New answers tagged greek
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JOHN 3:36 He who believes in the Son has everlasting life; and he who does not believe the Son shall not see life, but the wrath of God abides on him.”
For the most part, the ‘Greek’ is accurately translated, it is pretty straightforward. BUT - The only real part of the Greek that could be ‘argued’ is the translation of ‘on’ - [Greek] ‘epi’ - “the wrath of ...
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Why call the Lamb in Revelation by the diminutive "Ἀρνίον" not "Ἀρήν"?
A simple reason is that Ἀρήν was not used in the nominative. It's the form that you look up in the dictionary, but it is only documented in inscriptions 700 - 800 years earlier (VII-VI BC). It was no longer used in Greek by anyone and hadn't been for centuries.
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The theme here is in Ro 10.14:
Πῶς οὖν ἐπικαλέσωνται εἰς ὃν οὐκ ἐπίστευσαν; πῶς δὲ πιστεύσωσιν οὗ οὐκ ἤκουσαν; πῶς δὲ ἀκούσωσιν χωρὶς κηρύσσοντος;
How can people call upon the one who they do not believe? How can they believe the one they have not heard? How can they hear without someone preaching?
The path is, reversing the order, hearing the message, ...
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There were those who despised others who in their assembly.
At that time remember the kingdom powers were still present among them
that led to the judgment of those who had offended. Paul warns them to judge themselves to see if they were despising those in their assembly who had nothing.
Or do you despise the church of God and humiliate those who have ...
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You asked … “My question is: what is the reason, in Paul's mind, for the ills befalling them?”
Paul already answered that question - quite clearly -
1 COR 11:29 For he who eats and drinks in an unworthy manner eats and drinks judgment to himself, not discerning the Lord’s body.
The ‘ills’ befell them because they were not discerning the Lord’s body. But I ...
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Luke 22:14
'he reclined at table and the apostles with him'.
One group; shared experience; close relationships.
Luke 22:22
'the Son of Man goes as it has been determined".
Truth taught; One body of understanding.
Luke 22:19
'This is my body'.
One body represented and participated in.
Luke 22:19
'Do this in remembrance of me'.
me/One body; shared ...
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In modern English, the words "spirit" & "ghost" are often used interchangeably. In ancient Greek, πνεῦμα & Φάντασμά are sometimes used interchangeably as well (see here).
The word Φάντασμά occurs only twice in the New Testament (Matthew 14:26 & the parallel account in Mark 6:49; related words are found elsewhere though); the ...
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May I share an answer with you? Do you know how many hairs are on your head! Of course not! The Holy inspired Scriptures say that our great and mighty God knows the number of the very hairs on your head! Since he does and we don’t! I am sure this is very clear he knows how many angels he created before his complete creation in the beginning however we don’t!...
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There are several matters here.
1. Meaning of the verb δικαιόω (dikaioó)
It is true that most of the time, dikaioó means acquit or vindicate. However, according to BDAG, one of its shades of meaning is:
3. to cause someone to be released from personal or institutional claims that are no longer pertinent or valid, make free/pure, eg,
Acts 13:38, 39, Rom 6:7,...
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Romans 6:6-7, "Knowing this, that our old "man/old self" was crucified with Him, that are body of sin might be done away with, that we should no longer be slaves to sin."
"Old man" refers to our former self, the unregenerate son of Adam. We were put to death with Christ. The emphasis is on the conclusion or results of an action. ...
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Great question that involves the difference between Greek and Hebrew expressions/idiom.
It is well said that the NT is almost all written in Hebrew with Greek words. This aphorism expresses the style of language used in the NT - it constantly uses Hebrew idiom and expressions but written in Greek language.
"Flame of fire" is a quintessentially ...
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It is an awkward way to put a fairly simple fact.
This awkwardness gave rise to textual variations in an attempt to make it easier.
Let's put it in context.
He was teaching one day to pharisees scribes from all the towns of Galilee, Judah and Jerusalem.
(17 last part) And the lord had power for him to heal.
People brought a cripple to him but they couldn't ...
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The Greek sentence in Luke 5:17 reads (NA28/UBS5 etc):
καὶ δύναμις Κυρίου ἦν εἰς τὸ ἰᾶσθαι αὐτόν = (literally) and power of
[the] Lord was for(in) to heal him.
Let is observe several features of the grammatical structure:
αὐτόν = "him" here is accusative and thus is either object of the verb "to heal" (unlikely because there is no ...
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God The Father created me, I am His biological child. I became estranged. I repented and was then properly PLACED into my position in His family.
I was not adopted in the sense that God took me, as someone else's child, into His family.
Just like the prodigal son was placed back into his position as his father's son, so am I.
The prodigal son returned back ...
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Welcome to the site!
There are, broadly speaking, 4 possibilities:
The "accidental pun" theory: Jesus & Nicodemus spoke in Aramaic, and the word-play was not intended by Jesus. There are no early historians who substantiate this interpretation.
Jesus & Nicodemus spoke in Hebrew -- or at least had Hebrew OT passages in mind -- this ...
