New answers tagged greek
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This is actually quite uncomplicated. The noun γραφή (graphé) occurs 51 times in the NT. In ALL instances, without exception, it refers to "sacred scripture" (BDAG). For example:
Jesus said to them, "Have you never read in the Scriptures: "'The
stone the builders rejected has become the cornerstone; the Lord has
done this, and it is ...
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The text seems to imply that he was well-versed in the Tanakh, literature (I'll explain), as well as other disciplines. It's impressive that Apollos was speaking and teaching the things concerning Jesus -- especially only being acquainted with the baptism of John. Had he encountered Christ somewhere before? The NAS reads:
Acts 18:24-26: Now a Jew named ...
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In English we make mention of the 'bible' or the good 'book' or the 'scriptures'. None of these words, in their origin, are exclusive to any one body of writing.
In certain circles 'bible' may refer to any central body of reference. Arthur Vogel's extensive production can be referred to as 'the organic chemist's bible'.
But within (let us say) Protestant ...
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Yes. "Truly Truly" is used as an affirmation in [Nehemiah 8:6] "And Ezra blessed YHVH, The-Great God, and all the people answered, "Amen, Amen," with the uplifting of their hands, and they bent their heads and prostrated themselves to the Lord on their faces to the ground." ( וַיְבָ֣רֶךְ עֶזְרָ֔א אֶת־יְהֹוָ֥ה הָאֱלֹהִ֖ים ...
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G4637 Seems quite simply to translate to living among us.
Not surprised we’re not addressing the obvious translation error in this passage.
Logos (G3056) Greek for an idea, word or speech.
dabar (H1697) the Hebrew equivalent is also translates to word, matter, promise or thing.
Please note a person is not a thing! In 1,439 translations of dabar it is never ...
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Is 'foundation' the best translation for Gr. 'katabole'?
In order to understand what Jesus was saying, we need to see the context of his words in the instance. The Insight on the Scriptures gives a clear explanation in the article "World" under the subheading "The founding of the world":
“The founding of the world.” This clear connection ...
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The same phrase, "Kingdom of God/heaven is near", or similar, occurs in a number of places:
Matt 3:2 - "Repent, for the kingdom of heaven has come near."
Matt 4:17 - From that time on Jesus began to preach, "Repent, for the kingdom of heaven has come near."
Matt 10:7 - As you go, proclaim this message: 'The kingdom of heaven ...
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I will not comment about classical Greek usage because the NT is written in Koine Greek where many words have notably different meanings.
The word καταβολή (katabolé) occurs exactly 11 times in the NT and in all cases except for one (Heb 11:11) it occurs in the phrase, καταβολῆς κόσμου = "foundation of the world". Further, the occurrence of this ...
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You are correct in noting the relationship to שכן. ἐσκήνωσεν does come from a semitic loan word.
You might look at the feminine face of God in Rabbinic discourse, the shekinah. That name also derives from the word שכן. In the Jewish Torah commentary, the Zohar, this is also associated with the linguistic principle and the equivalent of the alpha and omega....
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The verb σκηνόω is literally "I encamp", but idiomatically, "I dwell" or "I live among", etc.
This John 1:14 is correctly translated by most versions as "made his dwelling among us".
In my opinion, the primary precedent is to make a complete contrast with one text and a continuation of another text.
Contrast Precedent:
...
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I think the answer here has to do with the complexities and subtleties of verb tenses which goes beyond the basics of grammar. Here is a simple classification of tense appropriate for both English and Greek. I will be only discussing the indicative mood.
Aspect
I do not intend to discuss this in detail except to note that verb aspect usually includes the &...
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What is the implication of “satisfied” or “filled” in the Synoptic feeding of the multitude stories?
Matthew 15:37
New International Version
They all ate and were satisfied. Afterward the disciples picked up seven basketfuls of broken pieces that were left over.
Thayer's Greek Lexicon
a. to feed with herbs, grass, hay, to fill or satisfy with food, to fatten; animals ...
b. to fill or satisfy men ... to fulfill or satisfy the desire of anyone
OP:
Jesus ...
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This is an old chestnut! How to translate so that it makes sense in the receiving language? Here is a more glaring example in Rev 2:23
and I will strike her children dead. And all the churches will know
that I am he who searches mind and heart, and I will give to each
of you according to your works.
