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11 votes

Should we put God to test or not?

The two scriptures (Deut. 6:16 and Malachi 3:10) should be read differently because the original Hebrew words for "test" are different in the two verses. In the King James version, the words ...
Thomas Gray's user avatar
10 votes
Accepted

Concerning the "breastplate".what is the authors intent? Book of Revelation

This answer will serve to substantiate from the Greek text the impression of one commenter: Καὶ οὕτως εἶδον τοὺς ἵππους ἐν τῇ ὁράσει καὶ τοὺς καθημένους ἐπ᾿ αὐτῶν, ἔχοντας θώρακας πυρίνους καὶ ...
Susan's user avatar
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8 votes

Interpreting "psyche" as "soul"?

SOUL, WHAT IS IT? When reading the scriptures , the Hebrew word "ne'phesh" and the Greek word " phy'khe" meaning " Soul", we notice that it is basically used to refer to &...
Ozzie  Ozzie's user avatar
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8 votes

Should we put God to test or not?

Do not try the LORD your God, as you did at Massah. (Deut. 6:16, JPS) לֹ֣א תְנַסּ֔וּ אֶת־יְהוָ֖ה אֱלֹהֵיכֶ֑ם כַּאֲשֶׁ֥ר נִסִּיתֶ֖ם בַּמַּסָּֽה׃ (Deut. 6:16, BHS) Bring the full tithe into the ...
Perry Webb's user avatar
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7 votes

Does "they neither marry nor are given in marriage" refer to the act of getting married, or the state of being married?

"They neither marry nor are given in marriage" clearly refers to the act of being married. "Marry" and "given" are both verbs(i.e. words used to describe an action, state,...
Rajesh's user avatar
  • 1,870
6 votes

Did Matthew intend “evil” or “the evil one” in the Lord’s Prayer?

The tradition that has come down through the Eastern Church is to interpret ἀπὸ τοῦ πονηροῦ as "the evil one". That is how the Lord's Prayer appears in every (Eastern) Orthodox Prayer Book and ...
user33515's user avatar
  • 12.3k
6 votes
Accepted

Onesimus was a brother in the flesh of Philemon?

This short little letter, delivered by former runaway slave Onesimus to his master, Philemon, shows relational problems between the slave and his master, then how the slave began to relate to Paul (...
Anne's user avatar
  • 23.7k
6 votes

In Romans, does Paul vary how he identifies "the Gospel" in a way which also identifies "His Son" and "the Christ" as God?

In the words of a famous song, "This land is your land, this land is my land ..." However, that does not make you equivalent to me. It is true that Paul speaks of one faith and Gospel, etc -...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 105k
5 votes

What does Paul mean by "sound doctrine" in Titus 2:1

Paul's letter to Titus is fairly clear end-to-end that its main concern is the behaviour and lifestyle of believers. The surrounding passage makes it clear that 'sound doctrine' or 'healthy teaching' ...
Steve can help's user avatar
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5 votes

What words existed in Greek to express the concept "eternal"?

(I'm not writing these words in Greek, which can be read by people who don't read Greek) aion and aionios are for a period with a beginning and an end. They never denoted unending. Josephus reports ...
Lifeboy's user avatar
  • 150
5 votes

Does Ephesians 5:3 mean that if a person fall into sins "sexual" or "covetous" he/she should not confess it to anyone in the Church?

The above text should really be taken in conjunction with the context which follows in verse 12 of Ephesians 5, namely : ... it is a shame even to speak of those things which are done of them in ...
Nigel J's user avatar
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5 votes
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Does Ephesians 5:3 mean that if a person fall into sins "sexual" or "covetous" he/she should not confess it to anyone in the Church?

The word that the ESV is translating as named is ὀνομαζέσθω (onomazesthō), a passive form of ὀνομάζω (onomazō). In the passive voice, onomazō can mean to be known or be heard of.* An example of ...
user33515's user avatar
  • 12.3k
5 votes
Accepted

What does Revelation 14:11 mean by "they have no rest, day or night"?

