9

There are a couple of different ways to answer your first question. I will attempt an answer from a linguistics perspective, specifically with regards to the lexical aspect of the verb in question. The dominant perspective on lexical aspect of verb tenses for the last few decades has been Actionsart. This deals with how the verb interacts with time. ...


8

The simple answer to the question is: we don't know specifically. So what do we know? He refers to it as an "weakness" or infirmity, as you have it. It's the word astheneia in Greek. The same word is used in both places in 12:9. This "thorn in the flesh" is probably not a reference to the idea of the flesh as the sinful nature, but more likely something ...


8

No, He Used it in Context Paul appears to be citing, not Dt 17:6, but Dt 19:15, which more generally relates to any sin (all Scripture quotes NKJV; emphasis added): One witness shall not rise against a man concerning any iniquity or any sin that he commits; by the mouth of two or three witnesses the matter shall be established. Your belief is ...


8

The verse in question comes in a passage comparing and contrasting Law versus Spirit and the glory from such. So the immediate context of 2 Cor 3:18 is vv.4-18, here in the NKJV: 4 And we have such trust through Christ toward God. 5 Not that we are sufficient of ourselves to think of anything as being from ourselves, but our sufficiency is from God, 6 who ...


8

Can "ὑπὲρ ἡμῶν ἁμαρτίαν" be translated as "because of our sin"? No. The Greek language uses noun cases (here nominative, accusative, and genitive) to keep track of each word's role in the sentence. Although it may appear to be viable in English, the proposed translation is disallowed by the case markings of the Greek text. The preposition ὑπὲρ with the ...


8

In John 17:19, the Greek word (correctly) translated "sanctify" is ἁγιάζω (hagiazó). BDAG defines this word as primarily to, "set aside something, or make it suitable for ritual purpose, consecrate, dedicate". Thus, Jesus was simply saying that He was dedicating Himself to the task that lay ahead of Him - His high priestly ministry and kingly duties on our ...


6

τὸν μὴ γνόντα ἁμαρτίαν ὑπὲρ ἡμῶν ἁμαρτίαν ἐποίησεν....1 "For he caused him who knew nothing of sin to be sin for us...." The preceding vv. 18-20 make it clear that 'he' is θεός (God), and 'him who knew nothing of sin' in this context is Χριστός (Christ). The presence of the article (τὸν) with the participle γνόντα indicates that it functions as a ...


6

This does not seem plausible given the assumptions in the theory. It appears that the Corinthians were quite eager to vindicate themselves. This theory appears to be making the assumption that the letter(s) of 2 Corinthians is/are largely in response to 1 Corinthians (which is a possibility). A few observations 1 Corinthians isn't actually the first letter(...


6

I have not found any commentators who directly mention that the Corinthians rejected Paul's recommendations or teaching, rather only that they rejected his style. Colin Kruse in the Tyndale NT Commentaries says: In this central section of the letter Paul appeals to the Corinthians to be reconciled to God and open their hearts to their apostle. He clears ...


6

καταλλάγητε is the 2nd plural aorist passive imperative of καταλλάσσω. Breaking this down, 2nd plural is you (all) "y'all." Passive makes the subject of the verb the recipient of the action. Imperatives are commands and aorist imperatives generally indicate a command to start something. So what would "we reconcile them" look like? καταλλάσoμεν αὐτοῦς. ...


5

Here is the Greek phrase in question: δι' (through) ἐσόπτρου (a mirror) ἐν (in) αἰνίγματι (obscurity) When we look this it seems to lend to the idea of a glass window that has an opaque view, but the actual meaning of ἐσόπτρου seems to be a mirror as shown in the other occurrence of this word by James, who says: Anyone who listens to the word but does ...


5

Introduction The word Grace or χάρις (Charis) in Greek was in use for several hundred years before the authorship of 2nd Corinthians in both secular and Jewish writings prior to the coming of Christ and the authorship of the Epistles. As such χάρις (Charis) as it was used in 2nd Corinthians 12:9 would have been absolutely familiar to a native Greek speaker ...


