New answers tagged greek
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The same as that “better sprinkling” in Heb 12:24, intimately linked to the solemn inauguration of the “blood covenant” at Lk 22:20, the Last Supper. Many overlook that that solemn inauguration (the Supper) was offered on Zion, on 14 Nisan (which Jewish tradition holds was the date of Abel and Cain’s sacrifices), allowing the author of Heb to kaleidoscope ...
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The text of John 17:11 has two forms in the second half of the verse. Here is my translation of each form:
1. NA28, UBS5, W&H (incl NWT), Byzantine, Majority, Orthodox, etc
Πάτερ ἅγιε, τήρησον αὐτοὺς ἐν τῷ ὀνόματί σου ᾧ δέδωκάς μοι, ἵνα ὦσιν ἓν καθὼς ἡμεῖς. = Holy Father, keep them in the Name of You which (ᾧ) you have given
Me that they may be one ...
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There is a textual matter in the verse.
πατερ αγιε τηρησον αυτους εν τω ονοματι σου ους δεδωκας μοι
[TR - Beza, Stephanus, Elzevir and Scrivener all identical]
Textus Receptus Bibles
The Textus Receptus (and therefore the KJV translation follows it) has ous (masculine plural - 'whom') whilst the W&H/Nestle Aland text, has ho (neuter singular - 'which')...
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As pointed out by Polyhat, the original Greek verse is ambiguous. Even the English NWT is somewhat ambiguous:
Holy Father, watch over them on account of your own name
Pause here with a coma. It read likes "Holy Father, watch over them with your own name".
which you have given me, in order that they may be one just as we are one.
The name which ...
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To illustrate the problem via an English example:
"It was the one who wrote the book that united the people."
Does "that" refer to "book" or to "the one"? Is it the person who united the people or was it the book that the person had written which united them?
It is impossible to know for sure. The antecedent for &...
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The basic meaning of "justify" is to "declare righteous". A classic example of that is found in Deuteronomy 25:1, where KJV writes
If there be a controversy between men, and they come unto judgment, that the judges may judge them; then they shall justify the righteous, and condemn the wicked.
and NASB has it with different words
If ...
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Lucian provided great links for Greek.
For Hebrew:
HBS with morpholigical tagging:
https://hb.openscriptures.org
Also, check out an online interlinear bible with morphological tags:
https://marvel.bible/index.php?text=MIB&b=1&c=1&v=1
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Check out the Open Greek New Testament, which attempts to be a free NA28 equivalent: https://opengnt.com
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Here are the senses of the word as used in the New Testament (from Logos Bible Software).
The size on the chart is the comparative amount of each meaning as used in the New Testament. Thus, week is a possible meaning, but not as common.
KJV translates
I couldn't find any translation translating Sabbath as Sunday. Sunday is described as the first day of ...
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According to the respected BDAG, the word σάββατον (sabbaton) has exactly two meanings:
the seventh day of the week in Israel's calendar, marked by rest from work and by special religious ceremonies, sabbath, eg, Matt 12:8, Mark 2:27, 6:2, 15:42, 16:1, Luke 6:5, 23, 54, etc.
a period of seven days, week, eg, Matt 28:1, Mark 16:2, Luke 24;1, John 20:1, 19, ...
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If the NSA gets this I may incur their wrath.
In my observations of our new neighbors, especially those in Christian regalia, it occurred to me that they a wide spectrum of people's and when the road builder calibrated their construct, they used a crude map covering the sky, there were over staggering hundred stops. Clearly, the King of the Angels was trying ...
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Very few know that the vers also could be read; “Defiled among women”.
These are they which were not defiled with women; for they are
virgins. These are they which follow the Lamb whithersoever he goeth.
These were redeemed from among men, being the firstfruits unto God and
to the Lamb. (Rev 14:4 - KJV)
ουτοι εισιν οι μετα γυναικων ουκ εμολυνθησαν παρθενοι ...
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Since I have cared for my wife during her dementia, I have had intimate evidence of the defilement that sexual activity involves. Cleaning of the excretions that accumulate in the vaginal area are mute evidence of the defilement that occurs when having intercourse. There is no way to avoid the blood, urine and fecal contamination that co-exist within the ...
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The emphasis of Ephesian 2:10 is "in Christ Jesus". God created this creation (born again) in Christ Jesus when he raised Him from the dead (Read Roman 6). God's creation in Christ is masterful and not of man; that's a "masterpiece".
As a believer, I am his masterpiece, and that's not of man but of God's DOING, and God alone. No wonder ...
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According to the enumeration of the feast days, festivals and holy convocations in Leviticus 23, only the Sabbath of the Week and the Sabbath of the Year (Yom Kippur) are called by the compound nouns in Hebrew Shabbat Shabbathown or “Sabbath of Sabbaths”. No other festival day or holy convocation is called sabbath, a sabbath or the sabbath. Only the Sabbath ...
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It does not make sense that a dog simply means "unclean" in this verse. From my Complete Jewish Bible (CJB), Revelations 22:15 says "outside are the homosexuals".
