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If Jesus Yielded his spirit to God Does this mean he stayed dead for the 3 days And that it is his Spirit that God gave back to him on the 3rd day? The answer to your question is yes he stayed dead for three days And God gave his spirit back on day three. Jesus came in the likeness of Adam. In order to overcome the curse he has to participate in it, which is ...


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When Jesus died he surrendered his spirit - his mortal human spirit, back to his Father and God. John 20:17 The NT explicitly says Jesus was a man - still is. By his own words, Jesus says, you seek to kill me, a m-a-n who has told you the truth that I heard from G-o-d. John 8:40 there is one God and one mediator between God and mankind, the man Christ ...


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Luke 23: 46 Jesus called out with a loud voice, “Father, into your hands I commit my spirit.” When he had said this, he breathed his last. What does "Yeilding up his Spirit" mean? The spirit is a real entity that exists in the spiritual realm. At this time, by Jesus' command, his spirit left his physical body. If Jesus Yielded his spirit to God ...


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It simply means that He expired, or died: "I am the First and the Last, even He that liveth. And I became dead: and behold I live for ever" (Revelation 1:17). Death is not, after all, any kind of end or destruction, except as regards the body: and Jesus' body was not allowed to corrupt according to the natural course, since it was raised ...


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That would depend on what you understood his spirit to be. Some religious groups say it was merely "the breath of life" that has to keep going in and out of the lungs for physical life to continue. The implication of such an idea is that Jesus breathed out his last lungful of air and then deliberately refused to take in more air. However, if the ...


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I’m quite surprised that Austin's interpretation of John 10 is getting so much praise here in the forum. I for one find such an interpretation quite problematic, for which just one of those reasons GratefulDisciple briefly touches on: To interpret John 10:34-36 (cf. Ps. 82:6) in such a way, dethrones Jesus from that lofty position — where He dwells on high (...


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Is Paul suggesting in Eph. 4:6 that Jesus and the Holy Spirit are not God? In Eph. 4:6 Paul writes, "one God and Father of all, who is above all, and through all, and in you all". NKJV Paul is not suggesting but is saying like in all oF his writings that the father is above all, and that He is the Head of Christ. In context Vs 4-5 Paul says &...


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It is unfortunate that you only extracted a few words at the end of a sentence that starts in verse 4. To give a hermeneutical answer, the entire sentence must be considered. This, then, becomes the scripture text in question: "There is one body, and one Spirit, even as ye are called in one hope of your calling: one Lord, one faith, one baptism, one ...


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I don’t want to discredit Dottard’s answer. It is basically what I was taught as a child. Neither do I consider it the wrong answer, but give it +1. But, I want to consider all the available information. Much information I will get from Bailey, K. E. (2008), Jesus through Middle Eastern Eyes: Cultural Studies in the Gospels, Downers Grove, IL: IVP ...


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NKJV Eph. 4:6 Paul writes, one God and Father of all, who is above all, and through all, and in you all. Is Paul suggesting in Eph. 4:6 that Jesus and the Holy Spirit are not God? No, the verse does not mention Jesus or the Holy Spirit. Since God, the Father, is above all, how can Jesus and the Holy Spirit be equal to Him or even be God at all? I don't ...


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Here, John is making the most categorical and concise statement found anywhere in scripture regarding the deity of Jesus - He is GOD. If you need a more detailed explanation on this I would recommend you read the the answers posted on the following thread. "Why John 1:1 in (DRB)(Douay-Rheims Bible) is not literal translation from the Latin Vulgate?"...


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John 1 :14 and Philippians 2:5-8 are not describing the same event. If we take John 1:14 to mean that Jesus was God incarnate, then he was not the second Adam; That makes his death and resurrection a farce. If Jesus had incarnated, God does not need to transfer his life in to Mary’s womb for Jesus to be born. He could have materialized to a mature ...


