Skip to main content
28 votes
Accepted

Why did Jesus begin his ministry at age 30?

Why did Jesus begin his ministry at age 30? Jesus a sympathetic High Priest that can sympathize with our weaknesses. For this reason, he came to earth born as a man having flesh and blood, and ...
Ozzie  Ozzie's user avatar
26 votes

When was Jesus rich? 2 Corinthian 8:9

Paul is very likely using a metaphor here. The word "rich" is often used in scripture without referring to earthly "wealth." Consider Christ's divinity. Prior to coming to Earth, ...
Bryan Scott's user avatar
22 votes
Accepted

What does Matthew 9:5 mean that it is "easier" to say "Your sins are forgiven"?

It is easier to say 'Thy sins be forgiven thee'. The audience will not see anything happen. Anyone can say to anyone else, 'Thy sins be forgiven' and nobody will be any the wiser - until the Day of ...
Nigel J's user avatar
  • 31.8k
20 votes
Accepted

Jesus was tempted, but God cannot be tempted. How, then, do we reconcile James 1:13 and Heb. 4:15?

Human nature can be tempted. Divine nature cannot be tempted. These two passages indicate the duality of nature possessed (uniquely) by Jesus of Nazareth. These two natures cannot 'merge' or 'mingle'. ...
Nigel J's user avatar
  • 31.8k
17 votes
Accepted

“Very truly, I tell you, before Abraham was, I am.” - why did the Jews want to throw stones at Jesus for saying this?

A Blasphemy Which Requires Stoning There are three points in the Fourth Gospel at which the Jews respond to something Jesus said by wanting to kill Him. The first is in Chapter 5; the second in ...
Revelation Lad's user avatar
16 votes
Accepted

When was Jesus made both Lord and Christ?

At birth, what titles did Jesus already possess? Luke 2:11 & 21 (NKJV) "For there is born to you this day in the city of David a Savior, who is Christ the Lord." "And when eight ...
carsonfel's user avatar
  • 1,016
15 votes
Accepted

If Jesus is God, how can we make sense of Him calling the Father "my God" in John 20:17?

This is a question on which it is difficult to be objective; I will attempt to offer an objective take (my own two cents in the conclusion only). I’ll probably fall somewhat short of any single ...
Hold To The Rod's user avatar
13 votes
Accepted

In Colossians 1:15, what does “firstborn of every creature” mean?

The phrase in question is prōtotokos pasēs ktiseōs. But does this mean "firstborn of every creature" (distributive, as in the KJV), or "firstborn of all creation" (collective, as in ASV, RSV, NASB, ...
Ryan Jacobs's user avatar
13 votes

Is there any textual evidence in the Gospels that Jesus thought we should pray to Jesus?

There are numerous cases in the NT of People praying directly to Jesus. Here is a sample: John 4:10 - Jesus answered and said to her, "If you had known the gift of God and who it is saying to ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 109k
13 votes
Accepted

Does John the Baptist's witness imply the pre-incarnate existence of Jesus?

The central matter here in John 1:15 is the meaning ascribed to the adjective πρῶτος (protos) which can mean: of time - first in time, earliest or earlier, eg, Phil 1:5, Acts 20:18 first in a ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 109k
12 votes

To Jews in Jesus' time, what did "the Son of Man" mean?

"Son of man" is a frequent phrase on the OT, especially Ezekiel, (eg, 2:6, 11:15, 12:27, 13:2, 20:3, 21:19, 22;18, 24:2, 28:2, 30:21, 32:18, 24, 33:2, 12, 20, 34:2, 36:1, 37:16, 38:2, 39:17, ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 109k
12 votes

In Rev. Ch.5:1-5 John is weeping much and only Jesus is worthy to open the book. If John wrote Revelation why could he not look at it?

The question asked is three-fold, (1) "Why is John weeping?" (2) Is it because he wrote the book of the Revelation but could not open, or look at it (read it)?" (3) Is it because only ...
Anne's user avatar
  • 25.2k
12 votes
Accepted

Why did the Jews refuse to kill Christ in John 18:31?

By the time of Jesus' crucifixion the Jewish Sanhedrin had lost the power to perform capital punishment without Rome's approval. This did not mean they could not execute criminals; it meant they had ...
Hold To The Rod's user avatar
11 votes
Accepted

Is the Son second in authority under God the Father? 1 Corinthians 15:24-28

Let us first have a direct literal translation of 1 Cor 15:24-28: [24] ειτα το τελος οταν παραδω την βασιλειαν τω θεω και πατρι οταν καταργηση πασαν αρχην και πασαν εξουσιαν και δυναμιν [25] δει γαρ ...
David's user avatar
  • 483
11 votes

Are there contextual cues which suggest Jesus calming the storm does not require Jesus to be God Almighty?