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This answer goes along with the assumption of the question that Jesus and Nicodemus spoke Herew/Aramaic in this conversation. It shows that the double meaning of ἄνωθεν could have well been present in Hebrew/Aramaic. Thus, this is not a reason to say Jesus didn't speak with this double meaning.
While it's answering a similar but different question, this ...
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Sarah is the subject of the verb ἔλαβεν (acquired, got, received).
That verb takes an object in the accusative, that is, "get something", the something in Greek would be in the accusative, that is δύναμιν, power and even powerful deed, miracle.
The second accusative καταβολήν is in the accusative because it is governed by the preposition εἰς which ...
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As pointed out in a comment to you, below your question, there is another very similar question that has received very many answers. Combined with the three accepted answers so far, this only serves to show the futility of asking such a question, good though it is, important though it is! The problem is that people give their personal interpretations of the ...
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In addition to the answer given by Ylzm Ma, allow me to present a few insights I have gleaned from the 1998 publication ‘The Revelation of Jesus Christ’ by John Metcalfe.
The adversaries and enemies of God and His Anointed are revealed and unmasked in the previous parallel openings, although Babylon has only the briefest of mentions. The sixth opening ...
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Introduction
Although elements of the explanation unpacked in your question detail are popular amongst certain denominations and schools of thought, I don’t believe this view is supported by the context and structure of the prophecy containing this vision, namely the unsealed scroll prophecy, starting at ch 10. If you will indulge me in a rather long (albeit ...
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First you have to understand that the miracles and what Jesus would say and the works was given to HIM by the FATHER.
John 17:4 I have glorified thee on the earth: I have finished the work which thou gavest me to do
John 12:49 For I have not spoken of myself; but the Father which sent me, he gave me a commandment, what I should say, and what I should speak
...
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The Bride of Christ who whored herself as prophesised in Hosea. It is foreshadowed in ancient Israel, and in the Holocaust. And it will come to the churches who fall short, shortly.
The key to her identification in the world is the following:
Then the angel said to me, “The waters you saw, where the prostitute
was seated, are peoples and multitudes and ...
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Just as Moses lifted up the serpent so must the Son of Man be lifted up...
What Moses lifted up by God's command (the serpent fashioned of bronze) was a representation of the righteous judgement of God that was killing the people.
The question to ask is: In what way is Jesus lifted up on the cross a representation of the righteous judgement of God that is ...
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The OP's suggestion is not supported by either the meaning and use of the word nor it origin. Every lexicon I consulted (there are lots) only has a meaning similar to that in BDAG for χήρα:
a woman whose husband has died, widow
Further, this derived from the basic meaning of χῆρος, 'bereft'; akin to χέρσος, sterile, barren. Thus, it is used of a city ...
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To answer your question: widow cannot mean never-married. By definition, a widow is a woman who has been married and her husband is dead.
Not sure that is your question though. Your presentation is difficult to follow. I am just answering your question in your heading.
Every since antiquity, centuries before the present passage, χήρα has meant "widow&...
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1 Tim. 5:12 "their first faith" does not mean their first marriage but their vow to continence.
In context:
But the younger widows avoid. For when they have [vowed to remain unmarried and] grown wanton in Christ, they will marry:
Having damnation, because they have made void their first faith.
Marrying does not bring damnation (1 Cor. 7:36) but ...
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A problem with the verse if it just says that Jesus is God's only Son, is that God has many sons, not just one. "...and all the sons of God shouted for joy" at creation (Job 38:7). That was before the first human son of God was created, bear in mind. Adam was called a son of God too (Luke 3:38). And God is "bringing many sons to glory" (...
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The best meaning according to usage of μονογενής is only or unique. However, there isn't complete agreement over it never meaning only begotten, while sometimes translating it only begotten doesn't make sense.
Logos Bible Software indicates that μονογενής only has the sense of unique in the New Testament.
Figure 1. Senses of μονογενής in the New Testament.
...
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The operative word here is μονογενής (monogenes) - a word that occurs 9 times, whose meaning is contentious because of the Arian vs Trinitarian controversy. The contention is best illustrated by its translation in the earliest version, Jerome’s Vulgate of 400 AD (and reproduced in the Clementine text).
3 times it applies to a parent’s only child (Luke 7:12,...
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The Greek word “MONOGENES” was translated “only begotten” in this verse. μονογενής monogenḗs, mon-og-en-ace'; only-born, i.e. sole:—only (begotten, child), single of its kind.
This word is used only nine times in the New Testament with five of these times referring to Jesus (John 1:14, 18, 3:16, 18; and 1 John 4:9). The other three instances clearly refer to ...
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The only difference in Greek Interlinears for this verse lies in the literal English translation. The Greek text is the same in all of them, so this is a matter of how to interpret the words. Interlinears put it all in the present tense in the literal translation immediately below the Greek, thus:
"Then he is coming toward the disciples and is saying ...
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Let me begin by stating the obvious, that while water is relatively common material on earth, it is not the most common and most of the material on earth cannot be constructed from the chemical, H2O.
The simplest explanation for 2 Peter 3:5 is its reference to Gen 1 where we learn that at the beginning of creation week, before, God created the world (the ...
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