The distinction between what the writer hears and his own added "interpretation" is usually documented as such. For example:
Matt 1:23 - "Behold, the virgin will hold in womb, and will bring forth a son, and they will call His name Immanuel" which is, being translated, "God with us."
Mark 5:41 - And having taken the hand of ...
When it comes to translated words, it doesn’t always follow that derivative words must absolutely hold to the root word of the translated language.
• δωρεαν - gratuitously
• δωρεά - gift
• δῶρον - gift made sacrificially, offering
The adverb in English gratuitously is defined as
being without apparent reason, cause, or ...
ἐκ τῶν νεκρῶν is genitive, masculine plural.
So, no, it is does not refer to the singular, female person called Mary.
It refers to the plural dead from among whom Jesus was raised, as it is written :
thou shalt not leave my soul in hades . . . Psalm 16:10 KJV
Daniel B Wallace states in p371 of 'Beyond the Basics' that :
In general ἐκ has the force of ...
I argue for scribal text.
Josephus wrote that it was generally considered "common" (lowly, base, vulgar) for a Jew to learn or speak Greek, or any other Gentile language. Even for servants (slaves) of Jews to speak Gentile languages was discouraged:
Antiquities of the Jews, Volume 20, Chapter 11
I have also taken a great deal of pains to obtain ...
The operative verb referenced by the OP in the Lord's prayer is ἐλθέτω from the root verb ἔρχομαι. The form ἐλθέτω is Aorist Imperative Active - 3rd Person Singular. Strictly, this might be translated something like:
Let the kingdom of God come [as a command]
Note that this verb is neither perfect (ie, has a completed aspect) nor is it future (ie, your ...
Very few know that the vers also could be read; “Defiled among women”.
These are they which were not defiled with women; for they are
virgins. These are they which follow the Lamb whithersoever he goeth.
These were redeemed from among men, being the firstfruits unto God and
to the Lamb. (Rev 14:4 - KJV)
ουτοι εισιν οι μετα γυναικων ουκ εμολυνθησαν παρθενοι ...
The commenter above failed to show how the virgins are literally following a literal lamb.
Plus how do women defile men by having sex according to the Old Testament?
Nowhere in the Bible speaks of it. A woman on her cycle is termed as ritually unclean in the OT, but guess what, the man is termed as ritually unclean too every time he releases sperm.
So I ask ...
The translators are not likely to have made an attempt to water down the meaning here so much as to merely translate the grammar correctly.
The Greek word used in John 2:10 is in the Greek aorist subjunctive passive form. When we say in English "he is drunk", we are using the word "drunk" as an adjective, not as a verb, and it is clearly ...
What's throwing you is the brevity of wording and the use of the subjunctive, the latter of which is increasingly rare in contemporary English.
If it were a simple statement it would just be 'thy kingdom comes', and here we're praying 'We pray that thy kingdom comes'. But that would jar in the ear of an English speaker before the 20th century because the ...
The verb here is Ἐλθέτω (elthetō), meaning "to come", and it is in the imperative form (think "commanding" something). Other ways to render this in English would be statements such as "let it come", "may it come", or, if we wanted to apply the seldom used English subjunctive to capture some nuance, my translation ...
The two verbs are slightly different in meaning:
τελειόω (John 19:28b) to complete an activity, complete, bring to an end, finish, accomplish, eg, John 4:34, 17:4, 5:36, Acts 20:24, Luke 2:43, 13:32, John 19:28, Heb 7:19, 11:40. [BDAG's second and third meaning are not germane here.] Thus, Jesus was suggesting that another prophecy of Scripture need to be ...
According to the respected BDAG, the word σάββατον (sabbaton) has exactly two meanings:
the seventh day of the week in Israel's calendar, marked by rest from work and by special religious ceremonies, sabbath, eg, Matt 12:8, Mark 2:27, 6:2, 15:42, 16:1, Luke 6:5, 23, 54, etc.
a period of seven days, week, eg, Matt 28:1, Mark 16:2, Luke 24;1, John 20:1, 19, ...
2087 héteros – another (of a different kind). 2087 /héteros ("another but distinct in kind") stands in contrast to 243 /állos ("another of the same kind"). 2087 /héteros ("another of a different quality") emphasizes it is qualitatively different from its counterpart (comparison).
English Standard Version 1 ...
There is a textual matter in the verse.
πατερ αγιε τηρησον αυτους εν τω ονοματι σου ους δεδωκας μοι
[TR - Beza, Stephanus, Elzevir and Scrivener all identical]
Textus Receptus Bibles
The Textus Receptus (and therefore the KJV translation follows it) has ous (masculine plural - 'whom') whilst the W&H/Nestle Aland text, has ho (neuter singular - 'which')...
