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Jesus' prayer was heard in full and answered in full. He was saved from death. In the days of His flesh, He offered up both prayers and supplications with loud crying and tears to the One able to save Him from death, and He was heard because of His piety. The context is not the day or days immediately prior to the cross, but his whole life on earth - 'the ...


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The question is addressed by the writer of the Fourth Gospel: 40 One of the two who heard John speak and followed Jesus was Andrew, Simon Peter's brother. 41 He first found his own brother Simon and said to him, “We have found the Messiah” (which means Christ). 42 He brought him to Jesus. Jesus looked at him and said, “You are Simon the son of John. You ...


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How should John 3:13 be understood in view of the OT statements about Enoch and Elijah? First, Titus 1:2 tells us that 'God...cannot lie' and as God's representative, Jesus did not lie in his words to us. Now, let's address each individual's case separately. What happened to Enoch? Gen. 5:24 states: Enoch kept walking with the true God. Then he was no more, ...


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Straightforward answer: Jesus is right, and therefore traditional views of Enoch and Elijah, in so far as they say they are in heaven in the same sense meant by Jesus, are wrong. So the only remaining problem is to understand exactly where 'heaven' was for Enoch and Elijah. "how could Jesus state that" Note it is possible that John 3:13 is the ...


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I want to offer an alternate perspective, mostly because I think several faulty lines of reasoning have been proposed for why it is "unlikely" that πέτρα refers to Πέτρος. My response will be divided into three parts: Against objections Reasons in favor Other testimonies Let me start by acknowledging a strong parallel brought up by Dottard. I ...


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Protoevangelium is the fundamental prophecy of the Bible. Everything else hangs on it, although some historic happenings are more outstanding than others. Like the copper snake in the desert, Jonah in the belly of the great fish, etc. Jesus talked about this in Luk 24:13-27. Thus, the Israelian history was created “through and for” Jesus, the promised ...


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Let me quote my (overly) literal translation of Matt 16:16-19 - “Simon Peter answered, ‘You are the Messiah, the Son of the living God.’ And Jesus said to him, ‘Blessed are you, Simon bar Jona, because flesh and blood did not reveal this to you, but My Father who is in heaven. I also say to you that you are Peter [Petros (masc), a stone], and upon this ...


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Peter said, 'Thou art the Christ, the Son of the Living God', Matthew 16:16, a revelation of whom Jesus truly was, God manifest in flesh, 1 Timothy 3:16 [TR]. Peter is blessed for this was a revelation from the Father, Matthew 16:17. Jesus returns to Peter, 'Thou art Peter'. Why say Peter's name ? Was it in doubt in any way ? Why emphasise the name of Peter ?...


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The antecedent of "this rock" has been debated for millennia. There appear to be 4 possible antecedents--let's look at the preceding verses: 16 And Simon Peter answered and said, Thou art the Christ, the Son of the living God. 17 And Jesus answered and said unto him, Blessed art thou, Simon Bar-jona: for flesh and blood hath not revealed it unto ...


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John 10:36 Berean Literal Bible do you say of Him whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world sent ἀπέστειλεν (apesteilen) Verb - Aorist Indicative Active - 3rd Person Singular Strong's Greek 649: From apo and stello; set apart, i.e. to send out literally or figuratively. world κόσμον (kosmon) Noun - Accusative Masculine Singular Strong's Greek 2889:...


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I would suggest not trying to take this one word from this one verse and use it as if to draw some dramatic, over-arching conclusion. Many people come to these texts with very different assumptions. They have a lot of ambiguity and can be read in many different ways. Let's look at the context surrounding this verse. Jesus is being threatened with execution ...


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ἀποστέλλω and πέμπω Jesus said to them again, “Peace be with you. As the Father has sent (ἀπέσταλκέν) me, even so I am sending (πέμπω) you.” (John 20:21) [ESV] Jesus uses two different words to describe "sending," one of which He applies to Himself and the other to the disciples. Specifically the Father sent ἀποστέλλω Jesus. However, Jesus sends, ...


