27

Paul is very likely using a metaphor here. The word "rich" is often used in scripture without referring to earthly "wealth." Consider Christ's divinity. Prior to coming to Earth, he was godly, with power and majesty ("though he was rich"). He came to Earth as the Son of God to a family in humble circumstances ("yet for your ...


25

Why did Jesus begin his ministry at age 30? Jesus a sympathetic High Priest that can sympathize with our weaknesses. For this reason, he came to earth born as a man having flesh and blood, and experiencing life as a human, having feelings and emotions at first hand. Hebrews 4:15 (NASB) 15 For we do not have a high priest who cannot sympathize with our ...


21

It is easier to say 'Thy sins be forgiven thee'. The audience will not see anything happen. Anyone can say to anyone else, 'Thy sins be forgiven' and nobody will be any the wiser - until the Day of Judgement when it will be demonstrated (and that for all eternity) whether or not eternal punishment has been avoided. So for Jesus to say 'Thy sins be forgiven ...


20

Human nature can be tempted. Divine nature cannot be tempted. These two passages indicate the duality of nature possessed (uniquely) by Jesus of Nazareth. These two natures cannot 'merge' or 'mingle'. They are two different things. They unite only in the Person of Jesus Christ. Notes : Passages in the Hebrew scripture use the word nasah of God and some of ...


16

A Blasphemy Which Requires Stoning There are three points in the Fourth Gospel at which the Jews respond to something Jesus said by wanting to kill Him. The first is in Chapter 5; the second in Chapter 8, and the third in Chapter 10. It is in the final event in which John includes the reason for stoning: 31 Then the Jews took up stones again to stone Him. ...


15

At birth, what titles did Jesus already possess? Luke 2:11 & 21 (NKJV) "For there is born to you this day in the city of David a Savior, who is Christ the Lord." "And when eight days were completed for the circumcision of the Child, His name was called Jesus, the name given by the angel before He was conceived in the womb." At birth,...


14

The central matter here in John 1:15 is the meaning ascribed to the adjective πρῶτος (protos) which can mean: of time - first in time, earliest or earlier, eg, Phil 1:5, Acts 20:18 first in a sequence of list, eg, Matt 21:28, 22:25, etc most prominent, foremost, most important, eg, Matt 22:38, Mark 12:29, etc. Before answering this question we should ...


14

This is a question on which it is difficult to be objective; I will attempt to offer an objective take (my own two cents in the conclusion only). I’ll probably fall somewhat short of any single person’s ideal answer. We all have preconceptions on this topic and they are pretty core to our beliefs. Let’s interpret this passage through the lens of the 4 most ...


12

There are numerous cases in the NT of People praying directly to Jesus. Here is a sample: John 4:10 - Jesus answered and said to her, "If you had known the gift of God and who it is saying to you, 'Give Me to drink,' you would have asked Him, and He would have given to you living water." John 14:13, 14 -And I will do whatever you ask in My name, ...


12

The question misses the point of glory when God is concerned. Jesus IS the glory of God! ... the god of this world has blinded the minds of the unbelieving so that they might not see the light of the gospel of the glory of Christ, who is the image of God. 2 Cor 4:4 The son is the radiance of God's glory and the representation of His nature Heb 1:3 For God,...


11

I submit that there can be no fuller answer to this question than that given by Dr. Martyn Lloyd-Jones some 70 years ago in a lecture on this verse.1 He summarizes the factors to consider in making a decision on how to translate this verse, and interpret it, presents evidence from the best scholarship of the 20th Century, and a short list of theologians ...


11

The phrase in question is prōtotokos pasēs ktiseōs. But does this mean "firstborn of every creature" (distributive, as in the KJV), or "firstborn of all creation" (collective, as in ASV, RSV, NASB, NEB, NIV)? The collective seems to be preferred by what immediately follows: "all things" were created by him, through him, and for him (v. 16), and he is ...


10

There are, though, passages from the Greek translation of the Hebrew, the LXX, that might be mentioned. They are: Gen.10:10; "beginning of the kingdom of him"-"arche tes basileias autou." Gen.49:3 ; "first of the children of me"-"arche teknon mou." Deut.21:17;"first of the children of him"-"arche teknon ...


10

The claim of Divinity The people sought to stone Jesus for blasphemy - the statement that put them over the edge, and would serve as their justification for trying to stone him again later (see John 10:31-33), wasn't simply that He insulted them or claimed to have existed since before the days of Abraham - He claimed something much more than that. Those well-...


10

When was Jesus rich (2 Cor. 8:9)? Answer: It is unlikely Jesus was ever wealthy. There was probably never a time that Jesus had any earthly wealth. In fact, if anything, He relates His circumstances during His ministry: Matthew 8:20: Jesus said to him, "The foxes have holes and the birds of the air have nests, but the Son of Man has nowhere to lay His ...