Homosexuals and those involved with the
Occult
Drugs
Sexually immoral
Murderers
Idol-worshippers
and everyone who practices falsehood
1 Corinthians 6:9-10 says
Unrighteous (...
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In almost every other use of this verb “I do not permit” the dative comes after the verb. Paul intended a different meaning so he used a different word order. Consider this statement with understood accusatives and datives in [ ]:
I do not permit [anyone -dative] to teach [anything -accusative] to a man’s (genitive) wife.
[I do not permit [anyone -dative] ...
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Let me list the different words in the verse of 1 Cor 8-10 -
to one is given a word of wisdom
to another ἄλλος a word of knowledge
to a different one ἕτερος faith
to another ἄλλος gifts of healing
to another ἄλλος working of miracles
to another ἄλλος prophecy
to another ἄλλος the distinguishing of spirits
to a different one ἕτερος various kinds of tongues
...
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1 Corinthians 12 is addressed in v1 to "brothers". Brothers in Christ. They already have salvation faith. But if a special gift of faith is necessary for an exceptional situation then this faith might be different from salvation faith. "another/hetero" could be another type of faith, one for special circumstances other than salvation.
In ...
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HELPS Word-studies
2087 héteros – another (of a different kind). 2087 /héteros ("another but distinct in kind") stands in contrast to 243 /állos ("another of the same kind"). 2087 /héteros ("another of a different quality") emphasizes it is qualitatively different from its counterpart (comparison).
English Standard Version 1 ...
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The context of 1 John 1 is absolutely clear that it refers to hiding your sins, as opposed to the heretic Gnostic idea of being in a perpetual & permanent condition of sinfulness, as Augustine may have taught. God requires confession and repentance, he never says that humans are in a permanent condition of sinfulness. God is eager to forgive our sins (...
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I have argued, even in my post moments ago, that "taste death" is a brilliant polysemous rhetorical device whereby our author alluded to the Last Supper. Yes, of course, on one level it means the objective experience of the crucifixion death, metaphorically expressed. However, that one layer does not exhaust the intended sense, and a second layer ...
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There is no way to interpret Colossians except by bringing in the theology of death, resurrection, and the role of Christ, otherwise the claims made in Colossians about the godhead of Christ will seem too fantastical.
The Death and the Promise
Through Adam, sin and thus death entered the world ("thou shalt surely die"), and Adam's offspring were ...
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ἐκ τῶν νεκρῶν is genitive, masculine plural.
So, no, it is does not refer to the singular, female person called Mary.
It refers to the plural dead from among whom Jesus was raised, as it is written :
thou shalt not leave my soul in hades . . . Psalm 16:10 KJV
Daniel B Wallace states in p371 of 'Beyond the Basics' that :
In general ἐκ has the force of ...
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It is translated rightly in the versions here as "in vain" and "for nothing". The point in Gal 2:21 is that if righteousness still comes from the law then Christ died in vain. It is a deductive argument like 3:3 or 3:21, since they received the spirit by faith apart from the law, therefore it proves that righteousness does not and cannot ...
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When it comes to translated words, it doesn’t always follow that derivative words must absolutely hold to the root word of the translated language.
• δωρεαν - gratuitously
Derived from
• δωρεά - gift
Derived from
• δῶρον - gift made sacrificially, offering
The adverb in English gratuitously is defined as
being without apparent reason, cause, or ...
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Obviously there is no specific translation which is why there are several options rendered.
The word is used for water flowing freely with no restraint Rev 21:6, 22:17. Water flowing without producing anything is pointless - it should do some work to make the flow useful.
If Christ died for no reason, then it has produced nothing, no gain.
They hated me for ...
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I can't address the technicalities of the Greek verb conjugations, but I doubt Jesus spoke Greek on the Cross, whatever John subsequently wrote -- rather Aramaic, or possibly Hebrew.
However, the "all" or "everything" was certainly Jesus' personal life-purpose, to wit his setting aside pre-existing divinity to become born naturally as an ...
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The two verbs are slightly different in meaning:
τελειόω (John 19:28b) to complete an activity, complete, bring to an end, finish, accomplish, eg, John 4:34, 17:4, 5:36, Acts 20:24, Luke 2:43, 13:32, John 19:28, Heb 7:19, 11:40. [BDAG's second and third meaning are not germane here.] Thus, Jesus was suggesting that another prophecy of Scripture need to be ...
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You asked ...”Was scripture incomplete, but "all" was complete?”. Fortunately the Bible gives a full list of what needs to happen in order for ‘all’ to be completed/finished.....
DANIEL 9:24 Seventy ‘sevens’ are decreed for your people and your holy city to finish transgression, to put an end to sin, to atone for wickedness, to bring in everlasting ...
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I’m interested to know what the flask represents? Does anyone know? I think that “oil in their lamps” represents asking Holy Spirit to reveal what He is saying as we read His Word (Thy Word is a lamp unto my path).
I’m keen to know what Jesus meant by the virgins taking oil in flasks along with their lamps. How do we apply this to our own lives-what is the ...
