25

There are three Herods in scripture. 1 The one that killed the infants at the time of Jesus' birth - 'Herod the Great'. 2 The one that killed John the Baptist - 'Herod Antipas'. (Also 'the Tetrarch'.) 3 The one that killed James, the brother of John - 'Herod Agrippa'. (See Young's Analytical Concordance under 'Herod'.) Wikipedia - Herod Antipas agrees ...


21

Here is an extract from Wikipedia about the Herodian family (source): Herod the Great (born c. 74 BC, ruled 37–4 BC), client king of Judea who built the Second Temple (in Jerusalem) and in the New Testament orders the Massacre of the Innocents Herod Archelaus (born 23 BC, ruled 4 BC–AD 6), ethnarch of Samaria, Judea, and Idumea Herod Antipas (born 21 BC, ...


12

The word in the Greek for all here is πάντας (pantas) whose root is πᾶς (pas). Vines Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words says of πᾶς: When used without the articles, it means, "every kind or variety." When used with the article, it means "whole or the totality of persons or things referred to." Analytical Lexicon of the Greek New Testament (...


10

The Greek is unambiguously referring to the church, not God. The word church (ἐκκλησία) is nominative case; the word God is in the genitive case (modifying the word church). The two words pillar (στῦλος) and ground (ἑδραίωμα ) are also nominative case, showing that they are in apposition to the church, not God. The Greek cases match each other when in an ...


10

Excellent question here, and one that is quite instructive more generally. Throughout this chapter, Paul makes a clear distinction between God the Father and the Jesus. Let us observe the following: V1: Christ Jesus by the will of God (Θεοῦ) V2: To the church of God (τοῦ Θεοῦ) in Corinth, to those sanctified in Christ Jesus V3: Grace and peace to you from ...


9

(1) [OP] Is it meant as a summary of what precedes it or as an introduction to what follows it? That's a very good question. On the face of it, it would appear to be an introduction. This formula, usually referred to simply as the "toledot" formula (from the Hebrew ...אֵלֶּה תֹולְדֹות = ʾēlleh tolədôt... "these are the generations of...") occurs a number ...


9

The Greek text with the ESV runs like this: For we do not know what to pray for as we ought, τὸ γὰρ τί προσευξώμεθα καθὸ δεῖ οὐκ οἴδαμεν, but the Spirit himself intercedes for us with groanings too deep for words. ἀλλ᾿ αὐτὸ τὸ πνεῦμα ὑπερεντυγχάνει στεναγμοῖς ἀλαλήτοις· And he who searches hearts ὁ δὲ ἐραυνῶν τὰς καρδίας ...


9

The Greek grammar is unambiguous that: Jesus was speaking "to Peter" Πέτρῳ = noun dative Jesus addresses "Satan" Σατανᾶ - noun vocative That is, Jesus said to Peter, "Get behind me, O Satan." That is, it appears that Satan had inspired the words of Peter and was at that moment dominating his thoughts - Satan was using Peter ...


7

Good question! Most English translations take παντας as "all men," or "all people" simply because παντας is an adjective functioning substantively, and it makes sense to render it that way in English. Usually when we have a substantival adjective we want to look for an antecedent noun, but in this case there is no easily identifiable antecedent. Our ...


7

Jesus is referring to when he multiplied the bread and fish in John 6:1-14. He is making commentary on the fact that people are seeking him in order to receive more food rather than observing the signs that confirm his being the Messiah, the latter being that which they ought to be doing. Let's take a look at the context of John 6:26. [25] When they found ...


7

The Idea in Brief The received Masoretic Text and its translation into English by the New American Standard Bible appear to be the best rendering of this verse in Hebrew and English, respectively. Psalm 12:7 (NASB) 7 You, O Lord, will keep them; You will preserve him from this generation forever. The logical antecedent of them are the “afflicted” ...


6

The evidence strongly suggests that when New Testament authors refer to scripture, or say "it is written", they are referring to pre-Christian Jewish sacred writings and not what is now the New Testament. The one possible exception is the author of 2 Peter. (I hesitate to say "Hebrew Bible" for three reasons. First, most of them use the Septuagint ...


6

From the link posted by Paul Vargas, found here: Our restatement of Sharp’s rule is believed to be true to the nature of the language, and able to address all classes of exceptions that Winstanley raised. The “Sharper” rule is as follows: _ In native Greek constructions (i.e., not translation Greek), when a single article modifies two ...


