Why did Jesus begin his ministry at age 30?
Jesus a sympathetic High Priest that can sympathize with our weaknesses. For this reason, he came to earth born as a man having flesh and blood, and experiencing life as a human, having feelings and emotions at first hand.
Hebrews 4:15 (NASB)
15 For we do not have a high priest who cannot sympathize with our
It is easier to say 'Thy sins be forgiven thee'.
The audience will not see anything happen. Anyone can say to anyone else, 'Thy sins be forgiven' and nobody will be any the wiser - until the Day of Judgement when it will be demonstrated (and that for all eternity) whether or not eternal punishment has been avoided.
So for Jesus to say 'Thy sins be forgiven ...
A Blasphemy Which Requires Stoning
There are three points in the Fourth Gospel at which the Jews respond to something Jesus said by wanting to kill Him. The first is in Chapter 5; the second in Chapter 8, and the third in Chapter 10. It is in the final event in which John includes the reason for stoning:
31 Then the Jews took up stones again to stone Him. ...
This is a question on which it is difficult to be objective; I will attempt to offer an objective take (my own two cents in the conclusion only). I’ll probably fall somewhat short of any single person’s ideal answer. We all have preconceptions on this topic and they are pretty core to our beliefs.
Let’s interpret this passage through the lens of the 4 most ...
At birth, what titles did Jesus already possess?
Luke 2:11 & 21 (NKJV)
"For there is born to you this day in the city of David a Savior, who
is Christ the Lord."
"And when eight days were completed for the circumcision of the Child,
His name was called Jesus, the name given by the angel before He was
conceived in the womb."
There are numerous cases in the NT of People praying directly to Jesus. Here is a sample:
John 4:10 - Jesus answered and said to her, "If you had known the gift of God and who it is saying to you, 'Give Me to drink,' you would have asked Him, and He would have given to you living water."
John 14:13, 14 -And I will do whatever you ask in My name, ...
The central matter here in John 1:15 is the meaning ascribed to the adjective πρῶτος (protos) which can mean:
of time - first in time, earliest or earlier, eg, Phil 1:5, Acts 20:18
first in a sequence of list, eg, Matt 21:28, 22:25, etc
most prominent, foremost, most important, eg, Matt 22:38, Mark 12:29, etc.
Before answering this question we should ...
The phrase in question is prōtotokos pasēs ktiseōs. But does this mean "firstborn of every creature" (distributive, as in the KJV), or "firstborn of all creation" (collective, as in ASV, RSV, NASB, NEB, NIV)? The collective seems to be preferred by what immediately follows: "all things" were created by him, through him, and for him (v. 16), and he is ...
The claim of Divinity
The people sought to stone Jesus for blasphemy - the statement that put them over the edge, and would serve as their justification for trying to stone him again later (see John 10:31-33), wasn't simply that He insulted them or claimed to have existed since before the days of Abraham - He claimed something much more than that. Those well-...
There is not really anything contradictory about stating it this way just because Christ is understood to be pre-existent.1 This can be understood looking at it from two perspectives.
You make the statement:
I would never say "I foreknow my son" if he is sitting next to me.
Yet I believe you can imagine a scenario ...
This is definitely a grammatical problem and is subtle. The matter at hand in John 10:33 is what Daniel B Wallace in "Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics" (GGBB) calls "Qualitative Predicate Nominatives. Let is take some non-threatening examples.
In each of these case we will have two nouns in the nominative case connected or correlated by a ...
A rhetorical response question would be, "Why would one think Act 2:36 is referring to Jesus being 'made Lord and Christ after the resurrection'?" This idea is reading more into Act 2:36 than is there.
The ESV, and most translations, make the aorist indicative ἐποίησεν into "has made" (a perfective idea, a completed action). That is an interpretative move, ...
Although he was a son, he learned obedience through what he suffered. And being made perfect (τελειωθεὶς), he became the source of eternal salvation to all who obey him, being designated by God a high priest after the order of Melchizedek. (Hebrews 5:8-10 ESV)
How this applies to Jesus who was already perfect can be seen in how the word is used elsewhere:
I don't have a problem with the idea that Jesus existed in spiritual form pre-mortally--I in fact believe this is supported by other passages (a few examples here and here)--but I don't think that is the message this passage is intended to convey.
The context of the preceding & succeeding verses is helpful in showing that John is ...
