26 votes

When was Jesus rich? 2 Corinthian 8:9

Paul is very likely using a metaphor here. The word "rich" is often used in scripture without referring to earthly "wealth." Consider Christ's divinity. Prior to coming to Earth, ...
Bryan Scott's user avatar
11 votes
Accepted

John 17:19, what is the meaning of "I sanctify myself"?

In John 17:19, the Greek word (correctly) translated "sanctify" is ἁγιάζω (hagiazó). BDAG defines this word as primarily to, "set aside something, or make it suitable for ritual purpose, consecrate, ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 101k
10 votes

When was Jesus rich? 2 Corinthian 8:9

When was Jesus rich (2 Cor. 8:9)? Answer: It is unlikely Jesus was ever wealthy. There was probably never a time that Jesus had any earthly wealth. In fact, if anything, He relates His circumstances ...
Xeno's user avatar
  • 9,198
9 votes

Did Paul take the Old Testament out of Context?

No, He Used it in Context Paul appears to be citing, not Dt 17:6, but Dt 19:15, which more generally relates to any sin (all Scripture quotes NKJV; emphasis added): One witness shall not rise ...
ScottS's user avatar
  • 20.1k
8 votes

How does a believer behold as in the mirror the glory of the Lord in 2 Corinthians 3:18?

The verse in question comes in a passage comparing and contrasting Law versus Spirit and the glory from such. So the immediate context of 2 Cor 3:18 is vv.4-18, here in the NKJV: 4 And we have such ...
ScottS's user avatar
  • 20.1k
8 votes
Accepted

At what exact moment did Jesus transition from being rich to being poor according to 2 Corinthians 8:9?

At what exact moment did Jesus give up His "wealth?" Answer: It depends on how we interpret 2 Corinthians 8:9 as suggested in the OP. I. Was this at his birth? Well, we might be even more ...
Xeno's user avatar
  • 9,198
8 votes

What does Paul mean by 'another Jesus'? 2 Cor 11:4

Paul is not saying to watch out for a person coming along claiming to be Jesus Christ, the Messiah. He is saying to watch out for false teaching ABOUT Jesus Christ, the Messiah. False teaching about ...
Anne's user avatar
  • 22.5k
7 votes
Accepted

"made Him sin for us" alternative translation

Can "ὑπὲρ ἡμῶν ἁμαρτίαν" be translated as "because of our sin"? No. The Greek language uses noun cases (here nominative, accusative, and genitive) to keep track of each word's role in the sentence. ...
Susan's user avatar
  • 26.2k
6 votes

Original meaning of the word "grace " in 2nd Corinthians 12:9

Introduction The word Grace or χάρις (Charis) in Greek was in use for several hundred years before the authorship of 2nd Corinthians in both secular and Jewish writings prior to the coming of Christ ...
James Shewey's user avatar
  • 7,701
6 votes

At what exact moment did Jesus transition from being rich to being poor according to 2 Corinthians 8:9?

2 Cor 8:9 says this: For you know the grace of our Lord Jesus Christ, that though He was rich, yet for your sakes He became poor, so that you through His poverty might become rich. There are several ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 101k
6 votes

At what exact moment did Jesus transition from being rich to being poor according to 2 Corinthians 8:9?

Jesus was the poorest of the poor when he cried upon the cross as he had nothing left, including his only clothes. At the ninth hour, Jesus cried out in a loud voice, “Eloi, Eloi, lema sabachthani?” ...
Sherrie 's user avatar
  • 3,401
6 votes

Will the righteous be judged 2 Cor 5:10 or will they not John 5:24?

All the dead will appear before the great white throne of judgment, standing there in their resurrection bodies - Revelation 20:11-15. Verse 13 states that "they were judged every man according ...
Anne's user avatar
  • 22.5k
6 votes

how can we infer/induce/deduce that ( 2 Corinthians 6:14 ) bible verse's use of "yoked"/ "bound" / "close association" does refer to marriage?

The verb in 2 Cor 6:14 is ἑτεροζυγέω (heterozugeó) is a hapex legomenon. In this verse, according to BDAG, it means: draft animals that need different kinds of yokes because they are different ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 101k
5 votes
Accepted

What is the difference in meaning between “fellowship” in 1 Corinthians 1:9 & “communion” in 2 Corinthians 13:14?

Firstly, I notice that Robert Young has translated both occasions of the Greek word as 'fellowship'. It was the chosen decision of the translators of the KJV to vary the words they used in ...
Nigel J's user avatar
  • 30.5k
5 votes
Accepted

2 Corinthians 7:1, does Spirit have filthiness (defilement)?

The question contains an implicit assumption that the word "spirit" (pneuma) is the Holy Spirit. This assumption is untrue and there are numerous cases where this is obvious such as: Rom 8:16, The ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 101k
5 votes
Accepted

Hebrews 12:9, who is "the Father of spirits", the Son or God the Father?