6

Ambiguity is present in all languages. Just as the referent of "them" in verse 7 is ambiguous in English, the Hebrew also allows several interpretations, although I think that the "scholars" mentioned in the question probably have the conclusion right. Below is the text of the KJV with the transliterated Hebrew (BHS). The bold words are those in question. ...


6

The pharaoh was Apries, who ruled from 589 to 570 BCE and was known as Pharaoh Hophra in Jeremiah 44:30. Peter C. Craigie (Ezekiel, page 220) explains that Hophra sent an army to assist King Zedekiah fight off the invading Babylonians. Ezekiel likens the Egyptian defeat to a broken arm. To those among the exiled Jews who thought the Egyptians would risk ...


6

1. Question: In Revelation, what might the "Star of Wormwood" refer to? Note: As this is soliciting an opinion of how prophecy should be interpreted, I feel that it is very presumptuous to claim that a conclusive answer can be given. 2. Probable Answer, Perhaps the Angel: "Abaddon / Apollyon": Although interpretations vary, it does not seem reasonable to ...


6

Indeed this verse is so unclear that there arose so many different interpretations throughout the years and it is almost impossible to say which one is correct and which one is not. Literally the words "ויעש להם בתים" mean "and he made them houses". But the text doesn't indicate who made it and to whom it was made as the OP points out. Some have suggested ...


6

כִּי־לִי תִּכְרַ֣ע כָּל־בֶּ֔רֶךְ For to me every knee shall bow תִּשָּׁבַע כָּל־לָשֽׁוֹן Every tongue shall confess. The highlighted לי is the preposition lamed ("to", "for", "toward") with a suffixed first person singular personal pronoun. The translation "to me" adds nothing of the translator's opinion. The NIV (quoted in the question) uses "...


6

The KJV and YLT (which both convey the singular 'thee' when it is necessary to do so) have : And I will give unto thee the keys of the kingdom of heaven: and whatsoever thou shalt bind on earth shall be bound in heaven: and whatsoever thou shalt loose on earth shall be loosed in heaven. [KJV] and I will give to thee the keys of the reign of the heavens, and ...


6

In 1 Corinthians 1, the apostle Paul distinguishes between “Jesus Christ” and God.1 Footnotes         1 1 Cor. 1:1, 1:2, 1:3, 1:4, 1:9, 1:30 For example, 1 Cor. 1:3: Grace and peace [be] to you from God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ. Therefore, it is reasonable to conclude that “God” in 1 Cor. 1:25 refers to the Father.2 Footnotes         2 ...


6

Different translations render this verse differently, so that those following the 1798 Granville Sharp rule of Greek grammar applicable here have Jesus Christ as both God and Saviour, while those that do not apply it have God as God, and Jesus as Saviour. The AV reads, “Looking for that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing of the great God and our ...


5

The Bible Forgery URL states that Jeremiah 8:8 should be translated as: “How can you people say ‘We are the experts, for we have the Lord’s Bible,’ when behold, like a forgery, the pen has been manipulated by dishonest Bible copiers!” (Jeremiah 8:8) You're right that is far from the common interpretation. Most English translations have something along the ...


5

According to Meyer's NT Commentary, many commentators have taken different positions on this question, those that view 15-21 as a continuation include Chrysostom, Theodoret, Jerome, Estius, Bengel, Rosenmüller, Tittmann, Knapp, Flatt, Winer, Rückert, Schott, Baumgarten-Crusius, de Wette and Möller, Hilgenfeld, Ewald and Holsten. Those opposed include ...


5

Contributor sbunny is on the right track, I believe. The "sons of God" are angelic beings. Satan himself was an angel who was cast out of heaven when he rebelled against God. Whether the sons of God are fallen or unfallen angels, I will not speculate. Notice in the account of God's meeting with the sons of God and Satan we find the words "...


5

"Love your neighbour" has one meaning in the Old Testament and a subtly different meaning in the New Testament, where we acknowledge it to have a more universal meaning. However, this question is about its use in the OT. In Leviticus 19:18, the word 'neighbour' refers to fellow-Israelites and was understood that way by the earliest rabbinic interpretations. ...


5

I don't put much stock in numerology normally, but I think this is one of the cases where the numerological meaning of twelve, the complete people of God, is more important than trying to identify which specific individuals are being referred to, if specific individuals were ever even in the mind of the author. Consider how the Twelve Tribes of Israel is an ...


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