New answers tagged

0 votes

Why did the angel speak to Mary in the future tense (Lk. 1:26-38)?

The future tense is usually used to express a plan or prediction. It does not necessarily mean that an action or event will take place for certain. An example is when I say, “I will do my homework ...
Nhi's user avatar
  • 3,431
1 vote

In John 1:1c, should the Greek word θεὸς be translated into English as “a god” or “God”?

Answer IF in John 1:1c, the anarthrous (without article) Greek word “THEOS” can be translated as “a god” (with small “g”) for Jesus Christ, THEN it can be applied to God the Almighty Father as well! ...
Nephesh Roi's user avatar
1 vote

Does the Greek text for Mark 15:33 contain an example of an aorist participle whose action occurs before the action of the main verb?

The Englishman's Greek New Testament renders Mark 15:33 as : and being come hour sixth darkness came over all the land until hour ninth. Biblehub states that both verbs (the participle and the ...
Nigel J's user avatar
  • 31k
0 votes

Does the Greek text for Mark 15:33 contain an example of an aorist participle whose action occurs before the action of the main verb?

I would challenge the assertion that in Mark 15:33, γενομένης acts adverbially to ἐγένετο - I do not believe that ἐγένετο is modified at all. Indeed, both are the same verb! The simplest way to see ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 104k
0 votes

Why did the angel speak to Mary in the future tense (Lk. 1:26-38)?

In Lk 1:36 ( KJV) the Angel cites the case of Elizabeth to reassure Mary that nothing is impossible to God ; And, behold, thy cousin Elisabeth, she hath also conceived a son in her old age: and this ...
Kadalikatt Joseph Sibichan's user avatar
1 vote

In what sense is sin said to increase (πλεονάζω) by the introduction of the Law in Romans 5:20?

Sometimes it simply means what is says. The Law was added that people might become more aware of what they should do but can‘t making them sin even more. The Law from a civil stanpoint threatedned ...
Mike's user avatar
  • 12.5k
0 votes

Why did Jesus say He wouldn’t drink of the vine when it seems like He did?

Drink With You Let us not leave out important phrases. Jesus talked about drinking with the disciples. (Matthew 26:29) Being given sour wine (vinegar) to deaden the pain on the cross is hardly what ...
ray grant's user avatar
  • 2,275
4 votes

Why did the angel speak to Mary in the future tense (Lk. 1:26-38)?

The OP has answered the question. As is well-known Greek has three forms of the verb action: active voice where the subject carries out the action on something else middle voice where the subject ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 104k
1 vote

Matthew 5:23-24 Who does adelphos (ἀδελφός, brother) refer to?

BDAG lists two principle meanings of the word ἀδελφός (adelphos), "brother": a male from the same womb as the reference person, brother, eg, Matt 1:2, 11, 4:18, 21, John 1:41, etc a person ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 104k
4 votes

Why did Jesus say He wouldn’t drink of the vine when it seems like He did?

This is less complicated than it appears. First, notice that all the accounts of the last supper never use the word "wine", but always express what was drunk as "the fruit of the vine&...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 104k
0 votes

Why did the angel speak to Mary in the future tense (Lk. 1:26-38)?

Venerable Bede gives some insight into this (Catena Aurea on Luke, cap. 2 l. 10), arguing that the future tense shows that divine and human natures were united in the Second Person of the Holy Trinity:...
Geremia's user avatar
  • 702
5 votes

Why did Jesus say He wouldn’t drink of the vine when it seems like He did?

There are a number of ways to deal with this apparent contradiction. Table Fellowship, not wine-drinking per se. Jesus did not say that he would drink no wine at all; he said he would drink no wine &...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
0 votes

Why did Jesus say He wouldn’t drink of the vine when it seems like He did?

The fruit of the vine He is talking about in Matthew will occur when those who are called in Israel will be enjoying the fruits of Christ shed blood on behalf of their sins. It is in reference to the ...
Sherrie 's user avatar
  • 3,502
2 votes
Accepted

Is the Greek word for "put to death" in Colossians 3:5 nekrosate or nekroō?

Short Answer: The word is indeed Νεκρώσατε (Nekrosate). The Strong's does not explain every form of a word. Instead it shows the root word. This is because Strong’s dictionary is not specific to any ...
Jason_'s user avatar
  • 4,229
0 votes

Are Andronicus and Junia(s) apostles?

Their martyrdom also puts them in the suffering Paul saw as being part of being called apostles. We are regarded as the ...., as men to die in the arena. The attested miracles done by them (according ...
Jaap Miedema's user avatar
-1 votes

Was Jesus raised 'for our justification' or 'because of' it?

