Paul is very likely using a metaphor here. The word "rich" is often used in scripture without referring to earthly "wealth."
Consider Christ's divinity. Prior to coming to Earth, he was godly, with power and majesty ("though he was rich"). He came to Earth as the Son of God to a family in humble circumstances ("yet for your ...
In John 17:19, the Greek word (correctly) translated "sanctify" is ἁγιάζω (hagiazó). BDAG defines this word as primarily to, "set aside something, or make it suitable for ritual purpose, consecrate, dedicate".
Thus, Jesus was simply saying that He was dedicating Himself to the task that lay ahead of Him - His high priestly ministry and kingly duties on our ...
When was Jesus rich (2 Cor. 8:9)?
Answer: It is unlikely Jesus was ever wealthy.
There was probably never a time that Jesus had any earthly wealth. In fact, if anything, He relates His circumstances during His ministry:
Matthew 8:20: Jesus said to him, "The foxes have holes and the birds of the air have nests, but the Son of Man has nowhere to lay His ...
There are a couple of different ways to answer your first question. I will attempt an answer from a linguistics perspective, specifically with regards to the lexical aspect of the verb in question.
The dominant perspective on lexical aspect of verb tenses for the last few decades has been Actionsart. This deals with how the verb interacts with time. ...
No, He Used it in Context
Paul appears to be citing, not Dt 17:6, but Dt 19:15, which more generally relates to any sin (all Scripture quotes NKJV; emphasis added):
One witness shall not rise against a man concerning any iniquity or
any sin that he commits; by the mouth of two or three witnesses the
matter shall be established.
Your belief is ...
Good Q. There is a deep meaning to this that takes some time to realise - a lifetime! It's expressed through Rom 6:11.
Even so consider yourselves to be dead to sin, but alive to God in
While we have been included in Christ's ascended life, made 'alive' in a whole new way, we must continue to plumb the depths of how we have died.
Sin had hold ...
At what exact moment did Jesus give up His "wealth?"
Answer: It depends on how we interpret 2 Corinthians 8:9 as suggested in the OP.
I. Was this at his birth? Well, we might be even more specific: "Was this at His conception?" We should recognize that Christ was unfathomably wealthy as the Creator of the universe. Hebrews 10:5 may help ...
The simple answer to the question is: we don't know specifically. So what do we know?
He refers to it as an "weakness" or infirmity, as you have it. It's the word astheneia in Greek. The same word is used in both places in 12:9. This "thorn in the flesh" is probably not a reference to the idea of the flesh as the sinful nature, but more likely something ...
τὸν μὴ γνόντα ἁμαρτίαν ὑπὲρ ἡμῶν ἁμαρτίαν ἐποίησεν....1
"For he caused him who knew nothing of sin to be sin for us...."
The preceding vv. 18-20 make it clear that 'he' is θεός (God), and 'him who knew nothing of sin' in this context is Χριστός (Christ). The presence of the article (τὸν) with the participle γνόντα indicates that it functions as a ...
The verse in question comes in a passage comparing and contrasting Law versus Spirit and the glory from such. So the immediate context of 2 Cor 3:18 is vv.4-18, here in the NKJV:
4 And we have such trust through Christ toward God. 5 Not that we are sufficient of ourselves to think of anything as being from ourselves, but our sufficiency is from God, 6 who ...
Can "ὑπὲρ ἡμῶν ἁμαρτίαν" be translated as "because of our sin"?
No. The Greek language uses noun cases (here nominative, accusative, and genitive) to keep track of each word's role in the sentence. Although it may appear to be viable in English, the proposed translation is disallowed by the case markings of the Greek text. The preposition ὑπὲρ with the ...
This does not seem plausible given the assumptions in the theory. It appears that the Corinthians were quite eager to vindicate themselves. This theory appears to be making the assumption that the letter(s) of 2 Corinthians is/are largely in response to 1 Corinthians (which is a possibility).
A few observations
1 Corinthians isn't actually the first letter(...
2 Cor 8:9 says this:
For you know the grace of our Lord Jesus Christ, that though He was
rich, yet for your sakes He became poor, so that you through His
poverty might become rich.
There are several things to notice about this "divine exchange":
It was Christ's poverty that was the key to our salvation
Christ's poverty was gained at the expense ...