The word translated "mind" is actually νεφρός ...
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The ESV is more faithful to the Semitic world in which Jesus lived, and is the way someone in that time & place would have actually said it. The NIV is more faithful to the way this would be understood in English--the ESV conveys the word, the NIV conveys the meaning.
The thinking organ
A useful passage to reference is found in Deuteronomy 6
4 Hear, O ...
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In support of and in addition to what Dottard has already said, Matthew 5:22 is the only passage in the Bible where the term raca is used.
Raca comes from the Aramaic term reqa. It was a derogatory expression meaning “empty-headed,” insinuating a person’s stupidity or inferiority. It was an offensive name used to show utter contempt for another person. ...
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The word in Matt 5:22 is ῥακά, sometimes spelled ῤαχά. According to BDAG, the listed meaning is:
a term of abuse/put-down relating to lack of intelligence, numbskull, fool (in effect, verbal bullying) Matt 5:22, a term of abuse derived from the Aramaic.
Similarly, Thayer gives this meaning:
ῤακά (Tdf. ῤαχά; (the better accentuation seems to be ῤακά; cf. ...
2
It is important to note that John 10:33 was spoken by Jesus' opponents
(New International Version):
"We are not stoning you for any good work," they replied, "but for blasphemy, because you, a mere man, claim to be God."
God.
Θεόν (Theon)
Noun - Accusative Masculine Singular
Strong's Greek 2316: A deity, especially the supreme Divinity; ...
1
The Jews answered him, “It is not for a good work that we are going to stone you but for blasphemy, because you, being a man, make yourself God.” (John 10:33 ESV)
ἀπεκρίθησαν αὐτῷ οἱ Ἰουδαῖοι περὶ καλοῦ ἔργου οὐ λιθάζομέν σε ἀλλὰ περὶ βλασφημίας καὶ ὅτι σὺ ἄνθρωπος ὢν ποιεῖς σεαυτὸν θεόν
The answer is straight forward. The Greek language of that period ...
3
As often is the case, it is both grammar and dogma/theology that has rendered 'God' - but mostly dogma. The key to understanding difficult or strange passages is to seek other verses input and the consistent message God has left through the whole text.
If we eliminate the bias that has crept into the text we will see this consistent message clearly. We can ...
2
It is definitely "theology/context." Before getting to John 10:33 "specifically," lets look at what happened before Jesus quoted Psalm 82:6.
So let me pose this question? What did Jesus say to cause the Jews to want to accuse Him of blasphemy resulting in His death on that cross?
John 5:16, "And for this reason the Jews were ...
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This is definitely a grammatical problem and is subtle. The matter at hand in John 10:33 is what Daniel B Wallace in "Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics" (GGBB) calls "Qualitative Predicate Nominatives. Let is take some non-threatening examples.
In each of these case we will have two nouns in the nominative case connected or correlated by a ...
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It is grammar or theology that causes translators to typically translate John 10:33 as “declare Yourself to be God” as opposed to “a god”?
The Emphatic Diaglott New Testament (1942) John 10:33
Answered him the Jews saying: Concerning a good work not we stone thee, but concerning blasphemy, and that thou, a man being, makest
thyself a god.
NWT John 10:33
...
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First of all you got to be of The Same Spirit and the same mind as the father the only way is to take on your identity as a son or daughter then you will be in line with the father , in this the Holy Spirit will reveal and show you things to come he is the spirit of Truth. We have the mind of Christ so that we may know the things that God has freely given us....
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Concerning the Greek word for Jerusalem,
http://ntresources.com/blog/?page_id=2549
When it is written as a neuter, it is always plural. This is apparently a stereotyped/ frozen form and the plural carries no particular significance. This may be a carry-over from Hebrew which is a “frozen dual” form ...
because it is a “foreign” word, not a Greek word. That ...
1
Let's see the context:
NIV John 20:15 He asked her, “Woman, why are you crying? Who is it you are looking for?”
Thinking he was the gardener, she said, “Sir, if you have carried him away, tell me where you have put him, and I will get him.”
16Jesus said to her, “Mary.”
She turned toward him and cried out in Aramaic, “Rabboni!” (which means “Teacher”).
...
