27
votes
How could King Herod have killed John the baptist in Matthew 14?
There are three Herods in scripture.
1 The one that killed the infants at the time of Jesus' birth - 'Herod the Great'.
2 The one that killed John the Baptist - 'Herod Antipas'. (Also 'the Tetrarch'....
- 33k
21
votes
Accepted
How could King Herod have killed John the baptist in Matthew 14?
Here is an extract from Wikipedia about the Herodian family (source):
Herod the Great (born c. 74 BC, ruled 37–4 BC), client king of Judea who built the Second Temple (in Jerusalem) and in the New ...
- 118k
11
votes
Accepted
Did Paul treat God and Jesus as one person in Titus 2:13?
The question — “Did Paul treat God and Jesus as one person in Titus 2:13?” — I think, should be restated. By asking whether Paul regarded “God and Jesus” as “one person,” from my perspective, sounds ...
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10
votes
Accepted
1 Corinthians 1:25, who is God?
Excellent question here, and one that is quite instructive more generally.
Throughout this chapter, Paul makes a clear distinction between God the Father and the Jesus. Let us observe the following:
...
- 118k
7
votes
Accepted
In Isaiah 45:23 is God saying that all shall bow to God or to Cyrus?
כִּי־לִי תִּכְרַ֣ע כָּל־בֶּ֔רֶךְ
For to me every knee shall bow
תִּשָּׁבַע כָּל־לָשֽׁוֹן
Every tongue shall confess.
The highlighted לי is the preposition lamed ("to", "for", "toward") ...
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7
votes
Accepted
Did Jesus address Peter or Satan influencing Peter when he said “Get behind me, Satan!" in Matthew 16:23?
The Greek grammar is unambiguous that:
Jesus was speaking "to Peter" Πέτρῳ = noun dative
Jesus addresses "Satan" Σατανᾶ - noun vocative
That is, Jesus said to Peter, "Get ...
- 118k
7
votes
Did Paul treat God and Jesus as one person in Titus 2:13?
Different translations render this verse differently, so that those following the 1798 Granville Sharp rule of Greek grammar applicable here have Jesus Christ as both God and Saviour, while those that ...
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7
votes
Does 'the foundation of the world' refer to the creation of the universe or something else at John 17:24?
The Greek word καταβολή (katabolé = "foundation") occurs 11 times in the NT, 10 of these are in the phrase, ἀπὸ/πρὸ καταβολῆς κόσμου = "from/since foundation/creation of the world/...
- 118k
6
votes
Who received the Holy Spirit at Pentecost?
All one has to do is look at the context of Acts 1-6 and he can see
clearly that the 120 did not receive the "Baptism of the Holy Spirit."
In Acts 1:2 the word Apostles is used and the "them" ...
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6
votes
Accepted
Who is the Pharaoh of Ezekiel?
The pharaoh was Apries, who ruled from 589 to 570 BCE and was known as Pharaoh Hophra in Jeremiah 44:30.
Peter C. Craigie (Ezekiel, page 220) explains that Hophra sent an army to assist King Zedekiah ...
- 13k
6
votes
Accepted
To what or whom does the star called "wormwood "refer to in Revelation 8:10-11?
1. Question:
In Revelation, what might the "Star of Wormwood" refer to?
Note: As this is soliciting an opinion of how prophecy should be interpreted, I feel that it is very presumptuous to claim ...
- 5,477
6
votes
Who are the 12 apostles of the lamb?
The 12 apostles of the Lamb are
Simon Peter; Andrew;
James; John; Philip; Bartholomew; Matthew; Thomas; James son of Alphaeus; Simon the Zealot; Judas son of James; and Paul.
Matthias though being ...
- 61
6
votes
Accepted
Who is being referred to in Exodus 1:20-21?
Indeed this verse is so unclear that there arose so many different interpretations throughout the years and it is almost impossible to say which one is correct and which one is not.
Literally the ...
