New answers tagged greek
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As Strauss wrote, “Nouns in Greek do not change their gender.”1 The Greek noun ἐκκλησία has a feminine grammatical gender which never changes.
Footnotes
1 p. 60
References
Strauss, Mark L. The Biblical Greek Companion for Bible Software Users. Grand Rapids: Zondervan, 2016.
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As indicated in previous comments, the false gods, or idols/demons of the nations, are specifically called אלילים (ELiLiM), from the singular אֱלִיל. Psalm 96(95):5 formulaically recurs in 1 Ch 16:26:
כִּי כָּל-אֱלֹהֵי הָעַמִּים, אֱלִילִים
With St. Jerome likewise translating it as:
“[…] quoniam omnes dii gentium daemonia...”
And, in Lev 26:1, repeating Ex ...
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(This doesn't directly answer the question about Greek grammar, but it should provide a context in which the translation will make most sense.)
The Crucifixion day was known as the "day of preparation":
And now when the even was come, because it was the preparation, that is, the day before the sabbath, — Mark 15:42
And that day was the preparation,...
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Jerome and his peers were, IMHO, were Platonists first and foremost and in the Greco-Roman interpretation of Judaism, Daemons were everywhere. But this is not without Hebrew precedent, as Paul said:
[1Co 10:20 NASB] (20) [No,] but [I say] that the things which the Gentiles sacrifice, they sacrifice to demons and not to God; and I do not want you to become ...
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St. Jerome translates אֱלִילִים (elilim) as dæmonia, too.
Cornelius à Lapide, S.J., commentates on Ps. 95:5:
From the Hebrew, St. Jerome translates: all the gods of the peoples are statues. But he knew that the Hebrew word אלילﬦ elilim does not properly signify demons nor statues. A demon is called שרפכל schedpesel, "statue", but the word elilim ...
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Thomas Sappington, a professor of Intercultural studies, wrote a good scholarly essay Demon Possession where he offers his opinion on the best translation of the term daimonizomai after considering these issues related to a demon's interactions with a person:
related terms: "with an unclean spirit" (en pneumati akathartō) and "having a demon&...
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According to Ellicott's Commentary on Deuteronomy 6:5, the Hebrew word for heart clearly includes the concepts of both thought and affection. The Greek word for heart, however, is not necessarily so obviously includes the idea of thought or mind. To make it explicitly clear, Mark includes the word mind in Mark 12:30.
Ellicott's Commentary
https://biblehub....
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The operative verb in Acts 20:28 is περιποιέω (peripoieo) which occurs only three times in the NT: Luke 17:33, Acts 20:28, 1 Tim 3:13.
Thayer gives the following meaning:
περιποιέω, περιποιῶ: middle, present περιποιοῦμαι; 1 aorist
περιεποιησάμην; (see περί, III. 2); from Herodotus down; "to make to
remain over; to reserve, to leave or keep safe, lay by;...
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Is Matthew 11:12 stating Kingdom of Heaven is associated with exciting and meaningful eventfulness?
Matthew 11:12 [KJV]
"And from the days of John the Baptist until now the Kingdom of Heaven suffereth violence, and the violent take it by force."
Meaning : The Children of Israel have been enslaved / taxed forcibly by nations (Egypt, Babylon, Rome) and have ...
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Given Mark 16:14 - 18, it is apparent that the Markan version of the great commission precedes the commission in Matt. 28:19-20 - given to about 500 disciples in all met Jesus on a mount in Galilee. Also, verse 14 indicates it was in a private setting Jesus spoke explicitly to them (αὐτοῖς), the elevens - the first recipients of the great commission.
However,...
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According to Barley Newman's lexicon (see UBS4 and UBS5 appendix) ἐκκλησίᾳ comes from two Greek words: ἐκ + καλέω = out + call = to call out, or the called out ones.
According to BDAG, ἐκκλησίᾳ means:
A regularly summoned legislative body, assembly, eg, Acts 19:39
a casual gathering of people, an assemblage, a gathering, eg, Acts 19:32, 40
people with ...
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If you are interested in etymology outside of the Bible, it is primarily a legal or political entity:
ἔκ-κλητος, ον, (ἐκκαλέω) selected to judge or arbitrate on a point, ἐ. πόλις an umpire city, Aeschin. 1.89, IG22.111.49,al., cf. Plu.2.215c; ἐν ἐκκλήτῳ δικάσασθαι Michel1335.30; δίκην ὠφληκὼς ἐν τῇ ἐ. IG12(7).67.63 (Amorgos); χρόνος ἔ. time-limit for appeals,...
