New answers tagged greek
1
vote
John 6:40 see/behold/looks “On the Son” what does it mean?
that everyone who looks on the Son and believes in him should have eternal life, and I will raise him up on the last day.
(John 6:40b, ESV)
This appears to allude to the bronze serpent Moses lifted ...
- 16.5k
1
vote
John 6:40 see/behold/looks “On the Son” what does it mean?
Even in modern English, we use the idiom of "seeing" to sometimes mean, "understanding" or mentally grasping something. When someone clearly explains something, the "...
- 71.9k
0
votes
How should John 10:17-18 be understood?
John 10:17, 18 is a great text for Unitarians, Arians, Binitarians and Trinitarians!!!! (A deliberate punctuation pun!)
Actually, there are two cardinal verbs in this passage, both extremely common in ...
- 71.9k
0
votes
Query on translation to "angels" in Luke 9:26b
The scene in Luke 9:21-27 happened in the last year of Jesus' mission, and it was time to reveal His Death and resurrection to His disciples. Though His disciples did not understand what it meant, but ...
- 159
1
vote
The ‘he’ in 2 Thessalonians 2:7
I just wrote on this subject, then got the idea to see if there was anyone else commenting on this very question, and I found you all. Here is how I see it from what I just finished writing:
Going ...
2
votes
In Galatians 4:4, does the shift from indicative active to participle middle imply a difference in time?
Since all four verbs in Gal 4:4 are aorist, all are essentially past tense so no difference in time is implied.
However, the more important difference occurs between the distinction of the first two ...
- 71.9k
0
votes
Query on translation to "angels" in Luke 9:26b
Stong's Greek 32 - "aggelos" with the phonetic spelling "ang-e-los" a messenger
Excerpt from Biblehub.com -
"32 ággelos – properly, a messenger or delegate – either human (Mt ...
- 8,594
6
votes
Query on translation to "angels" in Luke 9:26b
ἄγγελος simply means messenger, the word itself can be equally applied to mortal messengers or non-mortal messengers.
In English, "angel" has come to be understood as a reference to a ...
- 14.2k
1
vote
The difference between zao and zaomai
The famous declaration of Hab 2:4 is:
Look at the proud one; his soul is not upright—but the righteous
will live by faith
Three times in the NT this verse is quoted or paraphrased:
Rom 1:17 - For ...
- 71.9k
1
vote
The difference between zao and zaomai
Many verbs in middle or passive have mainly or only middle meaning. There is no passive form of Zao (to live), but only middle. Sometimes middle/passive forms are written the same way, but we infer ...
- 3,108
2
votes
How to interpret ἐμαρτύρουν αὐτῷ in Luke 4 22?
The OP's question reduces to the the specific structure of the clause:
πάντες ἐμαρτύρουν αὐτῷ = all were bearing witness/testifying to/for/about him.
The verb ἐμαρτύρουν (were bearing witness/...
- 71.9k
0
votes
Does the Latin Vulgate propagate a translation error in Genesis 3:15?
If I say "I will teach your son at my school" it could just be that I oversee the one(s) who actually do it. So He/she will crush the head both apply. 'She' can be looked at as a fuller ...
- 41
4
votes
What is the difference of the words πόρνος (pornos) alongside μοιχός (moichos) in Hebrews 13:4 compared to πορνείας (porneias) in 1 Thess 4:3?
Here are the lexical meanings of these three words from BDAG:
πορνεία (porneia)
unlawful sexual intercourse, prostitution, unchastity, fornication, eg, 1 Cor 5:1ab, 2 Cor 12:21, Gal 5:19, Eph 5:3, ...
- 71.9k
0
votes
1 Peter 2:2 textual variations, which is proper?
Logical Religion
Neither of the versions are proper. The word is logical, not spiritual:
λογικός (logikos) 'spiritual' (G3050)
(Adjective Accusative Singular Neuter)
spiritual, logical
Thayer:
...
- 3,108
1
vote
In Romans 6:7, why is δεδικαίωται translated "freed" in many English versions?
Because they interpret death in the verse as ordinary natural death, as opposed to the ethical sacrificial death in Christ, dying to sin in repentance towards God. None of those verses cited in favour ...
- 3,108
1
vote
1 Peter 2:2 textual variations, which is proper?
The only textual quibble in 1 Peter 2:2 is whether the word translated "crave" should be ἐπιποθήσατε or ἐπιποθέω; almost all GNT editions prefer the former.
