11
votes
In Acts 8:32–33 was the Ethiopian eunuch reading a Septuagint scroll or a Hebrew scroll?
Let me place these side-by-side for Acts 8:32, 33 from the BLB:
... He was led as a sheep to slaughter, and as a lamb before the one
shearing him is silent, so He does not open His mouth. In His
...
- 82.3k
8
votes
Which Preposition is Used Concerning Paul's Body in Galatians 6:17?
The Greek preposition ἐν is predominately translated into English as “in” but is indeed sometimes translated as “on”. The apostle Paul refers to στίγματα (lemma στίγμα), which refer to marks made on ...
- 10.4k
8
votes
Accepted
Son of theos vs son of kyrios
We can translate John 11:27 from Greek to English.
John 11:27 (Greek New Testament)
λέγει αὐτῷ· ναὶ κύριε, ἐγὼ πεπίστευκα ὅτι σὺ εἶ ὁ χριστὸς ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ
θεοῦ ὁ εἰς τὸν κόσμον ἐρχόμενος.
She said to ...
- 1,461
4
votes
Is it true that Luther intentionally mistranslated Romans 3:28?
If one is asking about Luther's translation of Romans 3:28, why not let Luther directly answer the question in his own words? In his "open letter on translating" he writes:
I also know ...
- 504
4
votes
Son of theos vs son of kyrios
It is true, in the dozens of cases (with only a single exception that I have found) where the NT writers quote the OT that includes the tetragammaton YHWH, it rendered as kyrios = "Lord". ...
- 82.3k
4
votes
By what logic is "in love" grouped with "speaking the truth" by commas? (Ephesians 4:15)
Because Greek is an inflected language, it is true that there are many circumstances wherein the word order does not matter in Greek but does matter in English. The Greek inflection enables us to ...
- 14.5k
4
votes
In Acts 8:32–33 was the Ethiopian eunuch reading a Septuagint scroll or a Hebrew scroll?
I don't know that the wording of Acts necessarily helps us answer the question. I'm trying to imagine how Philip would have reported this scene. Would he have given a verbatim report of what the ...
- 2,998
2
votes
What is the difference between “anger” and “wrath”?
Actually, four different words are involved as follows. The words in Eph 4:26 and Col 3:8 are different.
Eph 4:26 "Be angry, and yet do not sin." Let not the sun set upon your wrath
In this ...
- 82.3k
2
votes
Accepted
Why is "deliver us from evil" a possible translation?
The reason it is usually translated as "evil" is because the Greek word "πονηροῦ" is in adjective form. However, its usage in many of these verses is a bit unique, seeing as it is ...
- 3,348
2
votes
Which Preposition is Used Concerning Paul's Body in Galatians 6:17?
The text in question, the second half of Gal 6:17 reads:
ἐγὼ γὰρ τὰ στίγματα τοῦ Ἰησοῦ ἐν τῷ σώματί μου βαστάζω. = for I bear
on my body the brand-marks of Jesus. [NASB]
We cannot be too precise ...
- 82.3k
2
votes
Son of theos vs son of kyrios
How the Greek scribes viewed the relationship of Christ with the Judean Deity?
OP observed that "it does seem that Greek scribal tradition veers away from affirming that Christ is the son of ...
- 2,577
2
votes
Son of theos vs son of kyrios
Let's examine the text in question carefully.
She saith unto him, Yea, Lord: I believe that thou art the Christ, the
Son of God, which should come into the world. (John 11:27, KJV)
λέγει αὐτῷ ναί ...
- 3,348
1
vote
Why is "deliver us from evil" a possible translation?
The phrase in question in Matt 6:13 is:
ἀλλὰ ῥῦσαι ἡμᾶς ἀπὸ τοῦ πονηροῦ.
The last two words could either be masculine or neuter. If we insist on neuter, then the phrase addresses evil generally.
...
- 82.3k
1
vote
Is it true that Luther intentionally mistranslated Romans 3:28?
It is true that the Greek word for ‘alone’ does not occur in any of the Greek manuscripts of the book of Romans regarding that particular verse.
Yet the Greek for ‘apart from’ or ‘without’ [law-...
- 16.7k
1
vote
Accepted
What are the Hebrew/OT/Aramaic equivalents of the words ἀπιστία (unbelief) or ἄπιστος (unbelieving), such as in Romans 4:20?
In Greek, the word for "unbelief" is ἀπιστία which occurs quite sparingly, only 11 times: Matt 13:58, Mark 6:6, 9:24, 16:14, Rom 3:3, 4:20, 11:20, 23, 1 Tim 1:13, Heb 3:12, 19.
Hebrew does ...
- 82.3k
1
vote
Should the Greek word "euanggelidzo" in Act 5:42 be translated as evangelize instead of preach?
The Greek word is from a root with two components.
From εὖ (G2095) and ἄγγελος (G32)
That first component can mean:
to be well off, fare well, prosper
acting well
Or, in the Strong's definition:
...
- 3,348
1
vote
To which beginning is the word 'beginning' (arche) referring in the Gospel of John, outside of the prologue?
Overview of the Gospel
An examination of the verses with ἀρχή shows John was purposeful to compose the Gospel so that the uses in the Prologue would be distinct from the uses in the rest of the Gospel:...
- 14.5k
1
vote
To which beginning is the word 'beginning' (arche) referring in the Gospel of John, outside of the prologue?
"...at the beginning of the gospel..." in Philippians 4:15 show us that Paul indicated "the first time the gospel was preached in Macedonia", that is, the "beginning of the ...
- 1,246
1
vote
Tetelestai - What did Jesus really say in John 19:30 assuming he spoke Aramaic or Hebrew?
πάντα τελεσθήσεται Daniel 4:33 LXX equals the term סָ֣פַת Daniel 4:30 HEBREW.
Verb peal perfect, 3rd. fem. סֶָ֫פַת Bauer-Leander ** to be fulfilled** , vide Daniel 2:44 aphel imperfect.
Theodotion ...
- 1,246
1
vote
Addressing someone as "epistates" (Ἐπιστάτα)
The meaning of the term ἐπιστάτης, master, is seen in the LXX where is used 8 times:
And he set over them task-masters, who should afflict them in their works; and they built strong cities for Pharao,...
- 14.5k
1
vote
"but" deliver us from evil
But rather, Instead, But also
Thayer states,
"ἀλλά, an adversative particle, derived from ἀλλά, neuter of the adjective ἄλλος, which was originally pronounced ἄλλος (cf. Klotz ad Devar. ii., p. ...
- 3,893
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