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Jesus Christ was sent from heaven when He incarnated as a man. Isaiah 9:6, For a child will be born to us, a son will be given to us; And the government will rest on His shoulders, And His name will be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God." Then there is John 6:42, John 3:13, "No one has ascended into heaven, but He who descended from heaven.&...


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The context is simple. Jesus is discussing marriage and adultery. If you are lusting after someone who is married then you have already committed adultery with that person in your heart. If you are unmarried and are lusting after another unmarried person, then no adultery is committed. Stay in context.


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This question is wrongheadedly put from the outset, for it affirms that it is even possible to interpret this passage in a sense that Jesus is “implying” something when in reality He is plainly, without even a particle of ambiguity and equivocation, asserting His not only pre-incarnate existence but pre-universe-creation co-existence with the Father. How can ...


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I struggle to see how John 17:5 can be understood in any other way but as a testimony to the pre-incarnate existence of Jesus. The same idea is also present in V24. We see this in numerous other places such as: John 1:1-3 - In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was with God in the beginning. Through Him all ...


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John 1:1-2 says ‘IN THE beginning there WAS THE Word, and the Word WAS WITH God, and the Word WAS God. He WAS IN THE beginning WITH God.’ Given a double reference, the emphasis of this text is about ‘the Word that WAS IN THE beginning WITH God.’ I plead to everyone to respect the context of this text and NOT try to pull anyone phrase out of the sentence ...


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Luke 22:37 is a direct reference and quotation from the Messianic prophecy ending in Isa 53:12 - Therefore I will divide him a portion with the many, and he shall divide the spoil with the strong, because he poured out his soul to death and was numbered with the transgressors; yet he bore the sin of many, and makes intercession for the transgressors. The ...


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Okay, my answer is short and simple, I do not want to be redundant here but I wish to contribute something valuable to this good question and good conversation. The thing is Adam and Eve begat our ancestors. In a similar way, dogs begat more dogs, and cats cats, and so forth. The Father, therefore, begat the son. Here's the twist if humans produce humans, ...


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The "My God" refers to Jesus' relation to God in His humanity. It was in His manhood as well as His deity that He restored the loss which came through Adam's sin. "Your God" at John 5:17 implies they had need of a mediator that God might become their Father. This is explained at Philippians 2:5-11. Vs5, "Have this attitude in ...


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This is a question on which it is difficult to be objective; I will attempt to offer an objective take (my own two cents in the conclusion only). I’ll probably fall somewhat short of any single person’s ideal answer. We all have preconceptions on this topic and they are pretty core to our beliefs. Let’s interpret this passage through the lens of the 4 most ...


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There are some very good and enlightening answers here, to which I am grateful for the insight. Let's not completely over-complicate our thinking on this, however. Jesus was not exclusively teaching scientists and philosophers. Conversely, most of his audience was of average intelligence with little to no formal education. Why then would meaning be so deeply ...


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In the bible, the word God (elohim in Hebrew or theos in Greek) is ascribed to more than one person. Some examples: The Father - John 17:3, John 20:17 Jesus - John 20:28 Moses - Exodus 4.16, Exodus 7.1 (ʾĕlōhîm, see this answer) Judges - Exodus 21.5, Exodus 22.8 (Judges translated from elohim) Davidic King - Psalm 45:7 Satan - 2 Corinthians 4:4 In John, ...


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As a result of the Resurrection, the message of salvation based solely on faith in Jesus gave birth to the Church. The exclusivity of salvation by belief in Jesus, without any knowledge or acceptance of God as found in the Old Testament logically implies the divinity of Jesus. It also raises questions about the nature of that divinity relative to the Old ...


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Jesus is fully man, and this means that He fully has created nature of man. Now, the one who creates this nature is the Creator, God. Thus, Jesus as being a man in the sense of possessing the entirety of human nature, has God as the Creator of this nature. However, how does God the Father create? Necessarily God the Father creates through His Logos, the ...