A miracle does not necessarily originate with the person who is seen doing it. Consider the following similar miracles performed by persons whom no one would consider to be "God Almighty." ...
Biblasia's user avatar
  • 5,013
10 votes

“Very truly, I tell you, before Abraham was, I am.” - why did the Jews want to throw stones at Jesus for saying this?

The claim of Divinity The people sought to stone Jesus for blasphemy - the statement that put them over the edge, and would serve as their justification for trying to stone him again later (see John ...
Hold To The Rod's user avatar
10 votes

Is it grammar or theology that causes translators to typically translate John 10:33 as "declare Yourself to be God" as opposed to "a god"?

This is definitely a grammatical problem and is subtle. The matter at hand in John 10:33 is what Daniel B Wallace in "Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics" (GGBB) calls "Qualitative ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 109k
10 votes

When was Jesus rich? 2 Corinthian 8:9

When was Jesus rich (2 Cor. 8:9)? Answer: It is unlikely Jesus was ever wealthy. There was probably never a time that Jesus had any earthly wealth. In fact, if anything, He relates His circumstances ...
Xeno's user avatar
  • 9,278
10 votes

How can Isaiah 42:8 possibly be true, if John 13:31-32 is true?

This question is really only an apparent contradiction if one begins with the assumption that Jesus is not and never was YHWH of the OT. If this is a contradiction, then there are many more of them - ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 109k
9 votes
Accepted

Did God resurrect Moses?

No, Moses and Elijah weren't resurrected so that Peter, James, and John could see them. We already know this because John 3:13 tells us that "no man hath ascended up to heaven". Look at how Matthew ...
Ray Butterworth's user avatar
9 votes

What does in the "Form of God" mean?

Original Greek: ὃς ἐν μορφῇ Θεοῦ ὑπάρχων μορφῇ is Dative Feminine Singular (shape, appearance, outline, form). μορφῇ is the root of our verb "to morph" (to change into another form). Θεοῦ Genitive ...
Codosaur's user avatar
  • 434
9 votes

At John 5:18, did Jesus break the Sabbath?

The Pharisees had rules that were much stricter than God's rules. They interpreted "work" to include almost every physical activity. Even today, orthodox Jews consider turning on a light ...
Ray Butterworth's user avatar
9 votes

Does the demon in Luke 8:28 testify that Jesus is God?

The Greek precludes “most High” from modifying “Son”. The noun υἱὲ (“Son”) is declined in the vocative case, while τοῦ ὑψίστου (“most High”) is declined in the genitive case. Therefore, τοῦ ὑψίστου ...
Der Übermensch's user avatar
8 votes

In John 14:28, what did Jesus mean when he said “my Father is greater than I?”

This is a great question. It's great because it's quasi-paradoxical for more than just one or two so-called 'high Christology' theologies. This is because the Gospel of John is so clearly intended to ...
Sola Gratia's user avatar
  • 9,693
8 votes
Accepted

Does "Jesus has come in the flesh" in 1 John 4:2 imply a fleshless pre-existence?

I don't have a problem with the idea that Jesus existed in spiritual form pre-mortally--I in fact believe this is supported by other passages (a few examples here and here)--but I don't think that is ...
Hold To The Rod's user avatar
8 votes
Accepted

In what sense did Jesus descend/come from heaven? John 3:13 & 3:31

The NT certainly asserts, using the precedents of the OT that Jesus existed before His incarnation. We see this many times in the Bible, especially in the Gospel of John, such as: John 1:1-3 - In the ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 109k
8 votes
Accepted

At what exact moment did Jesus transition from being rich to being poor according to 2 Corinthians 8:9?

At what exact moment did Jesus give up His "wealth?" Answer: It depends on how we interpret 2 Corinthians 8:9 as suggested in the OP. I. Was this at his birth? Well, we might be even more ...
Xeno's user avatar
  • 9,278
8 votes

Did the Chief Priests change their minds about crucifying Christ during the festival?

In brief, this incident is yet another instance of the duplicity of the Jewish leaders. Jesus should not have been executed because: The trial that delivered was illegal for numerous reasons such as ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 109k
8 votes

At John 5:18, did Jesus break the Sabbath?

Based on Exodus 31:14-15, Jesus did not violate Shabbat in [John 5] - However, Jesus did violate Shabbat rules of "Pikuach Nefesh" in [John 5] by healing a patient without terminal illness. *...
חִידָה's user avatar
  • 8,455

Only top scored, non community-wiki answers of a minimum length are eligible