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The Greek verb is δεκατόω (dekatoó) which occurs only in Heb 7:6 and 9. Its definition is given in BDAG as:
collect, receive tithes
Thayer provides a little more detail:
δεκατόω, δεκάτῳ: perfect δεδεκάτωκα; perfect passive δεδεκατωμαι;
(δέκατος); to exact or receive the tenth part (for which Greek writers
use δεκατεύω (Winer's Grammar, 24)): with the ...
1
KJV 26:45a
Then cometh he to his disciples, and saith unto them, Sleep on now, and take your rest:
New King James Version
Then He came to His disciples and said to them, “Are you still sleeping and resting?
The New KJV uses very different wordings compared with the old KJV. Whatever "Sleep on now" means, they have updated it for the modern ...
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Ahh! This is easy. The Greek verb in Mark 6:14 is ἔλεγον which is Imperfect Indicative Active - 3rd Person Plural, ie, "they were saying".
Thus, because the verb is plural, it cannot refer to Herod, else the verb would be singular. [Note that "they" is not in the text but supplied by all translators, correctly, to make sense in English....
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Adding what wasn't in the answers, there is a grammatical issue in the meaning. Much depends on how you translate the present middle imperative verb ἅπτου. Robertson's interpretation is "stop clinging" because "don't touch" would be aorist middle imperative.
Touch me not (μη μου ἁπτου [mē mou haptou]). Present middle imperative in ...
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The word seemion occurs 70 times in the Christian Greek scriptures, according to Bagster’s ‘Englishman’s Greek Concordance of the New Testament’. There it is variously rendered as sign / signs; miracle / miracles (19 times); token (once in 2 Thess. 3:17). The vast majority is ‘sign/s’ = 50 times. But you only ask for the meaning in the Book of the Revelation....
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Simplicity always seem to be sacrificed for deeper meanings. Jesus is referred to as the prince of peace and here he is referred to as the prince of life. He is referred to as the author and finisher of our faith. Most importantly, he was killed and God raised him from the dead...(He who raised Jesus from the dead shall also quicken your mortal bodies).
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https://www.biblestudytools.com/lxx/job/
In many places Job is difficult to translate because of its many unusual words and its style. For that reason, modern translations frequently differ widely. Even the pre-Christian translator(s) of Job into Greek (the Septuagint) seems often to have been perplexed. The Septuagint of Job is about 400 lines shorter than ...
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"Whom He predestined, He also called." This has a syntax error. Let me rewrite it as follows:
He also called whom he predestined.
The proper English is as follows:
He also called whom that he predestined.
The word "whom" is the object. It does not serve as a relative pronoun in this case. If you want to use it as a relative pronoun, you ...
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In 28, the dative articles, tois … tois, are demonstrative adjectives modifying verbal adjectives. They effectively identify “the ones” loving God with “the ones” purposefully called, for whose good God works all things. In 29 Paul looks at the beginning and the end of a deliberate process. The foreknowing, in light of 28 and the “gar” (introducing the ...
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There is no evidence whatsoever in the Gospels that those who welcomed Jesus were the ones who called for his crucifixion. For some decades there were disciples and admirers of Jesus in Jerusalem. When a high priest took advantage of the absence of a governor to have the brother of Jesus (Jacob/James, leader of the earliest Jesus community) killed, there ...
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There were two Sabbaths on the week of the death of the Messiah. Chag HaMatzot, Aviv 15 and the weekly Sabbath on Aviv 17. The preparation day on that week, Aviv 14 was on our Wednesday, the fourth day of the week. The 15th on Thursday, a Sabbath, skip a day and on the 17th, the weekly Sabbath. "After the Sabbaths and toward the first day of the week.&...
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John 20:17 always puzzled me.
"Jesus saith to her, 'Be not touching me, for I have not yet ascended
unto my Father; and be going on to my brethren, and say to them, I
ascend unto my Father"
It puzzled me because of the verb translated 'ascended', which I assume referred (logically enough) to the Ascension. But others touched Jesus before the ...
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I'll like to say this, the word 'feed' in VS 15(boskō) and 16(poimainō) is different even though they seem to represent the same thing... But 'boskō' further means 'to keep' while 'poimainō' further means 'to rule'...