- 7,350
6
votes
Is 1 Timothy 1:17 about God (IE: the Father) or about Jesus?
There is a need to carefully look into the following corollary passages to answer the question.
John 1:18: No one has seen God at any time;
John 4:24: God is Spirit [therefore incorporeal];
John 6:...
- 1,258
6
votes
Accepted
How should the 2300 evenings and mornings be understood in Daniel 8:13-14?
They are literal days. This vision concerns the rise of Antiochus IV Epiphianes and the Maccabean Revolt during the 2nd cent. BC. The time period is pin pointed by verses 20 - 21.
"20 The ram ...
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6
votes
Accepted
Was it Peter only who received the keys of the kingdom in Matthew 16:19?
The KJV and YLT (which both convey the singular 'thee' when it is necessary to do so) have :
And I will give unto thee the keys of the kingdom of heaven: and whatsoever thou shalt bind on earth shall ...
- 33k
6
votes
1 Corinthians 1:25, who is God?
In 1 Corinthians 1, the apostle Paul distinguishes between “Jesus Christ” and God.1
Footnotes
1 1 Cor. 1:1, 1:2, 1:3, 1:4, 1:9, 1:30
For example, 1 Cor. 1:3:
Grace and peace [be] to you from ...
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6
votes
To whom does Jesus refer with the words "my God"?
There can be little doubt that when Jesus says (as in Rev 3:12) "my God" He is referring to God the Father. There are numerous instances of this, eg,
Matt 27:46 - And about the ninth hour, ...
- 118k
6
votes
How was Lord most likely understood and how should it be understood today in Luke 1:76
Originally, it's most likely a reference to Malachi
In Jesus' day, there seem to be repeated references to the prophecies given in the last of the Prophetic books, Malachi:
"I will send my ...
- 5,757
6
votes
In Matthew 16:18, is the "it" against which the gates of hell shall not prevail the "rock" or the "church"?
Grammar
και ἐπι ταύτῃ τῇ πέτρᾳ οἰκοδομήσω μου την ἐκκλησίαν, και πύλαι Ἅιδου οὐ κατισχύσουσιν αὐτῆς
αὐτῆς ("it") is feminine singular
ταύτῃ τῇ πέτρᾳ ("this the rock") is feminine ...
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5
votes
Is the Destroyer of Exodus 12:23 the same as that of Revelation 9:11?
Exodus 12:23 uses the term ham-mas-hit to name "the destroyer." An interesting verse rarely used here and almost never translated is Isaiah 54:16 which states that YHWH (the Lord) created the ...
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5
votes
In Leviticus 19:18 is "love your neighbor" meant to include all people or just Israelites?
"Love your neighbour" has one meaning in the Old Testament and a subtly different meaning in the New Testament, where we acknowledge it to have a more universal meaning. However, this question is ...
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5
votes
Accepted
In Romans 11:11 who is made jealous of whom?
In this case the syntax is clear:
ἀλλὰ τῷ αὐτῶν παραπτώματι ἡ σωτηρία τοῖς ἔθνεσιν εἰς τὸ παραζηλῶσαι αὐτούς.
but by their (masc) trespass the salvation [came to] the gentiles (neut) in order to ...
- 26.9k
5
votes
In 1 Timothy 2:4 does "all" refer to all men or to all "sorts" of men?
At face value, it simply means “God wants everyone to be saved,” without exception.
As for the verbs “want” and “will” as translations of the Greek verb θέλει, they are synonymous when used in this ...
- 12.4k
5
votes
Which law was Paul referring to in 1 Corinthians 14:34?
In Leviticus there is no law requesting that women should be quiet. In Jewish literature there are also no laws requiring women to be silent in a synagogue, probably because women were usually ...
- 159
5
votes
Accepted
In 1 Timothy 6:15 did Paul mean God the Father or God the Son?
The word God (θεός - Theos) does not actually appear at all in the Greek text either verse 15 or either of the verses before or after it. The literal Greek of verse 15 probably reads closer to ...
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