There are three Herods in scripture.
1 The one that killed the infants at the time of Jesus' birth - 'Herod the Great'.
2 The one that killed John the Baptist - 'Herod Antipas'. (Also 'the Tetrarch'.)
3 The one that killed James, the brother of John - 'Herod Agrippa'.
(See Young's Analytical Concordance under 'Herod'.)
Wikipedia - Herod Antipas agrees ...
Here is an extract from Wikipedia about the Herodian family (source):
Herod the Great (born c. 74 BC, ruled 37–4 BC), client king of Judea who built the Second Temple (in Jerusalem) and in the New Testament orders the Massacre of the Innocents
Herod Archelaus (born 23 BC, ruled 4 BC–AD 6), ethnarch of Samaria, Judea, and Idumea
Herod Antipas (born 21 BC, ...
I agree with much of what Jon Ericson has said but I think we can get even closer to the meaning of the "sin that leads to death" from the context of 1st John.
John is dealing with a division that has occurred in his church (1 John 2:18-19). Some have left, denying that Jesus' had a physical body (1 John 4:1-3). The young men of the congregation (2:12-...
The word in the Greek for all here is πάντας (pantas) whose root is πᾶς (pas).
Vines Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words says of πᾶς:
When used without the articles, it means, "every kind or variety." When used with the article, it means "whole or the totality of persons or things referred to."
Analytical Lexicon of the Greek New Testament (...
The Greek is unambiguously referring to the church, not God. The word church (ἐκκλησία) is nominative case; the word God is in the genitive case (modifying the word church). The two words pillar (στῦλος) and ground (ἑδραίωμα ) are also nominative case, showing that they are in apposition to the church, not God. The Greek cases match each other when in an ...
Excellent question here, and one that is quite instructive more generally.
Throughout this chapter, Paul makes a clear distinction between God the Father and the Jesus. Let us observe the following:
V1: Christ Jesus by the will of God (Θεοῦ)
V2: To the church of God (τοῦ Θεοῦ) in Corinth, to those sanctified in Christ Jesus
V3: Grace and peace to you from ...
(1) [OP] Is it meant as a summary of what precedes it or as an introduction to what follows it?
That's a very good question. On the face of it, it would appear to be an introduction. This formula, usually referred to simply as the "toledot" formula (from the Hebrew ...אֵלֶּה תֹולְדֹות = ʾēlleh tolədôt... "these are the generations of...") occurs a number ...
The Greek text with the ESV runs like this:
For we do not know what to pray for as we ought,
τὸ γὰρ τί προσευξώμεθα καθὸ δεῖ οὐκ οἴδαμεν,
but the Spirit himself intercedes for us with groanings too deep for words.
ἀλλ᾿ αὐτὸ τὸ πνεῦμα ὑπερεντυγχάνει στεναγμοῖς ἀλαλήτοις·
And he who searches hearts
ὁ δὲ ἐραυνῶν τὰς καρδίας
Good question! Most English translations take παντας as "all men," or "all people" simply because παντας is an adjective functioning substantively, and it makes sense to render it that way in English. Usually when we have a substantival adjective we want to look for an antecedent noun, but in this case there is no easily identifiable antecedent. Our ...
Jesus is referring to when he multiplied the bread and fish in John 6:1-14. He is making commentary on the fact that people are seeking him in order to receive more food rather than observing the signs that confirm his being the Messiah, the latter being that which they ought to be doing.
Let's take a look at the context of John 6:26.
 When they found ...
The Idea in Brief
The received Masoretic Text and its translation into English by the New American Standard Bible appear to be the best rendering of this verse in Hebrew and English, respectively.
Psalm 12:7 (NASB)
7 You, O Lord, will keep them;
You will preserve him from this generation forever.
The logical antecedent of them are the “afflicted” ...
Ambiguity is present in all languages. Just as the referent of "them" in verse 7 is ambiguous in English, the Hebrew also allows several interpretations, although I think that the "scholars" mentioned in the question probably have the conclusion right.
Below is the text of the KJV with the transliterated Hebrew (BHS). The bold words are those in question. ...
The pharaoh was Apries, who ruled from 589 to 570 BCE and was known as Pharaoh Hophra in Jeremiah 44:30.