It is likely that the author has in mind Numbers 16:22 and 27:16 wherein Yahveh is referred to by the title אֱלֹהֵי הָרוּחֹת לְכָל־בָּשָׂר (elohei ha-ruchot lekol-basar)—“the God of the spirits of all ...
Der Übermensch's user avatar
5 votes
Accepted

Why isn't 2 Corinthians 13:14 in the NRSV?

There is no text missing from the NRSV. It is simply a slightly different verse numbering. The NRSV text reads: 12 Greet one another with a holy kiss. All the saints greet you. 13 The grace of the ...
DJClayworth's user avatar
5 votes

Was Judas capable of the kind of sadness that leads to repentance?

Let us examine the two verses in the OP's question. Matthew 27:3 Τότε ἰδὼν Ἰούδας ὁ παραδιδοὺς αὐτὸν ὅτι κατεκρίθη μεταμεληθεὶς ἔστρεψεν τὰ τριάκοντα ἀργύρια τοῖς ἀρχιερεῦσιν καὶ πρεσβυτέροις = Then ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 101k
4 votes

Why does Paul change pronouns in 2 Corinthians 4:12?

I had the same question. But as I did some research and called to mind what I have been taught about this letter, here is my understanding: The letter is addressed "from Paul an apostle ... and ...
Cora's user avatar
  • 41
4 votes

What is the correct translation of ἁμαρτίαν in 2 Corinthians 5:21? What did God make Jesus?

The verb is poeio ('made') which is a very broad concept covering both 'make' and 'do' in English. 'Effected' is, I would say, a better translation. In God's eyes, sin was accounted to Jesus Christ. ...
Nigel J's user avatar
  • 30.5k
4 votes
Accepted

authority for translation of προς as "with" in 2 Cor 5:8

This translation decision stems from (1) the semantics of ἐνδημεῖν ("to take up residence"), and (2) the conflation of prepositions in Koine Greek. The term ἐνδημεῖν ("to take up residence"), or, as ...
Susan's user avatar
  • 26.2k
4 votes
Accepted

In 2 Corinthians 4:4 why does Paul call Jesus the "image of God"?

First, the subtle paradox is to be recognized in the words, "image of the invisible [i.e. not having a visible element] God." Immediately one considers that something else is meant by 'image.' A ...
Sola Gratia's user avatar
  • 9,552
4 votes

What is the difference between "putting on Christ" in Galatians 3:27 and "becoming God's righteousness" in 2 Corinthians 5:21?

In response to the further request, to make more contrasts between the terms asked about, I would offer the following, but I desperately do NOT want to be appointed any 'points' because I have no ...
Anne's user avatar
  • 22.5k
4 votes

Why leave out tous in greek before all of us and so distort the meaning of 2 corinthians 5?

I am assuming for the purpose of the forum that your question is does this translation of 2 Cor 5:10 fit what is found in the original Greek: ONE ( tous) for all of us appeared before the ...
Ken Banks's user avatar
  • 1,839
4 votes

Did Paul believe that he would immediately be with Jesus as soon as he died?

The best way to understand Paul's teaching here is to see it in the larger context of his teaching about the resurrection. The source of our eternal life at the resurrection is Jesus and His ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 101k
4 votes

When was Jesus rich? 2 Corinthian 8:9

"That you, by his poverty, might become rich" The clue is in the words, "that you, by his poverty, might become rich." By what kind of poverty of Jesus were Christians made rich? ...
Sola Gratia's user avatar
  • 9,552
4 votes
Accepted

Why emphasize the body?

Note the context: So we are always of good courage. We know that while we are at home in the body we are away from the Lord, 7 for we walk by faith, not by sight. 8 Yes, we are of good courage, and ...
Perry Webb's user avatar
4 votes
Accepted

Will Jesus do anything we ask Him in His name or not? John 14:12-14 vs. 2 Corinthians 12:7-9

There is a qualification to "ask." It is to "ask in my [Jesus'] name." It is like asking according to God's will, only Jesus gives us a better understanding of God's will. ...
Perry Webb's user avatar
4 votes

Does the word "we" in 2 Corinthians 5:11-20 refer to Paul and the apostles or to the church as a whole?

This passage is subtle in its construction and (typically) great care with which Paul selects his words. The pronouns in 1 Cor 5:11-21 fall into two categories: those that are some variant of "...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 101k

Only top scored, non community-wiki answers of a minimum length are eligible