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Textually, it's all demonstrable transliteration - the LXX records the pre-Christian tradition of Joshua being translated as Yeasu: καὶ ἐνετείλατο Ἰησοῦς τοῗς γραμματεῦσιν τοῦ λαοῦ λέγων (Joshua 1:10) Christians were then simply following the pre-existing tradition of translating Joshua's name, and were not adding any new meaning which had not been ...


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I've actually read quite a lot of crazy alternate explanations for Jesus greek name but usually its something silly with very little plausibility. The only interesting one that seemed plausable was a connection of the name to a preexisting deity in the Greek Pantheon called Ieso or in Greek "Ἰησώ". This deity is a child of the Greek God of Medicine ...


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Per biblehub.com the word diatarassó, rendered here as greatly troubled, occurs just once in the text. Strong’s Concordance diatarassó: to agitate greatly Original Word: διαταράσσω Part of Speech: Verb Transliteration: diatarassó Phonetic Spelling: (dee-at-ar-as'-so) Definition: to agitate greatly Usage: I trouble greatly, agitate. That Mary was greatly ...


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The Koine Greek word "θεος" is just a countable noun like "god" and "king" in English. Because of its semantics, it can like "king" be used as a title as well. Just as in ancient Israel there can be one true king YHWH and yet the people of Israel can correctly call the king of Israel "the king", so also the ...


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What does “a day of the son of man” look like according to Luke 17:22? The book Jesus—The Way, the Truth, the Life under the chapter "The Son of Man Will Be Revealed" mentions the following: Jesus is indicating that the reign of the Son of man in the Kingdom is to be in the future. Before that time arrives, some disciples might anxiously look for ...


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Let's take a look at the title the anointed one in the OT, 2 Chronicles 6: 42 LORD God, do not reject your anointed one. Remember the great love promised to David your servant.” The Hebrew word is H4899 מָשִׁיחַ mashiach. LXX uses G5547 Χριστός Christos This title is served a name as well, Acts 2: 38a Peter replied, “Repent and be baptized, every one of ...


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In the Old Testament, the name "Joshua" comes in at least two forms. We see them both in Numbers 13:16. These are the names of the men which Moses sent to spy out the land. And Moses called Oshea the son of Nun Jehoshua. (Numbers 13:16, KJV) The word "Joshua/Jehoshua" is said to mean "Jehovah is salvation." But there are ...


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Deuteronomy 33: 3 Yes, he loved his people, all his holy ones were in his hand; so they followed in your steps, receiving direction from you, John 1: 11 He came to his own, and his own people did not receive him. In terms of forms, the two verses look quite different. They don't look parallel. Is John 1:11 an antithetical parallel to Deut. 33.3? Perhaps ...


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Jesus has forever united himself with humanity. Though he is our Lord, and the power of God dwells within him, he will always be our elder Brother. Remember what the disciples were told by the angels when Jesus ascended from them into Heaven? Which also said, Ye men of Galilee, why stand ye gazing up into heaven? this same Jesus, which is taken up from you ...


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And I say also unto thee, That thou art Peter (πέτρος), and upon this rock (πέτρᾳ) I will build my church; and the gates of hell shall not prevail against it. (Matthew 16:18, KJV) The word Peter signifies a stone--a rolling stone. Peter was not the Rock upon which the church was founded. The gates of hell did prevail against him when he denied his Lord ...


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Jesus made Simon ''rock'' (Πέτρος -Peter). Based on the context, this rock (Πέτρος) refers to a ''foundation'' (e.g. ''upon which the church is built''). Matthew 16:18 18 And I tell you, you are Peter, and on this rock I will build my church, and the gates of Hades will not prevail against it. Simon as 'Cephas/'Peter' refers to Simon being the first rock/...


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I think the contrast between the "current" days of the son of man which the disciples will long for - with the future days of the son of man (which Jesus describes as similar to the days of Noah) - is explained in the prophecy Jesus reads about his ministry from Isaiah 61:1-2 in Luke 4:18 "The Spirit of the Lord is on me, because he has ...


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This chapter is eschatological. But one key difference between Luke’s account and Matthew’s account - commonly ‘lumped’ into what theologians label as the Olivet Discourse, is that Matthew’s account is describing the end days, where as Luke’s gospel is mostly describing days in the not so distant future, days that (many of) the audience would experience - ...


