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Why does James associate physical illness to sin?

If we read both passages carefully, there is no contradiction: Jesus did not rule out any association of sin with illness, only that we should not overgeneralize or think that this particular ...
GratefulDisciple's user avatar
3 votes

Why does James associate physical illness to sin?

James says "If they have sinned …". This means that sin is a possible cause of illness, not that it is the only cause. Irresponsible lifestyles are obvious examples of this (e.g. promiscuous ...
Ray Butterworth's user avatar
0 votes

Does Paul refer to his past or present evil/sin in Romans 7

For 60 years this question raised by the context of what is addressed by Paul in Romans cc 5-8 is not answered by most people I read. But, here is my conclusion: My question has always been, "How ...
Bob Williford's user avatar
0 votes

Did King Abijam and King Asa have the same mother? The Bible says their mother is Maacah of Abishalom but says the two kings are father and son?

We need to remember that the Hebrew word for “mother”, can also mean: grandmother or even fore-mother - not necessarily a first-generation descendant. So in all likelihood, the Maacah of 15:10 is Asa’...
Dean Camp's user avatar
1 vote
Accepted

How accurate is Larry Pierce's Outline of Biblical Usage of the word "sin"?

I'm most curious of the usage which says "to be without a share in". This is not a direct meaning of sin as presented in the Old or New Testament. However, this meaning may come from כָּרַת (...
Jason_'s user avatar
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