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The assertion that "brethren" is absent from the cursed is not entirely correct. Let us first establish who the "brethren" are. In Matt 25:35-40, Jesus defines "my brothers" as anyone in need, specifically, those who are hungry, thirsty, lonely, naked, sick, imprisoned. See V40. That is, such needy are simply needy whether ...


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Since none of the other answers seem to have recounted the standard arguments used by those who prefer the angry reading, I'll start by recapping the lengthy discussion given by Bart Ehrman, Misquoting Jesus, pp. 132-138. When there are two readings, we should generally prefer the more difficult one, since a scribe would be unlikely to change a less ...


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English Standard Version Matthew 25:40 And the King will answer them, ‘Truly, I say to you, as you did it to one of the least of these my brothers, you did it to me.’ of these τούτων (toutōn) Demonstrative Pronoun - Genitive Masculine Plural Strong's Greek 3778: This; he, she, it. brothers ἀδελφῶν (adelphōn) Noun - Genitive Masculine Plural Strong's Greek ...


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Yes, he did, but not in the way you think. In Aramaic, the verse reads like this: "ra'ah satan naphal'aher baraq o bamah" baraq is lightning bamah is "the heights" or "heaven"


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The curse put onto Jehoiakim would have passed onto Jesus if Joseph had of ‘fathered’ Jesus. Joseph was in the line of David - but so was Mary, and Mary”s line did not come “under’ the curse of Jehoiakim, which was for ‘males’. Jesus qualifies as a legal consideration for the Throne under two lines! (of genealogy). Joseph was a descendant of Jeconiah, but ...


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Jeremiah 36:30 Therefore this is what the LORD says about Jehoiakim king of Judah: He will have no one to sit on the throne of David; his body will be thrown out and exposed to the heat by day and the frost by night. The context here is the horizontal/temporal kingdom of Judah, not the vertical kingdom of God. Jesus rejected this man-made throne as well in ...


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The important word in Luke 1:36, usually (correctly) translated "relative" is συγγενής which could be a near or far relative. That is they could have been cousins, second cousins, aunt and niece, etc. The fact that the tribes intermarried is important here. It means that: Father Joseph From Jesus earthly father He inherited the right to royal ...


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Because people from different tribes intermarried, a person's tribe was determined by patrilineal descent (their father's father's father etc -- see Numbers 36:7). It is highly probable that more than a millennium and a half after Jacob, all Jews were descendants of multiple sons of Jacob. For a modern parallel over a slightly shorter timespan, it is ...


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Jesus uses glory as the means to show He existed before His incarnation: 1 When Jesus had spoken these words, he lifted up his eyes to heaven, and said, “Father, the hour has come; glorify your Son that the Son may glorify you, 2 since you have given him authority over all flesh, to give eternal life to all whom you have given him. 3 And this is eternal ...


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John 17:5 (NRSV): So now, Father, glorify me in your own presence with the glory that I had in your presence before the world existed.\ Before the world existed, the Son existed because he had glory. John 8:58 "Truly, truly, I tell you," Jesus declared, "before Abraham was born, I am!" The context of the Son's existence in John 17:5 ...


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The exception in Matthew 5:32 is for premarital fornication (porneia), not for adultery (moicheia). ''parektos logos porneia'' is except for the (or a) word of fornication. Sending to Deuteronomy 22 verse 14 (Hebrew ''dabar'', word, speech), the husband gave a word of ''unchastity'', not virgin at marriage (in Jewish marriage, betrothal comes first, as Mary ...


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Just remember that Jesus didn't address the Jewish religious leaders in Greek. Nor did he speak to them in Hebrew. Jesus spoke Aramaic, the language enforced on the Jews during the Babylonian captivity. In fact the written characters we refer to today as Hebrew are actually Royal Aramaic, the alphabet of Babylon. Hebrew was gone from conversational use ...