Peter C. Craigie (Ezekiel, page 220) explains that Hophra sent an army to assist King Zedekiah fight off the invading Babylonians. Ezekiel likens the Egyptian defeat to a broken arm. To those among the exiled Jews who thought the Egyptians would risk ...
Indeed this verse is so unclear that there arose so many different interpretations throughout the years and it is almost impossible to say which one is correct and which one is not.
Literally the words "ויעש להם בתים" mean "and he made them houses". But the text doesn't indicate who made it and to whom it was made as the OP points out. Some have suggested ...
כִּי־לִי תִּכְרַ֣ע כָּל־בֶּ֔רֶךְ
For to me every knee shall bow
Every tongue shall confess.
The highlighted לי is the preposition lamed ("to", "for", "toward") with a suffixed first person singular personal pronoun. The translation "to me" adds nothing of the translator's opinion. The NIV (quoted in the question) uses "...
The KJV and YLT (which both convey the singular 'thee' when it is necessary to do so) have :
And I will give unto thee the keys of the kingdom of heaven: and whatsoever thou shalt bind on earth shall be bound in heaven: and whatsoever thou shalt loose on earth shall be loosed in heaven. [KJV]
and I will give to thee the keys of the reign of the heavens, and ...
The Bible Forgery URL states that Jeremiah 8:8 should be translated as:
“How can you people say ‘We are the experts, for we have the Lord’s Bible,’ when behold, like a forgery, the pen has been manipulated by dishonest Bible copiers!” (Jeremiah 8:8)
You're right that is far from the common interpretation. Most English translations have something along the ...
According to Meyer's NT Commentary, many commentators have taken different positions on this question, those that view 15-21 as a continuation include Chrysostom, Theodoret, Jerome, Estius, Bengel, Rosenmüller, Tittmann, Knapp, Flatt, Winer, Rückert, Schott, Baumgarten-Crusius, de Wette and Möller, Hilgenfeld, Ewald and Holsten. Those opposed include ...
Contributor sbunny is on the right track, I believe. The "sons of God" are angelic beings. Satan himself was an angel who was cast out of heaven when he rebelled against God. Whether the sons of God are fallen or unfallen angels, I will not speculate.
Notice in the account of God's meeting with the sons of God and Satan we find the words "...
"Love your neighbour" has one meaning in the Old Testament and a subtly different meaning in the New Testament, where we acknowledge it to have a more universal meaning. However, this question is about its use in the OT.
In Leviticus 19:18, the word 'neighbour' refers to fellow-Israelites and was understood that way by the earliest rabbinic interpretations. ...
In this case the syntax is clear:
ἀλλὰ τῷ αὐτῶν παραπτώματι ἡ σωτηρία τοῖς ἔθνεσιν εἰς τὸ παραζηλῶσαι αὐτούς.
but by their (masc) trespass the salvation [came to] the gentiles (neut) in order to provoke them (masc) to jealousy
As you can see, the masculine referent is the Jews ("Israel", from v. 7); thus, αὐτούς refers to the Jews. The distinct ...
They are literal days. This vision concerns the rise of Antiochus IV Epiphianes and the Maccabean Revolt during the 2nd cent. BC. The time period is pin pointed by verses 20 - 21.
"20 The ram which thou sawest having two horns are the kings of Media and Persia. 21 And the rough goat is the king of Grecia: and the great horn that is between his eyes is ...
At face value, it simply means “God wants everyone to be saved,” without exception.
As for the verbs “want” and “will” as translations of the Greek verb θέλει, they are synonymous when used in this context. According to Oxford English Dictionary:
Therefore, the verse can be translated as,
Who wants everyone to be saved and ...
The word God (θεός - Theos) does not actually appear at all in the Greek text either verse 15 or either of the verses before or after it. The literal Greek of verse 15 probably reads closer to something like the NKJV:
14...that you keep [this] commandment without spot, blameless until our Lord Jesus Christ’s appearing,
15which He will manifest in His ...
In 1 Corinthians 1, the apostle Paul distinguishes between “Jesus Christ” and God.1
1 1 Cor. 1:1, 1:2, 1:3, 1:4, 1:9, 1:30
For example, 1 Cor. 1:3:
Grace and peace [be] to you from God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ.
Therefore, it is reasonable to conclude that “God” in 1 Cor. 1:25 refers to the Father.2