'If any man worship the beast' ... 'he shall be tormented in fire and brimstone' ... 'before the holy angels and before the Lamb' ... 'And the smoke of their torment ascends up to ages of ages' ... '...
Nigel J's user avatar
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5 votes

According to Romans 1:3-4, did the resurrection "make" the Son of God or "declare" the Son of God?

The answer to this question about when Jesus was declared the "Son of God" can be determined from just two considerations. 1. Grammar of Rom 1:4 The verb ὁρισθέντος = "having declared&...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 105k
5 votes

What does Jesus mean by "hot", "cold" and "lukewarm" in Revelation 3:16?

The Laodiceans did not have a fresh water supply. They built an aqueduct to bring the cold water down from the mountains, but by the time it got to Laodicea the water was lukewarm, and very ...
Gina's user avatar
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5 votes
Accepted

Can the elect in view in Matthew 24:24 be deceived or not?

A few things seem so solidly stated in scripture as to be safe to base an answer on. (1) The text in question has "if possible", and there's no getting away from that. (2) Other scripture ...
Anne's user avatar
  • 23.7k
4 votes

In Hebrews 1:3, to which "purification for sins" does the verse refer?

He refers to the purification of sins later discussed in Hebrews chapters 9 and 10, which is the purification of all believers' sins. Textual Issue As to whose sins is being cleansed, that is only a ...
ScottS's user avatar
  • 20.1k
4 votes

Luke 16:19-31 Lazarus and the rich man - literal, allegorical or a mixture of both?

The purpose of this parable is not to convey factual information about Heaven, Hell, or Abraham's bosom. Rather the purpose of this parable of the conscience is to awaken an awareness of the ...
user34445's user avatar
  • 642
4 votes

Luke 16:19-31 Lazarus and the rich man - literal, allegorical or a mixture of both?

Positive Argument (Negative arguments in a separate post for readability) The setting of the parable This question is insightful because "Is the parable of the rich man and Lazarus a true story&...
Hold To The Rod's user avatar
4 votes
Accepted

Is Revelation 19:16 " A slip of the pen" , or worded this way for another reason?

Interesting question! Slater, in the journal article 'King of Kings and Lord of Lords' Revisted, in New Testament Studies 1993 39:159f argues that the origin of the phrase is the Septuagint of Daniel....
Graham Rutter's user avatar
4 votes

In 1 Corinthians 10:9 why does Paul say that the Israelites "tested Christ"?

The answer, I believe, is contained in the verse itself. The verse does not refer to Moses, but to God. There may be a little confusion in that some manuscripts read "Christ", some read &...
user33515's user avatar
  • 12.3k
4 votes

Why did Moses use the hebrew word "Miqveh"(meaning hope) to describe the gathering together of the waters in Genesis 1:10

מִקְוֶה is a homograph - it has two different, distinct meanings. Genensius' Hebrew-Chaldee Lexicon to the Old Testament explains: מִקְוֶה (from the root קָוָה), [once מִקְוֵח, once מִקְוֵא כ׳]. (1) ...
user33515's user avatar
  • 12.3k
4 votes

What's Paul's interpretation of "In Isaac shall thy seed be called"

Paul is arguing that "fleshly" descent from Abraham does not in itself make one of Israel. Not only, however, does this apply to Christians, but even to the Jews themselves. Normally we ...
user33515's user avatar
  • 12.3k
4 votes

Could Jesus actually have risen from the dead on the fourth day, instead on the third day?

The English versions are correct in translating "on the third day." To take Matthew 16.21 as an example, this is the relevant section in the Greek. καὶ τῇ τρίτῃ ἡμέρᾳ ἐγερθῆναι [Jesus began to ...
Peter Kirkpatrick's user avatar
4 votes

What is the difference between "putting on Christ" in Galatians 3:27 and "becoming God's righteousness" in 2 Corinthians 5:21?

In response to the further request, to make more contrasts between the terms asked about, I would offer the following, but I desperately do NOT want to be appointed any 'points' because I have no ...
Anne's user avatar
  • 23.7k

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