The word Grace or χάρις (Charis) in Greek was in use for several hundred years before the authorship of 2nd Corinthians in both secular and Jewish writings prior to the coming of Christ and the authorship of the Epistles. As such χάρις (Charis) as it was used in 2nd Corinthians 12:9 would have been absolutely familiar to a native Greek speaker ...
Jesus was the poorest of the poor when he cried upon the cross as he had nothing left, including his only clothes.
At the ninth hour, Jesus cried out in a loud voice, “Eloi, Eloi, lema sabachthani?” which means, “My God, My God, why have You forsaken Me?”
Psalm22: 14 through 18 speaks volumes.
14As waters I have been poured out, And separated themselves ...
In response to the further request, to make more contrasts between the terms asked about, I would offer the following, but I desperately do NOT want to be appointed any 'points' because I have no interest in accruing such a non-existent idea! There is scope to say a bit more about justification, and that is all I wish to do. This is to supplement Mac's ...
It is likely that the author has in mind Numbers 16:22 and 27:16 wherein Yahveh is referred to by the title אֱלֹהֵי הָרוּחֹת לְכָל־בָּשָׂר (elohei ha-ruchot lekol-basar)—“the God of the spirits of all flesh.” Hence, “the father of spirits” would be Yahveh.
As both Father and Son are Yahveh,1 the “father of spirits” would be the Father and Son [and Holy ...
There is no text missing from the NRSV.
It is simply a slightly different verse numbering. The NRSV text reads:
12 Greet one another with a holy kiss. All the saints greet you. 13 The grace of the Lord Jesus Christ, the love of God, and the communion of the Holy Spirit be with all of you.
The NIV, by comparison, reads:
12 Greet one another with a holy ...
"That you, by his poverty, might become rich"
The clue is in the words, "that you, by his poverty, might become rich." By what kind of poverty of Jesus were Christians made rich? By His physical poorness were we made millioniares? No, rather, by His poorness of spirit — His humility — (Matthew 5:3) we were made rich in spirit:
I propose that "the letter of the law" is meant to indicate any [finite] approximation of Law, whereas "the spirit of the law" is meant to indicate Law itself—how things actually work, down to the smallest detail. We read in Romans 10:4,
For Christ is the telos of the law for righteousness to everyone who believes.
The translations of telos are several; ...
Paul is actually defending himself here in this second letter to the Corinthians. In this passage when he says "us" he is meaning the people that he has been ministering to as well as the Corinthians, but when he gets to that last line So then, death is at work in us, but life is at work in you, he is telling them, almost forcefully, that they are not alone ...
This translation decision stems from (1) the semantics of ἐνδημεῖν ("to take up residence"), and (2) the conflation of prepositions in Koine Greek.
The term ἐνδημεῖν ("to take up residence"), or, as it appears in our text as an (ingressive) aorist ἐνδημῆσαι contains no notion of movement or direction. BDAG:
to be in a familiar place, to be at home
First, the subtle paradox is to be recognized in the words, "image of the invisible [i.e. not having a visible element] God." Immediately one considers that something else is meant by 'image.' A representation or display for sure, but not merely visual. An intimation of what God is, but not visibly.. but rather personally.
I'm reminded of a passage in ...
I am assuming for the purpose of the forum that your question is does this translation of 2 Cor 5:10 fit what is found in the original Greek:
ONE ( tous) for all of us appeared before the judgment seat as neccesary THE christ that provided for all ( everyone) for the sake of the body( believers) For all deeds habitually done Wether good or evil.
In the "scholarly" theological literature (which need not delay us here) there is much debate about whether Paul as "unitarian", "binitarian", or, "trinitarian". There is a huge amount of evidence for all three positions and so this cannot decided on the basis of a single text.
This age-old problem will not be ...
What is it we are afraid of?
I find Jesus' answer quite effective:
And fear not them which kill the body, but are not able to kill the
soul: but rather fear him which is able to destroy both soul and body
in hell. (Matthew 10:28)
Let's look at 3 types of fear:
Fear of man - this could include worrying about bad things humans can do to you (I get why ...
About the ABBA structure
As in several other places in 2 Corinthians, Paul utilizes a chiastic structure. We see the simplest form (ABBA) in 2 Cor 2:15-16:
A those who are being saved
B those who are perishing
B death to death
A life to life
From the Sacra Pagina: Second Corinthians commentary by Jan Lambrecht, SJ (emphasis mine):
In view of "...