Let us first have a direct literal translation of 1 Cor 15:24-28:
 ειτα το τελος οταν παραδω την βασιλειαν τω θεω και πατρι οταν καταργηση πασαν αρχην και πασαν εξουσιαν και δυναμιν  δει γαρ αυτον βασιλευειν αχρις ου αν θη παντας τους εχθρους υπο τους ποδας αυτου  εσχατος εχθρος καταργειται ο θανατος  παντα γαρ υπεταξεν υπο τους ποδας αυτου ...
The Greek adverb καθὼς precludes any difference in the honor to be given to the Son compared to that to be given to the Father. As BDAG notes, καθὼς is used “of comparison” meaning “just as.”1
For example, 1 John 2:6:
6 He who claims to abide in him, he himself also should so walk, just as he walked.
Ϛʹ ὁ λέγων ἐν αὐτῷ μένειν ὀφείλει καθὼς ἐκεῖνος ...
We find this precedent in the OT:
Isa 43:3, 11 - For I am the LORD your God, the Holy One of Israel, your Savior; ... I, yes I, am the LORD and there is no Savior but Me.
Isa 45:17, 21 - But Israel will be saved by the LORD with an everlasting salvation; ... Who foretold this long ago? Who announced it from ancient times? Was it not I, the LORD? There is no ...
Short Answer: The word is best translated "one-of-a-kind" or simply "unique". ("Only" would also work, though it could be misunderstood more easily.) The old translation "only-begotten" was based on an honest mistake in parsing the Greek word.
Background on "only-begotten"
The Greek word in question is μονογενη. It is pretty clearly a compound word formed ...
No, Moses and Elijah weren't resurrected so that Peter, James, and John could see them. We already know this because John 3:13 tells us that "no man hath ascended up to heaven".
Look at how Matthew describes the event:
And, behold, there appeared unto them Moses and Elias talking with him. — Matthew 17:3
And as they came down from the mountain, ...
The KJV and YLT (which both convey the singular 'thee' when it is necessary to do so) have :
And I will give unto thee the keys of the kingdom of heaven: and whatsoever thou shalt bind on earth shall be bound in heaven: and whatsoever thou shalt loose on earth shall be loosed in heaven. [KJV]
and I will give to thee the keys of the reign of the heavens, and ...
Jesus is quoting from Psalm 31:
Into your hands I commit my spirit; deliver me, Lord, my faithful God. Psalm 31:5 (NIV)
If you read through the whole Psalm, you can see David is asking God to save him from his enemies. This quote isn't supposed to give us a sense of Jesus travelling to be with his father, but trusting in him to deliver Jesus from death.
Jesus is not implying anything. He is simply stating the fact that he was with God prior to all things coming into existence.
Through Him all things were made, and without Him nothing was made that has been made.
For in Him all things were created, things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions ...
John 17:5 (NRSV):
So now, Father, glorify me in your own presence with the glory that I had in your presence before the world existed.\
Before the world existed, the Son existed because he had glory.
"Truly, truly, I tell you," Jesus declared, "before Abraham was born, I am!"
The context of the Son's existence in John 17:5 ...
According to the new testament witness, the Spirit of God and the Spirit of Christ are one and the same Spirit (Romans 8:9).
The apostles tell us that this was true of the Spirit in the Old Testament also (1 Peter 1:11).
It is through the indwelling of the Holy Spirit, that the Father and the Son are said to "make [their] home" in the believer (...
This is a great question. It's great because it's quasi-paradoxical for more than just one or two so-called 'high Christology' theologies. This is because the Gospel of John is so clearly intended to be, for lack of a better word, a Gospel in which the Apostle puts to rest any 'adoptionist' or other such 'low Christology' ideas—not the least of which ideas ...
Think of it this way: which of the two statements is verifiable ?
Anyone can say, "You sins are forgiven." But how would anyone verify it?
However to state, "Get up and walk" is instantaneously verifiable.
Thus, he was proving himself to the mentioned skeptics that he had the power to forgive sins because he had the verifiable ability to heal.
Let me layout the occurrence of the verbs used to send "Christ":
Christ sent by an unspecified authority (the Father implied??), Matt 10:40, 15:24, 21:37 (parable), Mark 9:37, 12:6, Luke 4:43, 9:48, 10:16, John 7:28
Christ sent by the "Spirit of the Lord", Luke 4:18
Christ sent by "God", John 3:17, 6:29, 8:42, Acts 3:20, 26, 1 John 4:...
32 While they were going out, a man who was demon-possessed and could not talk was brought to Jesus. 33 And when the demon was driven out, the man who had been mute spoke. The crowd was amazed and said, “Nothing like this has ever been seen in Israel.”
34 But the Pharisees said, “It is by the prince of demons that he drives out demons.”