν εἰς τὸ παραζηλῶσαι αὐτούς. but by their (masc) trespass the salvation [came to] the gentiles (neut) in order to provoke them (masc) to jealousy As you can see, the masculine referent is the Jews ("Israel", from v. 7); thus, αὐτούς refers to the Jews. The distinct ...


5

They are literal days. This vision concerns the rise of Antiochus IV Epiphianes and the Maccabean Revolt during the 2nd cent. BC. The time period is pin pointed by verses 20 - 21. "20 The ram which thou sawest having two horns are the kings of Media and Persia. 21 And the rough goat is the king of Grecia: and the great horn that is between his eyes is ...


5

At face value, it simply means “God wants everyone to be saved,” without exception. As for the verbs “want” and “will” as translations of the Greek verb θέλει, they are synonymous when used in this context. According to Oxford English Dictionary: “will” “want” Therefore, the verse can be translated as, Informal speech: Who wants everyone to be saved ...


5

The KJV and YLT (which both convey the singular 'thee' when it is necessary to do so) have : And I will give unto thee the keys of the kingdom of heaven: and whatsoever thou shalt bind on earth shall be bound in heaven: and whatsoever thou shalt loose on earth shall be loosed in heaven. [KJV] and I will give to thee the keys of the reign of the ...


5

The word God (θεός - Theos) does not actually appear at all in the Greek text either verse 15 or either of the verses before or after it. The literal Greek of verse 15 probably reads closer to something like the NKJV: 14...that you keep [this] commandment without spot, blameless until our Lord Jesus Christ’s appearing, 15which He will manifest in His ...


4

Since he is using the 'I' without further reference, he is the author. (No one else is being named explicitly who could be co-author.) The 'we' in the beginning therefore can only be understood as standing for the group of witnessing disciples (apostles). Regarding witness the commonness (plural) of the experience is important (as not being just an ...


4

[OP] Who is the "we" in 1 John 1:1? A decent case can be made that the "we" of 1 John 1 is "editorial"; that is, it is a rhetorical device to refer to the author's self. This usage, related to the "royal 'we'", remains current, even if it now has a certain whiff of whimsy (or worse). In other words, the "we" refers not a group of apostles, nor the Twelve, ...


4

Walking through the first part of Hebrews 1:1 begins with "God spoke to our fathers by the prophets," 1:2 declares now God "has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed the heir of all things," 1:3-4 makes both a statement of Christ's nature and work that equates the Son with God, but also as the most exalted of creation as man (v.4) 1:5-14 then ...


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