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Emphasis in Isaiah 50:11

Isa 50:11 is an other example of the many places in the Bible where God allows the consequences of sin to recoil upon itself. See appendix below. In this case, there appears to be an anticipated ...
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What does “put at the apostles’ feet” mean in Acts 4:32-5:2?

Note the helpful remarks from the Cambridge commentary on Acts 4:35 - and laid them down at the apostles’ feet A significant act, whereby it was shewn that they gave the Apostles entire control over ...
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Do the 'vessels of wrath' have libertarian free will? Romans 9:14-24

Yes, they do have free will. In Romans 9-11 Paul is not teaching determinism; he is countering the deterministic views of his opponents. Paul's Titanic Chiasmus Romans 9-11 is a massive, chiastic ...
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Do the 'vessels of wrath' have libertarian free will? Romans 9:14-24

If I had a computer which had free will and I asked it five times what was 5+6, suppose the fifth time it got 11 by chance for the first time, would that be to the credit of the computer? No, it would ...
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Is Revelation 3:16 a warning about the possibility of losing one's salvation?

The Revelation of Jesus Christ is a vision about what it to come. It is a warning, not just to the seven churches in Asia back then, but to the church now. It is interpreted spiritually. John was ...
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What does Jesus mean by "hot", "cold" and "lukewarm" in Revelation 3:16?

The word, "hot", "cold", and "lukewarm" present a difficulty here: The word for "cold" is ψυχρός (psychros) and apart from Matt 10:42 (the literal meaning) ...
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6 votes

What does Jesus mean by "hot", "cold" and "lukewarm" in Revelation 3:16?

The Laodiceans did not have a fresh water supply. They built an aqueduct to bring the cold water down from the mountains, but by the time it got to Laodicea the water was lukewarm, and very ...
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What does Jesus mean by "hot", "cold" and "lukewarm" in Revelation 3:16?

Romans 12:10-11 is a helpful companion passage: 10 Be kindly affectioned one to another with brotherly clove; in honour preferring one another; 11 Not slothful in business; fervent in spirit; serving ...
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Is Jesus using multiple definitions of "life" in Matthew 10:39?

Considering the Aramaic (Peshitta) version, a literal reading of Matt 10:39 and Matt 16:25 could be: Matt 10:39 Whoever finds himself makes himself perish; whoever makes himself perish for me he ...
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Is Jesus using multiple definitions of "life" in Matthew 10:39?

In Mt 10:39 Jesus presents us with a paradox: there is only one way to find one’s life, and that is by losing it for the sake of Christ. There is only one way to life, and it is through Jesus. The key ...
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Did Moses fast for 81-days straight in Deuteronomy 9:9-18?

I don't believe Jesus drank any water either when he fasted 40 days in the desert (being in a desert). It also says that He fasted 40 days AND nights, which makes me wonder if he supernaturally fasted ...
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Are the shepherds being curt in Genesis 29?

I think the source of the question is false dichotomy or perhaps the idea that the other interactions we see are the normal ones. The false dichotomy is that they are either being curt or being polite ...
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What kind of knowledge will pass away according to 1 Corinthians 13?

When the "perfect comes", i.e. at the consummation of the ages when the Lord returns and we are brought back to life with brand new bodies, given eternal life, and much more, many things ...
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Is Jesus using multiple definitions of "life" in Matthew 10:39?

Technically, the word, ψυχή (psyche) is used in an identical sense both times it occurs in Matt 10:39. What is different, is the implied pronoun, "it". Let me be more specific by setting ...
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1 vote

Is Jesus using multiple definitions of "life" in Matthew 10:39?

Yes, of course there are different semantics here of two "lives", for one life means everything, all aspects of our existence that are not related to Christ's commandments and Christ's life ...
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3 votes

Is Jesus using multiple definitions of "life" in Matthew 10:39?

[Matthew 10:39] Whoever finds his life will lose it, and whoever loses his life for my sake will find it. The latter part of the verse will help us understand the former part. If you have lost your ...
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2 votes

Why does Job say 'shall I return there' in Job 1:21?

It is most probable that Job is alluding to the part of the curse found in Gen 3:19 - By the sweat of your brow you will eat your bread, until you return to the ground—because out of it were you ...
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Why does Job say 'shall I return there' in Job 1:21?

Job speaks of returning to God, from whence he came. Jeremiah acknowledges that it is God who gives life to a child in the womb: Before I formed thee in the belly I knew thee; and before thou camest ...
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