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Superficially there is the obvious and direct reference you mention to Peter as a rock of the Church Jesus was to build. But the significance of the name becomes a little clearer when read in the original Languages. The reason being Peter isn't the only name with significance. Both of his names - Simon and Peter - have significance and meaning. It is the ...


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In the OT, the rock is often used to refer to God, Psalm 18: 2 The LORD is my rock, my fortress and my deliverer; my God is my rock, in whom I take refuge, my shield and the horn of my salvation, my stronghold. This metaphor is repeated in the NT, 1 Corinthians 10: 4 and drank the same spiritual drink; for they drank from the spiritual rock that ...


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This is an important question with many implications. Thank you for asking! First of all, you are correct to note that the renaming of Peter occurred not when Peter confessed Christ in Matthew 16, but when they first met in John 1. We might note that several of the disciples had nicknames: Thomas = Didymus; James & John = Boarnages. Peter/Simon's ...


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In Luke 1 vs 28 - 29, why was Mary troubled by the greeting of the angel? There are two things to note about Mary's reaction: the common view of women during that time period and Mary's attitude. According to Jewish tradition, men were discouraged from talking to women in public: Mishnah Pirkei Avot 1:5 Engage not in too much conversation with women. They ...


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Are John 1:14 and Philippians 2:5-8 describing the same event? Joh 1:14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth. Php 2:5 Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus: 6 Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal ...


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Luke 1: 29 Mary was greatly troubled at his words and wondered what kind of greeting this might be. In Luke 1 vs 28 - 29, why was Mary troubled by the greeting of the angel? It was a common reaction when a human saw an angel, even to the point of fear. Luke 1: 12 And when Zacharias saw him, he was troubled, and fear fell upon him. Luke 2: 8 And there ...


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The pulpit commentary observes: Verse 29. - She was troubled; more accurately, she was greatly troubled. Different to Zacharias, who evidently doubted in the mission of the angel, and who required some sign before he could believe, Mary simply wondered at the strangeness of what was about to happen. Her terror at the sudden appearance of the angel, who ...


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I am probably expressing a minority view here but I believe it is the correct one and people can feel free to push back if they wish. It seems there have been several variations on this question lately which shows me that it must be important. It is also interesting to me that I have not come across a single accurate translation of this text, and again, I am ...


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John describes an "event"; Philippians describes a "concept" Back to Hermeneutics, the Gospels are accounts of events. The Epistles are letters with explanation, correspondence, reproof, encouragement, instruction, et cetera. Opinion from experience: Is there an overlap of the topic in these passages? Many systematic theologians seem to ...


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Young's Literal Translation Philippians 2: 6a who, being in the form of God, being ὑπάρχων (hyparchōn) Verb - Present Participle Active - Nominative Masculine Singular Strong's 5225: To begin, am, exist, be in possession. From hupo and archomai; to begin under, i.e. Come into existence; expletively, to exist (verb). [the] form μορφῇ (morphē) Noun - Dative ...


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I interviewed Dr. Taylor (NLT) on Bible translation Your Question is about how Bible translators think. This is a good and normal curiosity for many Bible readers, which we should allow on the Hermeneutics site. I was in a Bible introduction class at Moody, and our group was assigned to research the Living Bible. The New Living Translation was Ken Taylor's ...


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When it comes to the status of Jesus, we have three possible (traditional) results: Jesus is merely human and was never God and still is not God. This cannot be true because the NT so often calls Jesus "God" in the fullest sense, Matt 1:23, John 1:1, 20:28, Phil 2:5-8, 1 Tim 3:16, Col 2:9, Titus 2:13, 2 Peter 1:1, Heb 1:8, 9, etc. Jesus was a a ...


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Jesus referred to the Father as his God. Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God. (John 20:17, KJV) The Bible also indicates that God is greater than Christ. Ye have heard how I said unto you, I go away, and ...