9

The heart of the problem is that the earliest manuscripts-the uncials and papyri don't have punctuation. There has got to be a comma and or period in there, but where? Murray Harris in his study of this question (Jesus as God: The New Testament Use of Theos in Reference to Jesus [Baker, 1992], ch. 6, pp. 143-172) found that, of the 56 commentaries he ...


9

Having researched and discussed this verse in depth a few years ago for 4-5 months, I would say yes, that is exactly what the verse is saying, though many are far too quick to reach for an alternate reading. In order to properly understand this verse, a few things need to be understood... First, when we look to the lexical field (or sometimes called the ...


9

In the English language the expression "son of X" usually means an offshoot from X and therefore something which is distinct from X. Therefore "Son of God" may seem to imply a being who is not God. But in Hebrew idiom "A is the son of B" may mean that A shares the same nature as B, or A is a member of the group B. For example: Genesis 5:32 says literally "...


9

No contradiction There is not really anything contradictory about stating it this way just because Christ is understood to be pre-existent.1 This can be understood looking at it from two perspectives. Human Perspective You make the statement: I would never say "I foreknow my son" if he is sitting next to me. Yet I believe you can imagine a scenario ...


9

This is definitely a grammatical problem and is subtle. The matter at hand in John 10:33 is what Daniel B Wallace in "Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics" (GGBB) calls "Qualitative Predicate Nominatives. Let is take some non-threatening examples. In each of these case we will have two nouns in the nominative case connected or correlated by a ...


9

At what exact moment did Jesus give up His "wealth?" Answer: It depends on how we interpret 2 Corinthians 8:9 as suggested in the OP. I. Was this at his birth? Well, we might be even more specific: "Was this at His conception?" We should recognize that Christ was unfathomably wealthy as the Creator of the universe. Hebrews 10:5 may help ...


9

This question is really only an apparent contradiction if one begins with the assumption that Jesus is not and never was YHWH of the OT. If this is a contradiction, then there are many more of them - see the appendix below for a larger sample. The obvious conclusion from this simple survey (in the appendix below) is that the NT teaches that Jesus is YHWH ...


8

A rhetorical response question would be, "Why would one think Act 2:36 is referring to Jesus being 'made Lord and Christ after the resurrection'?" This idea is reading more into Act 2:36 than is there. The ESV, and most translations, make the aorist indicative ἐποίησεν into "has made" (a perfective idea, a completed action). That is an interpretative move, ...


8

Although he was a son, he learned obedience through what he suffered. And being made perfect (τελειωθεὶς), he became the source of eternal salvation to all who obey him, being designated by God a high priest after the order of Melchizedek. (Hebrews 5:8-10 ESV) How this applies to Jesus who was already perfect can be seen in how the word is used elsewhere: ...


8

I don't have a problem with the idea that Jesus existed in spiritual form pre-mortally--I in fact believe this is supported by other passages (a few examples here and here)--but I don't think that is the message this passage is intended to convey. False teaching The context of the preceding & succeeding verses is helpful in showing that John is ...


7

No, Moses and Elijah weren't resurrected so that Peter, James, and John could see them. We already know this because John 3:13 tells us that "no man hath ascended up to heaven". Look at how Matthew describes the event: And, behold, there appeared unto them Moses and Elias talking with him. — Matthew 17:3 … And as they came down from the mountain, ...


7

Let us first have a direct literal translation of 1 Cor 15:24-28: [24] ειτα το τελος οταν παραδω την βασιλειαν τω θεω και πατρι οταν καταργηση πασαν αρχην και πασαν εξουσιαν και δυναμιν [25] δει γαρ αυτον βασιλευειν αχρις ου αν θη παντας τους εχθρους υπο τους ποδας αυτου [26] εσχατος εχθρος καταργειται ο θανατος [27] παντα γαρ υπεταξεν υπο τους ποδας αυτου ...


7

The Greek adverb καθὼς precludes any difference in the honor to be given to the Son compared to that to be given to the Father. As BDAG notes, καθὼς is used “of comparison” meaning “just as.”1 For example, 1 John 2:6: 6 He who claims to abide in him, he himself also should so walk, just as he walked. Ϛʹ ὁ λέγων ἐν αὐτῷ μένειν ὀφείλει καθὼς ἐκεῖνος ...


7

The NT certainly asserts, using the precedents of the OT that Jesus existed before His incarnation. We see this many times in the Bible, especially in the Gospel of John, such as: John 1:1-3 - In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was with God in the beginning. Through Him all things were made, and without Him ...


Only top voted, non community-wiki answers of a minimum length are eligible