12 votes

Why do some translations have a completely opposite interpretation of John 18:37?

Witherington makes a point on the parallel account in Mark 15. Here's what he has to say: Thus at 15:2 we must envision that the trial has gone through several stages perhaps, and Mark is only ...
Jason_'s user avatar
  • 4,474
7 votes

Why do translators translate Luke 2:25 and 11:13 as "the Holy Spirit" instead of "a holy spirit"?

It is true that the NT speaks of the "spirit of man" (eg, 1 Cor 2:11) as distinct from the "Spirit of God" (eg, 1 Cor 2:11, Rom 8:9, etc). However, when the word "spirit" ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 105k
6 votes

Why do some translations have a completely opposite interpretation of John 18:37?

I was about to provide a very literal translation of John 18:37 but noticed that my version was almost identical to the BLB - Therefore Pilate said to Him, "Then You are a king?" Jesus ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 105k
5 votes

What is the correct interpretation of Revelation 2:4?

I don't think you can separate options b, c, and d from each other given that the Biblical nature of love is that we love others as God has loved us (1 John 3:16, 1 John 4:11). So I think those three ...
EngineeringMind's user avatar
5 votes
Accepted

John 20:4: προέδραμεν has a singular subject. What does that mean?

This is your word of interest: John 20:3-4 NKJV 3 Peter therefore went out, and the other disciple, and were going to the tomb. 4 So they both ran together, and the other disciple outran Peter and ...
Jason_'s user avatar
  • 4,474
5 votes

Why did Jesus say He wouldn’t drink of the vine when it seems like He did?

There are a number of ways to deal with this apparent contradiction. Table Fellowship, not wine-drinking per se. Jesus did not say that he would drink no wine at all; he said he would drink no wine &...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
5 votes

Can usage of Θεὸς in Luke 20:38 support the translation of Θεὸς as "God" and not "a god" in John 1:1?

The short answer is "NO". The reasons for this are: Luke 20:38 does not mention the Word/Logos (the word used in John 1:1) The two passages in John 1:1 and Luke 20:38 are discussing quite ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 105k
4 votes

Why did Jesus say He wouldn’t drink of the vine when it seems like He did?

This is less complicated than it appears. First, notice that all the accounts of the last supper never use the word "wine", but always express what was drunk as "the fruit of the vine&...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 105k
4 votes

Why did the angel speak to Mary in the future tense (Lk. 1:26-38)?

The OP has answered the question. As is well-known Greek has three forms of the verb action: active voice where the subject carries out the action on something else middle voice where the subject ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 105k
3 votes

2 Thessalonians 2:8-9 - After/According to OR Against the Working of Satan?

Grammatically, there are two cases to consider: kata when used with the genitive means "against", or, "into/throughout" kata when used with the accusative (as in 2 Thess 2:9) ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 105k
3 votes

John 1:4-5. If life is the light of men, what is the darkness?

John starts his gospel account referring to Creation (Genesis 1:1 ff., which is mysterious in its wording). John then brings clarity by leaping straight from Creation to the arrival of John the ...
Anne's user avatar
  • 23.6k
3 votes

What is the correct interpretation of Revelation 2:4?

The first hermeneutic principle that sprang to mind was the biblical principle of fact, that: "For the time is come that judgment must begin at the house of God: and if it first begins at us, ...
Anne's user avatar
  • 23.6k
3 votes

Is ὅλος not more apt than πάντα

πάντα has no inherent sense of time. It simply means “all, every”. If I were to say in English, “Are you going to eat all that?” or in Koine Greek, «Μὴ μέλλεις φαγεῖν πάντα ἐκεῖνα?», neither indicates ...
Der Übermensch's user avatar
2 votes

The meaning of "akoe" in Matthew 24:6

Context The verse in question is found in part of the Olivet Discourse given by Jesus to describe the coming destruction of Judea, and in particular, the Temple. This is the context that must be kept ...
ray grant's user avatar
  • 2,330
2 votes

The meaning of "akoe" in Matthew 24:6

First, the word ἀκοή (akoe) is often used in the sense of hearing "rumor", eg, Matt 4:24, 14:1, 24:6; Mark 1:28; 13:7, etc. A rumor is, by definition, an unconfirmed report that may or may ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 105k
2 votes

Why do some translations have a completely opposite interpretation of John 18:37?