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Maybe he is, maybe he isn't. We cannot know what Jesus meant by this request of the Father. But we can know several other things that shed light on this particular verse; There is no other text that affirms his pre-existence with clarity. If he did pre-exist he wasn't God - that concept is eliminated by any honest reading of the NT. Simply that Jesus has a ...


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Jesus is not implying anything. He is simply stating the fact that he was with God prior to all things coming into existence. John 1: Through Him all things were made, and without Him nothing was made that has been made. Colossians 1:16: For in Him all things were created, things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions ...


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When echoing John's phrase "the Jews," please keep in mind its ahistorical nature, John's anti-Judaism, and the antisemitic uses that it was later put to. "The Jews" includes Jesus, Mary, the apostles, and all or virtually all of Jesus's followers. Note that Luke 4 gives a nearly identical incident, ending in the same way, but without ...


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What a wonderful reminder of the thoroughness of God's design - all along He had this son Jesus in mind through whom He would redeem the creation. There could be no redemption under the Old Cov. yet the big figures like David and Abraham and several others had a glimpse of what, and possibly who was coming. They understood that they too were a part of the ...


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The statement "πριν αβρααμ γενεσθαι εγω ειμι" = "I am before Abraham came to be" here is a claim of pre-existence, not of identity with YHWH. According to John, Jesus consistently claimed to be sent from God (John 8:25-26), and claimed to be superior to Moses and Abraham. But not once did he claim identity with his father. In fact, Jesus ...


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In the Gospels we have a number of incidents where the local Jewish leadership accused Jesus of blaspheming because He claimed equality with God. While some modern theologians might argue about these and what Jesus intended, the people at the time had no doubt. Matt 9:1-8, Mark 2:1-12, Luke 5:17-26 – Jesus is accused of blasphemy because He forgave a man’s ...


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They wanted to stone him for blaspheming the name of God because Leviticus 24:13-16 says: 13 Then the Lord said to Moses: 14 “Take the blasphemer outside the camp. All those who heard him are to lay their hands on his head, and the entire assembly is to stone him. 15 Say to the Israelites: ‘Anyone who curses their God will be held responsible; 16 anyone who ...


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There are nine answers to this question, and there are some really interesting points about social relations in the time of Christ, or where exactly do you draw the line between being tempted by a woman and "lusting for her", but I think focusing on these issues may be missing the overall point that Jesus was trying to make in this passage. ...


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The claim of Divinity The people sought to stone Jesus for blasphemy - the statement that put them over the edge, and would serve as their justification for trying to stone him again later (see John 10:31-33), wasn't simply that He insulted them or claimed to have existed since before the days of Abraham - He claimed something much more than that. Those well-...


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Jesus with the 'I existed before Abraham' was clearly making some sort of claim to be a divine being. No human could do that. They interpreted it as blasphemy. Yet it would be incorrect to think they wanted to stone him just because of that comment. Consider the passage in John 8 leading up to this point, and you will see that Jesus gives the answer ...


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A Blasphemy Which Requires Stoning There are three points in the Fourth Gospel at which the Jews respond to something Jesus said by wanting to kill Him. The first is in Chapter 5; the second in Chapter 8, and the third in Chapter 10. It is in the final event in which John includes the reason for stoning: 31 Then the Jews took up stones again to stone Him. ...


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Let me answer quickly: this verse says that the light used by the moon is the same as the sun. But in those days, after that tribulation, the sun shall be darkened, and the moon shall not give its light. Mark 13:24 The moon's light in Greek (ancient Greek I think ) φέγγος αὐτῆς, means "its light", the word φέγγος means same , well , the words ...


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We read in Ps 5:4 - For you are not a God who delights in wickedness; evil may not dwell with you. It is significant that they fell back when they heard what Jesus said, Ἐγώ εἰμι = "I AM". In the Old Testament, Jehovah’s self-proclaimed title of “I AM” is given special prominence in Ex 3:13-15. While we are told “I Am” was to be God’s name ...


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