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John 2:10
New International Version
and said, “Everyone brings out the choice wine first and then the cheaper wine after the guests have had too much to drink [G3184]; but you have saved the best till now.”
G3184 is ambigious. NASB Translation:
drunk (3), drunk freely (1), drunkards (1), get drunk (1), made drunk (1).
There is another related Greek word ...
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One can drink alcohol without becoming drunk. Only those who drink too much alcohol pass from the biblical state of thanking God for "wine that makes glad the heart of man" (Psalm 104:15) to being drunk. That Psalm of praise details why we should bless the Lord our God. In the list of things we thank God for is "oil to make [our] face to ...
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The commenter above failed to show how the virgins are literally following a literal lamb.
Plus how do women defile men by having sex according to the Old Testament?
Nowhere in the Bible speaks of it. A woman on her cycle is termed as ritually unclean in the OT, but guess what, the man is termed as ritually unclean too every time he releases sperm.
So I ask ...
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I argue for scribal text.
Josephus wrote that it was generally considered "common" (lowly, base, vulgar) for a Jew to learn or speak Greek, or any other Gentile language. Even for servants (slaves) of Jews to speak Gentile languages was discouraged:
Antiquities of the Jews, Volume 20, Chapter 11
I have also taken a great deal of pains to obtain ...
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Here is the meaning of the word they used for Judas's destruction.
Apoleia:
Cognate: 684 apṓleia (from 622 /apóllymi, "cut off") – destruction, causing someone (something) to be completely severed – cut off (entirely) from what could or should have been. (Note the force of the prefix, apo.) See 622 (apollymi).
684 /apṓleia ("perdition") ...
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The distinction between what the writer hears and his own added "interpretation" is usually documented as such. For example:
Matt 1:23 - "Behold, the virgin will hold in womb, and will bring forth a son, and they will call His name Immanuel" which is, being translated, "God with us."
Mark 5:41 - And having taken the hand of ...
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Is Judas cursed to eternal damnation? (John 17:12)
The son of destruction: In this context, the expression refers to Judas Iscariot, whose deliberate betrayal of God’s Son made Judas subject to eternal destruction, one who was unworthy of a resurrection. The same expression is used at 2Th 2:3 with reference to “the man of lawlessness.”
2 Thessalonians 2:3 ...
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There are a few references to Judas being finally lost as per the following:
John 6:70 - Jesus answered them, “Have I not chosen you, the Twelve? Yet one of you is a devil!”
Matt 26:23-25 - Jesus answered, “The one who has dipped his hand into the bowl with Me will betray Me. The Son of Man will go just as it is written about Him, but woe to that man by ...
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What's throwing you is the brevity of wording and the use of the subjunctive, the latter of which is increasingly rare in contemporary English.
If it were a simple statement it would just be 'thy kingdom comes', and here we're praying 'We pray that thy kingdom comes'. But that would jar in the ear of an English speaker before the 20th century because the ...
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I won't rehash the Greek imperatives other than to say 3rd person imperatives in Greek are more like a request while 2nd person imperatives are commands.
Dealing what Jesus might have spoken, looking at the Peshitta and Hebrew translations, there is too much variation to say what is possible, other than Jesus would have used the imperfect tense with a ...
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The first observation to be made is that μονογενής (Strong's G3439 - monogenēs) is an adjective, and its general sense is "only, single" (see also at LSJ).
In John 1:14, μονογενής is used on its own, therefore as a substantival adjective.
In John 1.18, we read the expression μονογενὴς θεὸς, therfore the first question is, is μονογενὴς used as an ...
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The footnote appended by NET Bible to John 15:12 may help:
1sn Now the reference to the commandments (plural) in
15:10 have been reduced to a singular commandment: The
disciples are to love one another, just as Jesus has loved them. This
is the ‘new commandment’ of John 13:34, and it is repeated in
15:17. The disciples’ love for one another is compared to ...
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Q1
The verb here is Ἐλθέτω (elthetō), meaning "to come", and it is in the imperative form (think "commanding" something). Other ways to render this in English would be statements such as "let it come", "may it come", or, if we wanted to apply the seldom used English subjunctive to capture some nuance, my translation ...
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The operative verb referenced by the OP in the Lord's prayer is ἐλθέτω from the root verb ἔρχομαι. The form ἐλθέτω is Aorist Imperative Active - 3rd Person Singular. Strictly, this might be translated something like:
Let the kingdom of God come [as a command]
Note that this verb is neither perfect (ie, has a completed aspect) nor is it future (ie, your ...
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One possible way of understanding is to read "monogenus" as "one-of-a-kind" as mentioned. This could be rendered as "incomparable" as with
Isaiah 40:18, To whom then will you liken God, or what likeness compare with him? an Idol?
Also many scholars argue that the Gospel of Thomas and the Gospel of John are related in ...
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The translators are not likely to have made an attempt to water down the meaning here so much as to merely translate the grammar correctly.
The Greek word used in John 2:10 is in the Greek aorist subjunctive passive form. When we say in English "he is drunk", we are using the word "drunk" as an adjective, not as a verb, and it is clearly ...
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