Let us reason from cause to effect:
Man is unconscious in death. Eccl 9:5, 6, 10, Ps 6:5, Isa 38:18, Ps 88:10. Thus, the Bible very often calls death a “sleep”; Matt 9:24, Mark 5:39, Luke 8:52, John 11:11, 12, Acts 7:60, 13:36, 1 Cor 7:39, 11:30, 15:6, 18, 20, 51, 1 Thess 4:13-15, 5:10, 2 Peter 3:4, etc.
The soul cannot think after death. Ps 115:17, Job ...
New International Version
And do not grieve the Holy Spirit of God, with whom you were sealed for the day of redemption.
This is our indwelling Spirit given to us as a guarantee for eternal life. We are tightly sealed with Him.
But the Advocate, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in My name, will teach you all things and ...
The context is simple. Jesus is discussing marriage and adultery. If you are lusting after someone who is married then you have already committed adultery with that person in your heart. If you are unmarried and are lusting after another unmarried person, then no adultery is committed. Stay in context.
Relevant to the second question, I found this citation from the Jewish Virtual Library:
The biblical concept of forgiveness presumes, in its oldest strata,
that sin is a malefic force that adheres to the sinner and that
forgiveness is the divine means for removing it. This is demonstrated
by the vocabulary of forgiveness which, in the main, stems from the
Jesus related his authority to being a Son of Man (no definite article):
[Jhn 5:26-27 NKJV] (26) "For as the Father has life in Himself, so He has granted the Son to have life in Himself, (27) "and has given Him authority to execute judgment also, because He is [the] Son of Man.
The OT background of the Son of Man motif that seems to be in view ...
Starting with John the Baptist, water baptism was practiced for remission of sin. Mark 1.4 It is assumed Jesus followed his lead when he, and the apostles, practiced baptism. The apostles were commanded by Jesus, just before his Ascension, to make water baptism a part of their preaching. Mark 16.15,16. Luke 24.47. It would naturally follow that they would ...
The answer to this excellent question is found by examining another passage about very similar things, Matt 16:19, 18:18
The Greek is Matt 16:19 and Matt 18:18 is unusual. Let me quote my very literal translation.
Matt 18:18, “Truly I say to you, whatever you bind on earth will have
been bound [simple future + perfect participle passive] in heaven; and
The OP asks three questions which i will take in a different order:
Question #2 - Why did the scribes believe that only God could forgive sins? Are there any passages in the OT that clearly state that forgiveness of sins is God's prerogative?
To answer this question, one must distinguish between temporal guilt and eternal guilt.
Temporal guilt ...
The OT background of the Son of Man motif that seems to be in view here is that of Daniel's vision:
[Dan 7:13-22 NLT] (13) As my vision continued that night, I saw someone like a son of man coming with the clouds of heaven. He approached the Ancient One and was led into his presence. (14) He was given authority, honor, and sovereignty over all the nations ...
Jesus could forgive sins because God gave him the authority.
Jesus is God's anointed servant and representative. He is not God, but His representative, an image of God. Jesus spoke of the Coin with Caesar's image (same word) It has power and authority and fully represents him in specific ways - The coin is NOT Caesar. Matt 12:16
And He (Jesus) is the ...
1. Why did Jesus have authority to forgive sins?
I suggest the clearest scriptural indication is that He had the the authority to forgive sins because He is the One who would/did pay for them. As the payer of the debt it was His call to make. For example, Romans 3:23-25
23 For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God;
24 Being justified freely by ...
There are nine answers to this question, and there are some really interesting points about social relations in the time of Christ, or where exactly do you draw the line between being tempted by a woman and "lusting for her", but I think focusing on these issues may be missing the overall point that Jesus was trying to make in this passage.
In my view Anne and Lesley have given strong answers. I would like to mention a few verses which fit in with them: ESV only-
Hebrews 9:13 David sinned at a time when "the blood of goats and bulls...sanctify for the purification of the flesh". Not a complete putting away.
Hebrews 9:15 But "a death has occurred that redeems them from the ...
God sent Nathan to David to expose his sin and pronounce God’s judgment upon him:
“Now therefore the sword shall never depart from thine house; because thou hast despised me, and hast taken the wife of Uriah the Hittite to be thy wife. Thus saith the LORD, Behold, I will raise up evil against thee out of thine own house, and I will take thy wives before ...
The answer can be gleaned from other places in the Bible where King David and his sin is spoken of. Paul writes in Romans 4:5-8:
“But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness. Even as David also describeth the blessedness of the man unto whom God imputeth righteousness without works, ...