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I tried to look for their explanation in the footnotes of those Bible versions, but it seems they did their best to conceal any explanation for their translation. My take is that this rendering of "himself God" is an interpretation of theos. We don't find ESV "the only God" problematic because it is an unambiguous simple translation of ⸂...


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There is a textual matter in John 1:18 that I will not discuss here. However, if we accept the NA28/UBS5 text, then we have: θεὸν οὐδεὶς ἑώρακεν πώποτε· μονογενὴς θεὸς ὁ ὢν εἰς τὸν κόλπον τοῦ πατρὸς ἐκεῖνος ἐξηγήσατο. = God no one has has ever-yet seen. [The] unique God, the one being in the bosom of the Father, that-one has declared (made known) [Him]. (...


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The Greek text for John 1:18 says: θεὸν οὐδεὶς ἑώρακεν πώποτε ὁ μονογενὴς υἱός, ὁ ὢν εἰς τὸν κόλπον τοῦ πατρὸς ἐκεῖνος ἐξηγήσατο (TR) Let's break that down, word-by-word, in order to help understand it. Greek Word Transliteration Strong's # Grammatical Notes Meaning θεὸν Theon G2316 N-AMS God οὐδεὶς oudeis G3762 Adj-NMS no one ἑώρακεν heōraken G3708 V-...


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He submitted to the Father. Therefore the Father must have told Him to go there, and He went in trust that He would receive any instruction and protection He needed. John 5:19 (KJV): Then answered Jesus and said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, The Son can do nothing of himself, but what he seeth the Father do: for what things soever he doeth, ...


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I came here to try to understand why it said Jesus "withdrew"; that word was really confusing because it implies going away from something. However, and reading what is written here in this thread my understanding is this (please tell me if this makes sense or not): Jesus was there in Nazareth his hometown, but above in the post it says, "...


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You are right that there are similarities between the two passages in that both reference the time in history when the Word who became flesh dwelt among us on earth. But the focus of each text is very different. John focuses on the glory Jesus had as a man. Paul focuses on the shame and death Jesus experienced as the Son of God. This is pretty intuitive ...


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It wasn't that she thought Jesus was crazy. The KJV says His "friends" (Mark 3:20), so His extended family? But see, Mary had all the promises of God, that Christ was God...but time passes. As time passes, people forget. Mary saw Jesus grow up, and she always thought of Him as her Baby...her perfect Baby, mind you, but her Baby nonetheless. So, she ...


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The Parable of the Tenants should probably be enlightening here: Matthew 21:33-46 (ESV): 33 “Hear another parable. There was a master of a house who planted a vineyard and put a fence around it and dug a winepress in it and built a tower and leased it to tenants, and went into another country. 34 When the season for fruit drew near, he sent his servants to ...


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Philippians 2:5-6: John 1:1 form of God forms an inclusio with glory of God in the Christ-poem (vv. 6, 11). (2:6) Form of God (2:11) Glory of God The Greek word ''morphe'' means “form, outward appearance, shape.” (BDAG, p. 659) The Greek word ''doxa'' means "the condition of being bright or shining, brightness, splendor, radiance" ...


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Michael Heiser himself answered your question in a paper he read at the 2012 regional meeting of the Society of Biblical Literature: Jesus' Quotation of Psalm 82:6 in John 10:34: A Different View of John's Theological Strategy (source: supplementary material for Chapter 4 of his Unseen Realm book, content discussion #2). This answer is based on his paper. ...


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Yes, they do in general terms, for both texts speak about the one who had been of the same level as and equal to God having been incarnated/become human. That this is the same thing, is evident, for the Biblical view is not circular so as to allow such an event as incarnation of God to have been made and then abolished by God infinite times, which would ...


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Douay-Rheims Bible Matthew 11: 7 And when they went their way, Jesus began to say to the multitudes concerning John: What went you out into the desert to see? a reed shaken with the wind? 8But what went you out to see? a man clothed in soft garments? Behold they that are clothed in soft garments, are in the houses of kings. 9But what went you out to see? a ...


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