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In John 1:11 the word 'receive' is applied collectively, to a group of people "who received him not" - His own people (Israel). The next verse uses the word 'receive' individually - to each individual who did receive him. However, it was receiving by faith that was involved (which is why those people in verse 11 did not receive Jesus - they had no ...


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As revealed in the comments below your question, you seem to have a mistaken impression of "θεος". This word is simply a countable noun that can be used as a title just like the word "king". Just like the king of Israel could be called "the king" by the Israelites, without implying that he is "the one true king" (the ...


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James qualified the testing with κακῶν (with evil). In English we say tempted rather than tested with evil. Thus, κακῶν qualifies the meaning of πειράζω in this passage. Usually context makes this determination, but here James is very clear. In John 6:6 Jesus wasn't testing Philip with evil. In that respect Jesus tested Philip with good. As stated, Jesus ...


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If the Word was God, and the Word was the Son, can we conclude that the Son is God? That's what John wanted you to conclude. That's John's logic. However, this logic is not supported by any mathematically formal system. The question assumes that you can do the following: the Word was God ⇔ W=G There is no general formal system that allows you to replace the ...


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Balaam's view of the children of Israel encamped by tribe, each tribe around its banner, stands at odds with an observance of the Sukkot festival (feast of tabernacles). What Balaam Saw And Balaam lifted up his eyes, and he saw Israel abiding in his tents according to their tribes; and the spirit of God came upon him. (Numbers 24:2, KJV) The feast of ...


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Genesis, or begetting (gennao) is a matter of a separate entity having come in to the world, starting to live independently. The natural, physical process is shown in John 16:21: "When a woman delivers (tikto) grief she has; but when she begets (gennao) the child, no longer remembers she the tribulation" (EGNT). After the pangs and the travail, the ...


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Yes, transitive logic does work here because because John was logical and consistent in his description of who Jesus was. You just have to make sure you understand the Greek vocabulary and grammar. O θεός is not the same as θεός. All the scholars I have read agree on this including Henry Alford in "Commentary on John 1". Greek Testament Critical ...


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https://biblehub.com/hebrew/6445.htm Strong’s Exhaustive Concordance says of the form, מְפַנֵּ֣ק מפנק mə·p̄an·nêq mefanNek məp̄annêq bring up - A primitive root; to enervate - bring up. Upbringing with a purpose would be done by a master with an eye to the future of a child servant. Perhaps an orphan who (in Roman times) could be adopted into the master’...


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John 1:12-13: But to all who did receive him, who believed in his name, he gave the right to become children of God, who were born, not of blood nor of the will of the flesh nor of the will of man, but of God. did receive ἔλαβον (elabon) Verb - Aorist Indicative Active - 3rd Person Plural Strong's 2983: (a) I receive, get, (b) I take, lay hold of. The ...


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John 6: 5 When Jesus looked up and saw a great crowd coming toward him, he said to Philip, “Where shall we buy bread for these people to eat?” 6He asked this only to test him, for he already had in mind what he was going to do. The Greek word peirazō is ambiguous, HELPS Word-studies: 3985 peirázō (from 3984 /peíra, "test, trial") – "...


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Isaiah 53: 4 Surely he took up our pain and bore our suffering, yet we considered him punished by God, stricken by him, and afflicted. But what about the word "our" in verse 4? Isaiah was speaking to the people of Israel, right? Right, that's the narrow local context. Let's see the broader context, Isaiah 53:l 1 Who has believed our message and ...


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With regard to 'in', Professor J.H. Moulton gives a list of the cases governing the prepositions, and says: "If en represents unity, the order of the frequency of the other Prepositions work out thus; eis, .64; ek, .34; epi, .32; pros, .25; dia, .24; apo, .24; kata, .17;" [and so on] (Grammar of N.T. Greek, p98) Now I quote from a different ...


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The answer to this question is actually in 1 John 2:15 but before dealing with that let me set out what we are discussing in 1 John 4:8 The one not loving has not known God, because God is love. Note that here we have both the noun and verb cognate forms of love: ἀγαπάω (agapaó) - verb meaning "I love, wish well to, take pleasure in, long for; ...


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ESV Luke 22: 22 For the Son of Man goes as it has been determined, but woe to that man by whom he is betrayed!". as κατὰ (kata) Preposition Strong's 2596: A primary particle; down, in varied relations (genitive, dative or accusative) with which it is joined). it has been determined, ὡρισμένον (hōrismenon) Verb - Perfect Participle Middle or Passive - ...


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The phrase in both Acts 2:17 and John 17:2 is identical except for the word order, which makes no difference here. πάσης σαρκός (pases sarkos) = all flesh. The matter at hand is to decide what πᾶς (pass) = "all" includes, as the maning in the Greek is rarely universal but actually means, "all" in the implied class of objects, see BDAG. ...