The matter raised by the OP is ...
- 71.9k
2
votes
1 Peter 2:2 textual variations, which is proper?
As I understand it, the question is effectively whether 'Word' is authentic to the earliest texts of this passage, and whether it is right to include or omit this term.
I was expecting this to be a ...
- 5,191
0
votes
Inconsistent interpretations of the word "until" in Matthew 1:25 and Luke 12:59?
again this is a matter of NOT taking your grammar and learning above the FAITH
Pope John Paul II made several corrections to the Neo-Vulgata ( or Nova Vulgata) and one was to the Matthew 1:25 because ...
- 41
0
votes
Regarding the ambiguity of the "hanging" of Judas in Matthew 27:5
There is still ambiguity
But this is what gives me pause, these quotes
Even when Jesus says of Judas, the traitor, "It would be better for that man if he had never been born" (Mt 26:24), His ...
- 41
1
vote
What is the relationship between faith and righteousness in Romans 10:10?
It might be relevant that the Christian Latin introduced Believe Into in opposition to Classical Latin
Credo in Unum Deo (Acc of 'in' so directional)
- 41
0
votes
Regarding the ambiguity of the "hanging" of Judas in Matthew 27:5
About a literal understanding of ἀπήγξατο we do have other verses in the new statement clearly arguing against this. I will be short in my demonstration but clear enough, crystal clear I would say. ...
0
votes
What is the significance that the word Sabbath is often plural?
The Lexicon
Here is a summary of the entry in the Bauer, Danker, Arndt, Gringrich (BDAG) Lexicon:1
σάββατον, ου, τό (שַׁבָּת) dat. pl. σάββασιν (Meleager [I]: Anth. Pal. 5. 160; 1 Macc 2:38; Jos. Vi. ...
- 13.5k
2
votes
Is it grammar or theology that causes translators to typically translate John 10:33 as "declare Yourself to be God" as opposed to "a god"?
This answer was copied and pasted from http://www.biblebookprofiler.com/the-forgery-of-john-10-33.html
The Felony Forgery of John 10:33 Article Outline:
Introduction
This trinitarian Felony Forgery ...
- 1,675
-1
votes
Does the Greek of John 20:28 address two persons or one?
Titus 2: 13 is an ambiguous passage like John 20: 28, in the sense that there is more than one possible interpretation available in theory. As such, it cannot be used to prove the Deity of Christ ...
- 1
1
vote
Revelation 10:11. Prophecy ABOUT many nations or TO many nations
The operative word here is the preposition ἐπὶ (epi) which can assume a variety of meanings such as (BDAG):
marker of location, answering the question, Where?
marker of presence of occurrence near an ...
- 71.9k
0
votes
1 Peter 3:15 - Collective Plurals or Distributive Plurals?
The object is more important than the plural subject
It's not about who gives the defense, but about whom the defense is given to
You're asking about the phrase:
[you] (plural) ready to give a ...
- 1,586
1
vote
What does the Greek word “σκωληξ” in Mark 9:44 really mean?
Modern Greek is not ancient Greek. The word for "worm" in ancient Koine Greek is simply σκώληξ (nominative masculine singular). Modern Greek has simplified the language in many respects ...
- 71.9k
0
votes
In 1 Corinthians 15:23 do we overlook a comma after Christ?
You are mistaking the firstfruits as a separate group along with Christ, due to the comma. When Christ is called as the first-fruit. Despite the comma, the firstfruit remains an attribute of Christ. ...
- 3,108
1
vote
Are there two separate reasons given for wanting to stone Jesus?
I'm going to address this question by going to the trial record first and work backwards. At Matthew 26:61 one of the false witnesses states, "This man stated, I am able to destroy this temple of ...
- 3,012
2
votes
Accepted
Why does Romans 14:11 use two different Voices?
It is true that the Greek of Rom 14:11 uses two different voices for the two future-tense verbs, "bow" and "confess". This is an attempt to reflect the verse in the OT from which ...
- 71.9k
1
vote
Why KJV translates 1 Cor. 7:3's ὀφείλω as "due benevolence" and not "debt"?
My extended Liddel & Scott (1864) 1,700 pages gives 'the wider meaning' of οφειλην as :
'to be under an obligation' or to 'have a duty'.
It is not exactly a matter of indebtedness, as such. ...
- 26.3k
Top 50 recent answers are included