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Here is the entry in the Liddell/Scott Greek dictionary:
ἐκκλησί-α, ἡ, (ἔκκλητος)
A assembly duly summoned, less general than σύλλογος, Th.2.22, Pl.Grg.456b, etc. ; applied to the Homeric Assemblies, Arist.Pol.1285a11 ; to the Samian Assembly, Hdt.3.142 ; to the Spartan, Th.1.87 ; to the meeting of the Amphictyons at Delphi, Aeschin.3.124 ; at Athens, ἐ. ...
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What is the proper understanding of παιδία in 1 John?
John is expressing his confidence in the "young children" (παιδία) because they have come to know God. Obviously, literally, young children cannot know God, let alone repent and be forgiven for their sins, " verse 12", so John, apparently was referring to the whole congregation.
12 I ...
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ὀλιγόπιστος (oligopistos) occurs only six times in the NT, Matt 6:30, 8:26, 14:31, 16:8, 17:20, Luke 12:28 and always means:
BDAG: of little faith/trust
Thayer: of little faith, trusting too little
Now, NA28, NA27, UBS4, UBS5, W&H, etc, all have ὀλιγόπιστος in Matt 17:20; however, the Byzantine text, Majority, GOC, TR, all have ἀπιστίαν (= unbelief) ...
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Why does the KJV translate ὀλιγοπιστίαν as "unbelief" in Matthew 17:20?
Matthew 14:31 & Matthew 17:20 provide evidence that the KJV interchangeably uses Oligopistia (ὀλιγοπιστίαν) & Apistia (ἀπιστίᾳ), in order to illustrate Unbelief is not a total lack of faith.
While strengthening our little faith ( ὀλιγοπιστίαν ) in God's Word, we ask ...
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"I am" (Gk. Ego eimi/Ho on, Heb. Eyheh/Yahweh) is the first person form of the name of God according to the Old Testament.
Exodus 3:13-15 And Moses said to God, Behold if I shall go to the children of Israel, and say to them, the God of your fathers has sent me to you, and they say to me, What is his name? what shall I say to them?
And God said to ...
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It is not consistent to claim that the "εγω ειμι" in John 9:9 is "clearly identification rather than existence because of the implied predicate" and yet claim that John 8:24 is an instance of existence rather than identification, because according to John 8:18-29, the Jews who had heard him understood very well that he was claiming "...
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The context clearly and unequivocally shows that the addressee is Jesus Christ, for "Thomas answered and said to Him" (ἀπεκρίθη Θωμᾶς καὶ εἶπεν αὐτῷ), and thus both Ὁ κύριός μου and ὁ θεός μου apply to Jesus.
Thomas is simply a sober-minded theologian, driving that what he has heard and seen to a logical conclusion: Jesus, he heard, told while in ...
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It demonstrates both:
A. The Deity of Christ
B. The Divine Inspiration of the Holy Scriptures
Part A. The Deity of Christ
The Christological significance of the words ‘I AM’ is seen in the Old Testament in Exodus 3:14.
Exodus Three (Septuagint)
11 And Moses said to God, Who am I, that I should go to Pharaoh king of Egypt, and that I should bring out the ...
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In the Old Testament, Jehovah’s self-proclaimed title of “I AM” is given special prominence in Ex 3:13-15. While we are told “I Am” was to be God’s name forever, there is no record in the Bible of it ever being used again (in Hebrew) unless we admit the grammatical connection between “I am” and the “Tetragrammaton” (which see), YHWH, commonly translated, “...
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Who is being judged in Romans 3:4?
In BTP09
As tuas palavras, ó Deus, hão de mostrar que és justo e hás de vencer
quando fores julgado.
fores julgado is a common usage of the 2ª person sigular future of the verb "ser" (meaning: to be) where the subject is revealed before in ó Deus (meaning: Oh God).
In NASB
That You may be justified in Your ...
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What is so special about "ego eimi"?
Comparing the definitive "I am" (ἐγώ εἰμι) / (Anoki, אָֽנֹכִי֙) - vs. - The Indefinite "I will be what I will be" / "Ehyeh asher Ehyeh" (אֶֽהְיֶ֖ה אֲשֶׁ֣ר אֶֽהְיֶ֑ה) :
"I am" (ἐγώ εἰμι) is a definitive declaration of being's status, like "Here I am" (Hineni, ...
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In Psalm 35:23, there is a similar statement.
Wake up! Bestir yourself for my defense, for my cause, my God and my Lord!
In the Septuagint this reads at the end:
ο θεός μου και ο κυριός μου
The Psalmist uses identical language, but the ordering of God/Lord is flipped in the LXX translation. Of course, the author here isn't talking to two people. Lord ...
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This is a fantastic verse!
After years of clumsily wandering around the truth that was right there - not just in his midst, but with him most days and most nights... talking, sharing, teaching, reading perhaps and retelling stories of ages past that told of ages future.
The man Jesus, the son of God had called Thomas to be one of the 12! Thomas, like all of ...
