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Background Luke 3:4 is one of the 237 instances where the New World Translation (NWT) uses Jehovah: just as it is written in the book of the words of Isaiah the prophet: “A voice of one crying out in the wilderness: ‘Prepare the way of Jehovah! Make his roads straight. (NWT) As it is written in the book of the words of Isaiah the prophet, “The voice ...


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πριν αβρααμ γενεσθαι εγω ειμι [TR] John 8:58 [Text undisputed] Baxter's Analytical Greek Lexicon says of the word γενεσθαι, genesthai, that it is the aorist 2, infinitive and is an inflection of γίνομαι, ginomai Strong 1096 which means 'to come' 'to become' or 'to come into being'. And, without a doubt, the meaning of εἰμί, eimi Strong 1510 is 'I exist' ...


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Of ἄρρητα, arreta, Strong 731 Thayer states : a. unsaid, unspoken: Homer, Odyssey 14, 466, and often in Attic. b. unspeakable (on account of its sacredness) (Herodotus 5, 83, and often in other writings): 2 Corinthians 12:4, explained by what follows: ἅ οὐκ ἐξόν ἀνθρώπῳ λαλῆσαι. 'Unsaid' or 'unspoken' does not convey that something cannot be uttered ...


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I believe there are a few points to be noted here against Leighton Flowers view. First, one could argue there is no difference in meaning between "know in former times" or "know of old" and "know in advance" or "get to know in advance." That is, if something about today is known in "former times" then it was also known "in advance." So one can argue that a ...


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Regarding Mark 13:20, there is the matter of Divine Person. If Deity, as such (that is to say divine nature) is being referred to, then an article may not be suitable, since there is no identification of Person. But if a specific Divine Person is in view, then the article may be suitable. That may well be the reason for the article sometimes to be used and ...


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In some instances ἔλεγεν and other verbs in the form of imperfect do not really convey a past continuous sense, but a sense of an instance and a singularity of action, like aorist. Here is a salient example: Mark 9:24. “Immediately the father of the boy cried out and said (ἔλεγεν), “I believe; help my unbelief!”, here ἕλεγεν simply cannot have a notion of ...


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The short answer is no. I will expand. The Greek word is ην. It is also found at J 1:10. In verse 9, the Word is coming into the world. Then in 10, he was (ην) the world. His being in the world did not precede his arrival. If we apply this to J 1:1, he did not precede the beginning. In addition, the word και (and) found at J 1:1 is said by Danker ...


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In Romans 11:22 what does Paul mean by “continue in his goodness”? The Symbolic Olive Tree "Some of he branches broken off", represent the Jewish people that rejected Jesus , they themselves were rejected. Paul continues ,"and you" meaning the gentiles being "a wild olive shoot were grafted in among them and participated in richness of the olive root" ...


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"Continue in Goodness of God" means that God's Goodness, that is to say, His Mercy, His Grace and salvific Love is not acting automatically, without our free reciprocation and constant faithful co-action and our constant growth in Him, that is to say, in His Grace to become a "perfect man" (Cf. Ephesians 4:13). Thus, if we lose faith in Christ and do not co-...


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The question states the opinion that : Bauer-Danker-Arndt-Gingrich Greek lexicon cites Mark 10:18 to show that Jesus did not equate himself with the Lord God the Father of the Shema. In support of this opinion, the OP quotes from BDAG the following : BDAG θεος 2. Some writings in our lit. use the word θ. w. ref. to Christ (without necessarily equating ...


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Yes, definitely Jesus asserts His divinity in Mark 10:18. For, of course, Jesus clearly admits Himself that there are good humans and bad humans (Luke 6:45), but here He simply reprimands the young man for calling Him good in the sense of just a good human teacher. Would not Jesus put Himself at least on the level of the good humans understood in human ...


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Like I told you before, the Greek word for "beginning" is arche and we get our English word "architect" from that Greek word. The following is what Wallace has to say and the BDAG is included in his comments. "This is the solemn pronouncement of the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the originator,54. 54tn Or “the beginning of God’s creation”; or “the ...


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Firstly, the link supplied to an article by Gregory Blunt appears to me to show that Blunt is arguing against Daniel B Wallace's treatment of the article : However, it will be demonstrated that a consistent treatment of the article as pronoun, described by Middleton, and anaphora with respect to "individualizing articles" as described by Daniel Wallace ...


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Let me first say Mr.Pearne that your working under the premise or the assumption that Jesus Christ is just a man who was created like the rest of us, therefore the conclusions you come up with would be wrong. The following are your words to Nigel from the comments.@NigelJ Proverbs 8:22 says that the speaker was created and THEN he saw the earth created. ...


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Semantically, glory (doxa) is equivalent to φωτισμός. ἀπαύγασμα in Greek means "shining from a source" (e.g. as light beam from the sun or light from a candle). "Kabod was translated as doxa in Greek Old Testament, and then as “glory” in the English Bible. Doxa, as the beam of God's light on the tabernacle, was more than just a show --- it was a tangible ...


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Syntax The living Father sent me, and because of him I live also. In the same way whoever eats me will live because of me. [GNT] καθὼς ἀπέστειλέν με ὁ ζῶν πατὴρ κἀγὼ ζῶ διὰ τὸν πατέρα καὶ ὁ τρώγων με κἀκεῖνος ζήσει δι᾽ ἐμέ [mGNT] All English translations treat the verb ζῶν ("to live") as an adjective describing a characteristic of the noun ("...


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The Greek δια means "by means of," or "through the mode of," as in God making all creation through the Son (John 1:1). Jesus lives because He receives His being Who He is, directly from the Father with Whom He is one (John 10:30). "Living Father" indicates a kind of finality or source of life in this precise context, as in, "As the Source of all life is ...


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The verse in question (Mark 10:18), I don't think it's informing "our" view of Jesus as God. Read the "context starting at verse 17. "And as He was setting out on a journey, a man ran up to Him and knelt before Him, and began asking Him, "Good Teacher, what shall I do to inherit eternal life?" Notice the man was not looking for material goods or healing; ...


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In view of the entire biblical corpus, the most suitable translation of ἀρχή would be “beginning.” However, this does not require Jesus Christ to be understood as a creature. One definition of “beginning,” like the word ἀρχή,1 is “origin; source”2 (i.e., first cause). Philo, a contemporary of Paul and Jesus in the 1st century A.D., wrote the following,3 ...


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“That throughout the first five books of the Greek Bible kyrios is employed as a proper noun was shown long ago by Huber,37 Debrunner,38 and Baudissin39 and has been reiterated since. As a proper noun, a divine name, and in complete conformity with other personal names in these books, it is more often unarticulated than articulated. This basic fact holds ...


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Valid enough to prove what this footnote says, but insufficient to warrant wholesale changing of every other instance of Kyrios in the New Testament to "Yahweh." In this one verse (or a few others at most) an allusion to the Old Testament may be intended. But an intended, "read this Kyrios as Yahweh" doesn't give liberty or justification for haphazardly ...


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Two comments in your question are not quite accurate. The footnote on John 1:1c in the 2013 NWT to “a god” is “or divine.” In fact these two are not mutually exclusive. The NWT understands θεός here as a mixture of indefinite-qualitative, this not “a god” but rather “a god.” The distinction is significant. This is not another god in addition to ...


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What did Jesus likely say in John 8:58? Professor of Religious Studies , Jason David BeDuhn of Northern Arizona University in his book "TRUTH IN TRANSLATION Accuracy and Bias of the New Testament" compares nine major English translations and list them as follows: In Chapter ten "TEMPERING WITH THE TENSES" deals exclusively with John 8:58 analyzes grammar ...


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