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What does Paul mean by "denying its power" in 2 Timothy 3:5?

As soon as people believe the power is from themselves or they are on equal footing with God, they have been deceived and are deceiving themselves. Pride has taken hold and they are operating under a ...
Llou's user avatar
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Why are passages in the Book of Joshua repeated in the Book of Judges (Jos. 15:15-19, Jdgs. 1:11-15)?

Clearly, there is an overlap. It would seem the text copying would have been done by the author of the Book of Judges. This seems logical as several incidents recorded in Joshua including, in 15:13; ...
user67147's user avatar
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What words existed in Greek to express the concept "eternal"?

My thinking is that "hell" (which is based on illusionary separation from the divine) is a temporal realm, limited by being a part of a cycle of development. We know the greek was an ...
David M's user avatar
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Is the timeline of the stone in Daniel 2:34-44 defined?

The identification of the first four kingdoms in Nebuchadnezzar's dreamed statue should generally lack controversial arguments, except the fifth. These initial four kingdoms are typically understood ...
Vincent Wong's user avatar
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Does God have a spirit separate from the Holy Spirit?

The OP asks, “In 1 Corinthians 12:3 Paul uses two different expressions of spirit; ‘Spirit of God’ and the 'Holy Spirit’. Are these (2) different spirits, or the same spirit?” Paul’s use of two ...
Nhi's user avatar
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What does Paul mean by "denying its power" in 2 Timothy 3:5?

The power as mentioned represents the holy spirit. The one unforgivable sin of blasphemy against the holy spirit or power as these men must have known it intimately. The other verse I am reminded of ...
Randy Johnston's user avatar
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What does Paul mean by "denying its power" in 2 Timothy 3:5?

So, I believe in the absolute power of God. Of the preachers today I'm not so sure. Yes I believe our prayers hold power. But what I see in the churches today is power hunger. I left my church because ...
Joseph Schiavone's user avatar
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Why are "ha-adam" and "adam" often translated inconsistently in Genesis?

First and foremost, literal meaning of the word Adam is not 'man'. Footnote under Gen 2:7(NIV) explains thus: Hebrew for man (adam) sounds like and may be related to the Hebrew for ground (adamah); it ...
Kadalikatt Joseph Sibichan's user avatar

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