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Monogenes in today's scholarship means 'only' based on earliest biblical manuscripts in other languages
Following the scholarly research on the Greek word μονογενης, majority of modern translations had μονογενης as expressing its original semantics based on its morphology: "only-one-of-its-kind" [μονος - one/only + γενος - kind/type]. Thus,
...
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Pointless Squabbling
The dispute regarding the rendering "only-begotten" and "only [son]" is completely unnecessary, simply because "only-begotten" and "only son" are entirely synonymous. If the Son is the only child, he is the only-begotten, if he is the only-begotten, he is the only son; if one objects to the child ...
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Monogenes is a word of the Greek New Testament that occurs 9 times, whose meaning is contentious because of the Arian vs Trinitarian controversy. The contention is best illustrated by its translation in the earliest version, Jerome’s Vulgate of 400 AD.
3 times it applies to a parent’s only child (Luke 7:12, 8:42, 9:38) and is translated “unicus”, unique.
...
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If monogenes (mono + genes) really means 'one of a kind', 'special', 'a single example' and so forth, then what has happened to genes ?
Mono alone means 'one', 'sole', 'single'.
The rejection of monogenes meaning 'only begotten' is too complex and too extensive to properly cover all the many convolutions of argument used in the controversy, on a site such as ...
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If anyone sees his brother sinning a sin which does not lead to death, he will ask, and He will give him life for those who commit sin not leading to death. There is sin leading to death. I do not say that he should pray about that. (NKJV)
ἐάν τις ἴδῃ τὸν ἀδελφὸν αὐτοῦ ἁμαρτάνοντα ἁμαρτίαν μὴ πρὸς θάνατον αἰτήσει καὶ δώσει αὐτῷ ζωήν τοῖς ἁμαρτάνουσιν μὴ ...
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Why does the NIV use ’you’ where the NKJV uses ’he’?
It is simply based on their translation philosophy - the NIV tends and intents to be less formal (literal) and more dynamically equivalent to (translators' perceived meaning of) the Greek. So in translating the Greek and trying to understand the English they used will not be helpful. Interpreting the ...
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When it's not clear from the original language, we look for evidence supporting one leaning over another.
The subject of the passage is God - though this is difficult to follow. Justifying the 'God' inclusion in the translation.
We know that both God and Jesus can give life.
I charge you in the presence of God, who gives life to all things, 1 Timothy 6:13
“...
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OK, here is my very literal translation of 1 John 5:16 -
If (1)anyone should see the brother of (2)him sinning a sin not unto death,
(3)he shall ask and (4)He will give (5)him life, to (6)those sinning not unto
death. There is a sin unto death; not concerning that do (7)I say that
(8)he should implore.
We immediately observe that there are several ...
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It looks like “ΗΝ ΔΕ ΕΓΓΥΣ ΤΟ ΠΑΣΧΑ Η ΕΟΡΤΗ ΤΩΝ ΙΟΥΔΑΙΩΝ” (based on help I received elsewhere), which I would roughly translate as, “and the Passover, the feast of the Jews, was near”. This appears to be John 6:4 (also based on surrounding context).
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What is the meaning of the Greek word “ask” as used in James 1:5?
Εἰ δέ τις ὑμῶν λείπεται σοφίας, αἰτείτω παρὰ τοῦ διδόντος θεοῦ πᾶσιν ἁπλῶς καὶ μὴ ὀνειδίζοντος, καὶ δοθήσεται αὐτῷ.
The Greek word "αἰτείτω" (aiteitō) usually translated "ask" has also the implied meaning of "keep on asking"
God does not miraculously remove our ...
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The relevant portion of 1 Peter 2:8 is:
... οἳ προσκόπτουσιν τῷ λόγῳ ἀπειθοῦντες εἰς ὃ καὶ ἐτέθησαν.1
The differences arise depending on (a) what you do with the nominative masculine plural οἳ at the beginning of the clause quoted above and (b) how you understand the relationship between the verb and the participle.
οἳ could be either (1) an article or (2) ...
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περιεδέδετο , the verb used in John 11:44, is the pluperfect, indicative, middle or passive 3rd person singular (Biblehub) of the verb περιδεω 'to bind around'.
ἐντετυλιγμένον , the verb used in John 20:7, is the perfect participle, middle or passive, accusative neuter singular (Biblehub) of the verb ἐντυλίσσω 'to wrap up'.
There is nothing unusual in these ...
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Neither the word "because" or "being" is in the Greek. Further, the Greek "apeithountes" means "they disobey".
Berean Study Bible
and, “A stone of stumbling and a rock of offense.”
Οἳ προσκόπτουσιν
they disobey the word—and to this they were appointed.
The complication is the phrase Οἳ προσκόπτουσιν which can be ...
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