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What does "receive" mean in John 1:12? "But to all who did receive him, who believed in his name, he gave the right to become children of God, who were born, not of blood nor of the will of the flesh nor of the will of man, but of God." John 1:12-13 ESV A. "Received" John 1:11-12 NASB 11 He came to His [a]own, and His own ...


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First-born – πρωτότοκον – implies that others are to follow. The significance of “firstborn” has its roots in the Old Testament. Being the firstborn son carried prestige, honor, privilege, blessing, authority, preeminence, and double portion inheritance. Being the firstborn was also a matter of consecration to God, Exodus 13:3,11-16. “First-born” defines the ...


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The concept of ‘firstborn’ is a crucial one. And an understanding of this concept is important. You are asking about a natural aspect of ‘firstborn’, but what’s needed is the conceptual understanding. Biblically, the firstborn is not so much a chronological term - although it does include this, rather it is a spiritual feature. Namely, that whatever is first,...


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Can "firstborn" really have nothing to do with chronology? Answer: It depends. First, we must understand that, outside of Christ, we are all spiritually dead. This is a very interesting question because, as noted by other contributors (quite extensively), the term "firstborn" represents many, varied aspects in the Old Testament. However, ...


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The word μονογενὴς whether it's with θεὸς, υἱός, or by itself (see text commentary at end) refers to the Son, not the Father. Where that is obvious is among the textual critics. The textual critics on the committee for the NA28 decides based on objective textual evidence, as seen in the commentary at the end. However, some textual critics who claim to ...


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The text of 2 Peter 1:3 is divided (see UBS5/NA28 for details) between the readings UBS5/NA28: ἰδίᾳ δόξῃ καὶ ἀρετῇ = to/by His own glory and excellence W&H, Byzantine, Orthodox, TR: διὰ δόξης καὶ ἀρετῆς = via/by His own glory and excellence The textual evidence is not conclusive as UBS5 regards their chosen reading as {B} = confident but not certain. ...


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He has called us "by" or "to" his own glory in 2 Peter 1:3? The difference is due to manuscript variations. Cambridge: Some MSS. give the simple dative of the instrument (ἰδίᾳ δόξῃ), and others the preposition with the genitive (διὰ δόξης). At https://biblehub.com/2_peter/1-3.htm, 18 versions use "by" and only 3 use "to&...


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Genesis 15: 3 And Abram said, “You have given me no children; so a servant in my household will be my heir.” The Hebrew word for "heir" is H3423 (Yoresh). LXX uses G2818 (klēronómos) which is the same Greek word used in Hebrews 1: 2 but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, and through whom also ...


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The proposition κατὰ changes its meaning depending on what follows. In Luke 22:22 we have κατὰ τὸ ὡρισμένον. That is, both τὸ and ὡρισμένον are accusative. Thus, according to BDAG, the meaning of κατὰ is: 5. marker of norm of similarity or homogeneity, according to, in accordance with, in conformity with, eg, Luke 2:22, 39, John 18:31, 19:7, Heb 7:5, in ...


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The prologue identifies the Son as God in v. 18, just as it identifies the Word as God in v. 1. The prologue was not talking about two separate Gods here, one who is the Word and one who is the Son. The Word in verse 1 is the selfsame Word who was incarnated in verse 14 and was subsequently re-affirmed as God in verse 18. The pre-incarnate Word was God (John ...


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The question is really asking if Jesus is the word / logos / God? I will not repeat what has already been said in some detailed answers already. It would not be reasonable to interpret Jesus as the word/logos. John did not write Jesus otherwise it would read; "and Jesus was with God and Jesus was God." – this defies logic. The Greek term Logos' is ...


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If the Word was God, and the Word was the Son, can we conclude that the Son is God? By the wording of the question, the OP is of the assumption that John 1:1c's Greek word ordering in English is:- ...and the Word was God... When in actual fact the word order is:- ...and God was the Word... One only has to look at the ...


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If John believed that Jesus is the Creator God like what others infer from reading John 1:1-3 then that belief is not consistent with what John says in John 20:33 which says, but these are written, that ye may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye may have life in his name. John says Jesus in the Christ, the Son of God. Let ...


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If the Word was God, and the Word was the Son, can we conclude that the Son is God? Traditional theology presents this proposal as fact. If we read the bible carefully, we find it does not work. Fortunately, the logic and clarity of the scriptures need no additional imagination and we can show this premise to be false from the bible without making anything ...


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Overview Purpose The Greek word that is translated as “God” or as "god" is theos (Θεός Strong number 2315). This Greek word has survived in English words such as "theology" and "theism." Of the 1314 times that theos is found in the New Testament, there are about seven instances where Jesus is referred to as theos. There are ...


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