4

I propose that "the letter of the law" is meant to indicate any [finite] approximation of Law, whereas "the spirit of the law" is meant to indicate Law itself—how things actually work, down to the smallest detail. We read in Romans 10:4, For Christ is the telos of the law for righteousness to everyone who believes. The translations of telos are several; ...


4

This translation decision stems from (1) the semantics of ἐνδημεῖν ("to take up residence"), and (2) the conflation of prepositions in Koine Greek. The term ἐνδημεῖν ("to take up residence"), or, as it appears in our text as an (ingressive) aorist ἐνδημῆσαι contains no notion of movement or direction. BDAG: to be in a familiar place, to be at home It's ...


4

First, the subtle paradox is to be recognized in the words, "image of the invisible [i.e. not having a visible element] God." Immediately one considers that something else is meant by 'image.' A representation or display for sure, but not merely visual. An intimation of what God is, but not visibly.. but rather personally. I'm reminded of a passage in ...


4

In response to the further request, to make more contrasts between the terms asked about, I would offer the following, but I desperately do NOT want to be appointed any 'points' because I have no interest in accruing such a non-existent idea! There is scope to say a bit more about justification, and that is all I wish to do. This is to supplement Mac's ...


4

I am assuming for the purpose of the forum that your question is does this translation of 2 Cor 5:10 fit what is found in the original Greek: ONE ( tous) for all of us appeared before the judgment seat as neccesary THE christ that provided for all ( everyone) for the sake of the body( believers) For all deeds habitually done Wether good or evil. ...


4

It is likely that the author has in mind Numbers 16:22 and 27:16 wherein Yahveh is referred to by the title אֱלֹהֵי הָרוּחֹת לְכָל־בָּשָׂר (elohei ha-ruchot lekol-basar)—“the God of the spirits of all flesh.” Hence, “the father of spirits” would be Yahveh. As both Father and Son are Yahveh,1 the “father of spirits” would be the Father and Son [and Holy ...


4

Good Q. There is a deep meaning to this that takes some time to realise - a lifetime! It's expressed through Rom 6:11 Even so consider yourselves to be dead to sin, but alive to God in Christ Jesus. While we have been included in Christ's ascended life, made 'alive' in a whole new way, we must continue to plumb the depths of how we have died. Sin had ...


3

Does God really forget our sins? The Bible never says that God will "forget" out sins, rather we are told that God will not remember them. Forgetting is passive; like forgetting where you put the car keys. Forgetting is not done deliberately. However, when God declares that he will "not remember" our sins, that is active. The word "remember" (זָכַר) has ...


3

I understand this to mean that, while Jesus was (and is) perfect, He was made sin for a time for us on the cross. That is, He took the punishment that bought us peace upon Himself, so that we (who are born again) are not punished for our sins. Even more scandalous, we take on His righteousness, the righteousness of God! No wonder Grace is called Amazing!


3

The verse is referring to anything and anyone unclean. From looking at the KJV with Strong's numbers (Using E-Sword), there is not a Greek word present for "thing". The translators added that in to clarify what they thought the author meant. The verse pretty much is saying "Do not touch the unclean". It is the same with its source in Isaiah 52:11. So it ...


3

OP: Are the last two clauses predicate or attributive adjectives?.... I would take them as predicates since there are no articles before the adjectives. They are attributive. The major problem with the way you're thinking through this is that each phrase (they are not, in fact, clauses) is a prepositional phrase. Because each noun and adjective pair are ...


3

The sentence is to be taken in the general context of the totally novel significance of the New Testament as opposed to the Old: the Old Testament, the Law and the Prophets were for Paul and the New Testament authors a preparation, a foreshadowing of the New, of Christ (Col. 2:17), who, as the "New Adam - the vivifying spirit”, “the Lord from Heaven” (1 Cor. ...


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