The text of John 17:11 has two forms in the second half of the verse. Here is my translation of each form:
1. NA28, UBS5, W&H (incl NWT), Byzantine, Majority, Orthodox, etc
Πάτερ ἅγιε, τήρησον αὐτοὺς ἐν τῷ ὀνόματί σου ᾧ δέδωκάς μοι, ἵνα ὦσιν ἓν καθὼς ἡμεῖς. = Holy Father, keep them in the Name of You which (ᾧ) you have given
Me that they may be one ...
There is no way to interpret Colossians except by bringing in the theology of death, resurrection, and the role of Christ, otherwise the claims made in Colossians about the godhead of Christ will seem too fantastical.
The Death and the Promise
Through Adam, sin and thus death entered the world ("thou shalt surely die"), and Adam's offspring were ...
It is translated rightly in the versions here as "in vain" and "for nothing". The point in Gal 2:21 is that if righteousness still comes from the law then Christ died in vain. It is a deductive argument like 3:3 or 3:21, since they received the spirit by faith apart from the law, therefore it proves that righteousness does not and cannot ...
Obviously there is no specific translation which is why there are several options rendered.
The word is used for water flowing freely with no restraint Rev 21:6, 22:17. Water flowing without producing anything is pointless - it should do some work to make the flow useful.
If Christ died for no reason, then it has produced nothing, no gain.
They hated me for ...
I can't address the technicalities of the Greek verb conjugations, but I doubt Jesus spoke Greek on the Cross, whatever John subsequently wrote -- rather Aramaic, or possibly Hebrew.
However, the "all" or "everything" was certainly Jesus' personal life-purpose, to wit his setting aside pre-existing divinity to become born naturally as an ...
You asked ...”Was scripture incomplete, but "all" was complete?”. Fortunately the Bible gives a full list of what needs to happen in order for ‘all’ to be completed/finished.....
DANIEL 9:24 Seventy ‘sevens’ are decreed for your people and your holy city to finish transgression, to put an end to sin, to atone for wickedness, to bring in everlasting ...
Here is the meaning of the word they used for Judas's destruction.
Cognate: 684 apṓleia (from 622 /apóllymi, "cut off") – destruction, causing someone (something) to be completely severed – cut off (entirely) from what could or should have been. (Note the force of the prefix, apo.) See 622 (apollymi).
684 /apṓleia ("perdition") ...
There are a few references to Judas being finally lost as per the following:
John 6:70 - Jesus answered them, “Have I not chosen you, the Twelve? Yet one of you is a devil!”
Matt 26:23-25 - Jesus answered, “The one who has dipped his hand into the bowl with Me will betray Me. The Son of Man will go just as it is written about Him, but woe to that man by ...
I won't rehash the Greek imperatives other than to say 3rd person imperatives in Greek are more like a request while 2nd person imperatives are commands.
Dealing what Jesus might have spoken, looking at the Peshitta and Hebrew translations, there is too much variation to say what is possible, other than Jesus would have used the imperfect tense with a ...
New International Version
and said, “Everyone brings out the choice wine first and then the cheaper wine after the guests have had too much to drink [G3184]; but you have saved the best till now.”
G3184 is ambigious. NASB Translation:
drunk (3), drunk freely (1), drunkards (1), get drunk (1), made drunk (1).
There is another related Greek word ...
One can drink alcohol without becoming drunk. Only those who drink too much alcohol pass from the biblical state of thanking God for "wine that makes glad the heart of man" (Psalm 104:15) to being drunk. That Psalm of praise details why we should bless the Lord our God. In the list of things we thank God for is "oil to make [our] face to ...
It does not make sense that a dog simply means "unclean" in this verse. From my Complete Jewish Bible (CJB), Revelations 22:15 says "outside are the homosexuals".
Homosexuals and those involved with the
and everyone who practices falsehood
1 Corinthians 6:9-10 says
The footnote appended by NET Bible to John 15:12 may help:
1sn Now the reference to the commandments (plural) in
15:10 have been reduced to a singular commandment: The
disciples are to love one another, just as Jesus has loved them. This
is the ‘new commandment’ of John 13:34, and it is repeated in
15:17. The disciples’ love for one another is compared to ...
According to the enumeration of the feast days, festivals and holy convocations in Leviticus 23, only the Sabbath of the Week and the Sabbath of the Year (Yom Kippur) are called by the compound nouns in Hebrew Shabbat Shabbathown or “Sabbath of Sabbaths”. No other festival day or holy convocation is called sabbath, a sabbath or the sabbath. Only the Sabbath ...
The basic meaning of "justify" is to "declare righteous". A classic example of that is found in Deuteronomy 25:1, where KJV writes
If there be a controversy between men, and they come unto judgment, that the judges may judge them; then they shall justify the righteous, and condemn the wicked.
and NASB has it with different words