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How should the word, before, in Exodus 20:3 be interpreted?

Here's an answer from an expert in Exodus and Hebrew: You shall have no Hebrew does not feature a verb “to have” but expresses possession by h-y-h le-, literally “to be to.” Since the idea of ...
Perry Webb's user avatar
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4 votes

What does the name (יַעְבֵּץ) Jabez mean in Hebrew?

Short answer: It combines the name of God with a pun on the word for pain or grief. According to the 13th c. Jewish commentator David Kimhi (Radak), the name results from a Hebrew wordplay involving a ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
3 votes

What are the waters above the expanse in Genesis 1:6-7?

The waters above the raqiya' are just that, waters above the solid dome encompassing the earth. The cosmology here is shared across Ancient Southwest Asia, where there's a colossal ocean above the ...
Avi Avraham's user avatar
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3 votes

Why is Jacob described as being 'hired' to be slept with? (Genesis 30:16)

She is joking. She is teasing her husband, as wives are apparently prone to do. The premise behind the claim is that Jacob has become the servant of Rachel in sexual matters. So by "paying" ...
Stephen Disraeli's user avatar
3 votes

Question about Hebrew translations of Leviticus 23:15

The word appears twice in Leviticus 23:15: The first instance is הַשַּׁבָּת (ha-shabat, the sabbath, singular). The second is שַׁבָּתוֹת (shabatoth, sabbaths, plural). What is an example of an ...
Ray Butterworth's user avatar
2 votes

What is the Line of Flax as per Ezekiel 40:3?

Using Young's Concordance, the Hebrew word pathil occurs here (and nowhere else in the Hebrew scriptures). It means 'ribbon, thread', and is translated as 'thread'. Therefore, Young's Literal ...
Anne's user avatar
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2 votes

Is there a grammatical basis for translating יְהוָ֑ה as the direct object of אָ֭הַבְתִּי in Psalm 116:1?

For what it is worth, I would translate Ps 116:1, 2 as: I love because: YHWH has heard my voice and pleas He has inclined His ear to me Therefore, as long as I live I will call [upon Him] The only ...
Dottard's user avatar
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2 votes

Moses at the mount speaking to the people

Moses was called up Mount Sinai several times. Each time he went up, he later came down, which was when he spoke to the Israelites, to convey what God had said to him. Until specific verses are stated,...
Anne's user avatar
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2 votes

What does (צִיּוֹן) "Zion" mean?

In biblical usage, "Zion" most frequently refers either to Jerusalem or the specific hill on which temple stood. In the NT is can also refer to the spiritual Jerusalem, a Christian concept ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
2 votes

How should the word, before, in Exodus 20:3 be interpreted?

The Hebrew word עַל (al) can have many meanings. According to Strong, these include: on, upon, over, against, concerning, because of, by, beside. While the text is normally understood to refer to God'...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
1 vote

Moses at the mount speaking to the people

To add to what Anne posted, Exodus 19 defines what was meant by "the mountain." And you shall set limits for the people all around, saying, ‘Take care not to go up into the mountain or ...
Dieter's user avatar
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1 vote

How should the word, before, in Exodus 20:3 be interpreted?

Yes, comparing the usage of these two words in Scripture, the way ‘before’ is used in Ex. 20:3, it means 'ahead of' or 'in front of.' He goes on to explain why in verse 2, that He was the one who ...
Joanne's user avatar
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1 vote

Hebrew and lucifer

Lucifer is a Latin word for morning star, translated from the Greek φωσφόρος, and is seen in direct relation to Jesus Christ in 2 Peter 1:19 in the Latin Vulgate, translated day star in English in ...
AFrazier's user avatar
  • 353
1 vote

Hebrew and lucifer

As shown in the appendix below, the name "Lucifer" does not occur anywhere in the Hebrew. It is a Latin word, the equivalent of the Hebrew הֵילֵל "helel" (Isa 14:12) both of which ...
Dottard's user avatar
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1 vote

Hebrew and lucifer

There is no Hebrew word for Lucifer. In Isaiah 14:21 the term "Helal ben Shaḥar" means "the brilliant one, son of the morning". In the Septuagint, this became Φωσφόρος (...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
1 vote

Why is katallage in Isaiah 9:5 (LXX) left out of most English translations?

The Hebrew Masoretic text of Isa 9:5 as we now have it reads as follows (my overly literal translation): For every warrior's boot from noisy [battle] plus garments rolled in blood, will be used as ...
Dottard's user avatar
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1 vote

What is the Line of Flax as per Ezekiel 40:3?

Adding to @Anne's answer: Rashi points out the function of the the two measuring methods with a linen cord in his hand For measuring land, there is nothing better than linen cord. and a measuring rod ...
Avrohom Yitzchok's user avatar
1 vote

Would Deut 33:20 be considered an example of compound indefinite direct objects in Hebrew?

Yes וְטָרַ֥ף‬ זְרֹ֖ועַ אַף‬־קָדְקֹֽד (BHS2003) זְרֹ֖ועַ אַף‬־קָדְקֹֽד is a compound direct object of טָרַ֥ף‬ אַף is an interjection such even, also. Thus, "To tear off arm and scalp." (...
Perry Webb's user avatar
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1 vote

Why is Jacob described as being 'hired' to be slept with? (Genesis 30:16)

Besides joking, there may be another possibility. Rachel made a deal with Leah that she could sleep with Jacob in exchange for the mandrakes, suggesting that Jacob had not been sleeping with Leah for ...
Vincent Wong's user avatar
  • 6,504
1 vote

What are the waters above the expanse in Genesis 1:6-7?

Our interpretations of scripture are often influenced by our worldview, including our beliefs about the formation of the earth. The Hebrew word used here is always in the plural, heavens, which ...
Dieter's user avatar
  • 3,206
1 vote

When Jesus read from the Scroll of Isaiah, did he translate it into Aramaic?

What language did Jesus speak when he read Isaiah 61:1,2? Either the Galilean dialect of Aramaic, or the ancient Hebrew, depending on the written language of the scroll. Both are plausible. I think ...
wberry's user avatar
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