I think what others are saying is: the phrase translated "you say" (that I am) is an idiom native to Greek or Hebrew (and probably also to that time), not English. An idiom usually conveys ...
Avdecha .org's user avatar
2 votes

Why do some translations have a completely opposite interpretation of John 18:37?

Perhaps the difference lies between dynamic equivalence and formal equivalence translations. The immediate conversation concerning kingship goes back to John 18:33. Pilate's question and Christ's ...
Thomas Waters's user avatar
2 votes

What is the justification for translating James 2:14b as "Can such faith save them?"?

In Jam. 2:14, the noun “faith” occurs twice: first, «πίστιν», which is indefinite or anarthrous, and then «ἡ πίστις», which is definite. The author is discussing faith which does not have works: 14 ...
Der Übermensch's user avatar
2 votes
Accepted

Is the Greek word for "put to death" in Colossians 3:5 nekrosate or nekroō?

Short Answer: The word is indeed Νεκρώσατε (Nekrosate). The Strong's does not explain every form of a word. Instead it shows the root word. This is because Strong’s dictionary is not specific to any ...
Jason_'s user avatar
  • 4,474
2 votes

John 20:4: προέδραμεν has a singular subject. What does that mean?

προέδραμε(ν) is singular. The plural form is προέδραμον.
Jakub Lédl's user avatar
2 votes

John 20:4: προέδραμεν has a singular subject. What does that mean?

John 20:4 contains two sentences linked by "and/καὶ" as follows: Sentence #1 ἔτρεχον δὲ οἱ δύο ὁμοῦ - but the two were running together Here, the subjects is "two" and the verb &...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 105k
2 votes

Genesis 28:3 a congregation of peoples

Short Answer: It is possible to tie the two together in terms of meaning and function. When the Hebrew Bible was translated into Greek in the 3rd and 2nd centuries BC the translators used ekklesia to ...
Jason_'s user avatar
  • 4,474
2 votes

Does the Greek text for Mark 15:33 contain an example of an aorist participle whose action occurs before the action of the main verb?

The Englishman's Greek New Testament renders Mark 15:33 as : and being come hour sixth darkness came over all the land until hour ninth. Biblehub states that both verbs (the participle and the ...
Nigel J's user avatar
  • 31.1k
2 votes

Can usage of Θεὸς in Luke 20:38 support the translation of Θεὸς as "God" and not "a god" in John 1:1?

Question: Can usage of Θεὸς in Luke 20:38 support the translation of Θεὸς as "God" and not "a god" in John 1:1? Short Answer: No. Not really. However, to know why, we need to ...
Jason_'s user avatar
  • 4,474
2 votes

Can usage of Θεὸς in Luke 20:38 support the translation of Θεὸς as "God" and not "a god" in John 1:1?

Absolutely. Luke 20:38 demonstrates John 1:1c does not mean "a god." First, the difference between God and a god is more than an indefinite article, because God does not mean god. The ...
Revelation Lad's user avatar
1 vote

Romans 4:2-5 -- How do you understand Paul's juxtapose statement about "crediting" faith?

Paul, in Romans 4, is using the metaphor of wages to illustrate the functioning of God's free (unmerited) grace. That is, he is contrasting two situations: when a person works, there is a contract ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 105k
1 vote

Matthew 5:23-24 Who does adelphos (ἀδελφός, brother) refer to?

BDAG lists two principle meanings of the word ἀδελφός (adelphos), "brother": a male from the same womb as the reference person, brother, eg, Matt 1:2, 11, 4:18, 21, John 1:41, etc a person ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 105k
1 vote

Why did Jesus say He wouldn’t drink of the vine when it seems like He did?

Mark 15:23 And they gave him to drink wine mingled with myrrh: but he received it not. He received it not. Mark 15:36 And one ran and filled a spunge full of vinegar, and put it on a reed, and gave ...
S.A.'s user avatar
  • 39
1 vote

John 1:4-5. If life is the light of men, what is the darkness?

A comment from the article "Follow the Light of the World" from the Watchtower of April 1, 1993, says: Light stands for truth and righteousness,in contrast with darkness, which stands for ...
Jim monette's user avatar
1 vote

What is the correct interpretation of Revelation 2:4?

Hermeneutics takes into account factors that include culture, scriptures—both immediate context and allusions, linguistics, etymology, logic, scholarly tradition, and so on. Hopefully, it doesn’t ...
Dieter's user avatar
  • 1,574

Only top scored, non community-wiki answers of a minimum length are eligible