VS 15:-
Keep my young believers
Vs16:-
Rule my mature ones
Vs17:-
Keep my mature ones.
Keep them unto maturity and rule them with/through my ...
2
English Standard Version Acts 7:19
He dealt shrewdly with our race and forced our fathers to expose their infants, so that they would not be kept alive.
https://biblehub.com/acts/7-19.htm
to abandon
ἔκθετα (ektheta)
Adjective - Accusative Neuter Plural
Strong's Greek 1570: Cast out, exposed (to the elements), abandoned. From ek and a derivative of tithemi; ...
1
Given the dynamics of the words πλησίον and רֵעַ, what did Jesus illustrate with the Good Samaritan?
The simplest answer to this good question is that Jesus wanted to illustrate exactly what the OP's analysis of the word clearly teaches, that a neighbor is the one who is close and needs our help.
Note Jesus' own conclusion to the His parable in Luke 10:36, 37 -
36 Which of these three do you think was a neighbor to the man who fell into the hands of ...
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If we read the entire occurrence in Mark it can be extracted that the Lord was upset that this man was going to broadcast the healing and make it impossible for the Lord to continue to minister openly in the city. The Lord has perfected prophetic powers, He knew what the man was going to do, he warned him sternly not to do it, He knew the man would do it ...
1
The best summary for the meaning of γραφή is given by BDAG which I summarize here. It gives two basic meanings and some sub-meanings as follows:
a brief piece of writing - this meaning not used in the NT
sacred scripture, (a) an individual Scripture passage, eg, Mark 12:10, 15:28, Luke 4:21, John 13:18, 19:24, 36, Acts 1:16, 8:35, Rom 11:2, 2 Tim 3:16, ...
2
even if you do not believe the second stem of μονογενής is not from γεννάω (gennaō), but rather the noun γένος Kittle describes this use IV 737 as the only descendent from a man or a woman. This is in fact the only way the first three uses can be interpreted in the New Testament. Luke 7:12 Luke 8:42 and Luke 9:38. The two uses in Psalms if literalized to ...
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According to John's Gospel, the "one who was" is The Word (1:1),
And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we have seen his glory, glory as of the only Son from the Father, full of grace and truth. (John 1:14, ESV)
and "ὁ ὢν" is the μονογενὴς Θεὸς in the bosom of the Father (1:18)
I am [ἐγώ εἰμι NA28] the way, and the truth, ...
3
Let us tread very carefully here as there are minefields to the left and right. However, I congratulate the OP on noticing a very significant connection between these important titles.
It is true that John ascribes the unusual title, "ὁ ὢν καὶ ὁ ἦν καὶ ὁ ἐρχόμενος" (or a slight variant) as follows:
Rev 1:4 - Grace and peace to you from him who is,...
2
There are three distinct pronouns in this short clause:
ἡμεῖς [G1473] καὶ αὐτοὶ [G846] ἐν ἑαυτοῖς [G1438] στενάζομεν
Literal Standard Version
we also ourselves groan in ourselves
G1473 is the first-person pronoun.
G846 is the emphatic personal pronoun.
G1438 is the reflexive pronoun.
In English, we do not distinguish between emphatic and reflexive ...
1
Could the aorists be timeless, but representing actions in each case that are no less decisive and complete: "Those whom he justifies, these he also glorifes"?
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I've heard Larry Katz, ThM DTS (1965) state that the Greek context was connecting the two ποιμένας and διδασκάλους. He was my pastor for many years and a great Biblical Hermeneutics pastor and teacher he was. We were studying the gifts obviously, and he went into detail saying that this passage made in clear that in this particular list of gifts, pastor/...
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IMHO, the best translation of the word σημεῖον (sémeion) is "portent" or "omen", or in more vernacular, "sign". Note the two main meanings as listed in BDAG:
a sign or distinguishing mark whereby something is known, sign token, indication, eg, Luke 1:12, Matt 26:48, etc.
an event that is an indication of confirmation of ...
3
The Greek word 'semeion' is one of John's favorite words.
Mark used it 6 times.
Matthew 9
Luke 9
John 17 times in his gospel, and
7 times in Revelations.
Thayer's Greek Lexicon
a sign, mark, token;
universally, that by which a person or a thing is distinguished from others and known
a sign, prodigy, portent, i. e. an ...
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