This Scripture has been a great blessing to me. Romans 4:25 who was delivered because of our offenses and was raised because of our justification. This translation is exactly correct as it is and ...
FanieO's user avatar
  • 1
1 vote

Galatians 5:4 “fallen from grace/failed to grasp grace” Greek roots

As a Wesleyan/Armenian pastor I would correct the idea that people lose their salvation by sinning. Sin is a symptom of a greater heart issue. Human weakness and poor judgement may appear as sin to ...
Rev Terry Chapman's user avatar
2 votes

John 20:4: προέδραμεν has a singular subject. What does that mean?

προέδραμε(ν) is singular. The plural form is προέδραμον.
Jakub Lédl's user avatar
2 votes

John 20:4: προέδραμεν has a singular subject. What does that mean?

John 20:4 contains two sentences linked by "and/καὶ" as follows: Sentence #1 ἔτρεχον δὲ οἱ δύο ὁμοῦ - but the two were running together Here, the subjects is "two" and the verb &...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 104k
5 votes
Accepted

John 20:4: προέδραμεν has a singular subject. What does that mean?

This is your word of interest: John 20:3-4 NKJV 3 Peter therefore went out, and the other disciple, and were going to the tomb. 4 So they both ran together, and the other disciple outran Peter and ...
Jason_'s user avatar
  • 4,229
0 votes

How do we reconcile John 17:22 with Isaiah 42:8?

Isaiah 42:8 says God will not give His glory to another. John 17:22 Christ gives the glory that the Father gave him to believers so that believers can be one, as Christ and the Father are one. This ...
Mason Simmons's user avatar
0 votes

Why do some translations have a completely opposite interpretation of John 18:37?

The OP states that some English translations render John 18:37 in a way that gives a completely opposite meaning to the majority, “with Jesus appearing to deny what Pilate said.” While there is some ...
Nhi's user avatar
  • 3,431
3 votes

John 1:4-5. If life is the light of men, what is the darkness?

John starts his gospel account referring to Creation (Genesis 1:1 ff., which is mysterious in its wording). John then brings clarity by leaping straight from Creation to the arrival of John the ...
Anne's user avatar
  • 23.6k
1 vote

What is the correct interpretation of Revelation 2:4?

Hermeneutics takes into account factors that include culture, scriptures—both immediate context and allusions, linguistics, etymology, logic, scholarly tradition, and so on. Hopefully, it doesn’t ...
Dieter's user avatar
  • 1,544
0 votes

What is the correct interpretation of Revelation 2:4?

I believe it's do to technology that's moving believers out of an intimate relationship with the LORD "Love (waxing) increasingly growing cold do to smartphones etc...It's much better to spend ...
David Untener's user avatar
0 votes

John 1:4-5. If life is the light of men, what is the darkness?

The verse in John 1:5 about darkness appears to be a direct allusion to Isa 9:1, 2 - a prophecy fulfilled by Jesus: Nevertheless, there will be no more gloom for those in distress. In the past He ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 104k
3 votes

2 Thessalonians 2:8-9 - After/According to OR Against the Working of Satan?

Grammatically, there are two cases to consider: kata when used with the genitive means "against", or, "into/throughout" kata when used with the accusative (as in 2 Thess 2:9) ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 104k
1 vote

John 1:4-5. If life is the light of men, what is the darkness?

A comment from the article "Follow the Light of the World" from the Watchtower of April 1, 1993, says: Light stands for truth and righteousness,in contrast with darkness, which stands for ...
Jim monette's user avatar
3 votes

What is the correct interpretation of Revelation 2:4?

The first hermeneutic principle that sprang to mind was the biblical principle of fact, that: "For the time is come that judgment must begin at the house of God: and if it first begins at us, ...
Anne's user avatar
  • 23.6k
0 votes

What is the correct interpretation of Revelation 2:4?

Rev 2:4 is part of a series of NT verses that allude to the spiritual marriage of Jesus to the church. That is, the church (corporately) is often represented as the bride of Christ. Indeed, this ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 104k
5 votes

What is the correct interpretation of Revelation 2:4?

I don't think you can separate options b, c, and d from each other given that the Biblical nature of love is that we love others as God has loved us (1 John 3:16, 1 John 4:11). So I think those three ...
EngineeringMind's user avatar
0 votes

What is the difference between "old man" in Romans 6:6 and "flesh" in Romans 8:1?

I think Dr. ML Jones explains it best. The Old Man Was Crucified A Sermon on Romans 6:5-6. https://www.mljtrust.org/sermons/book-of-romans/the-old-man-was-crucified/
Davethebap's user avatar
0 votes

Is the article in 2 Peter 1:2 (του θεου) anaphoric to θεός in 1:1? If not, what grammar denies it?

The original question posed by "Thomas Pearne" (AKA "Gregory Blunt") was based on the (possibly deliberate) misapprehension that the Greek article is always anaphoric. It is true ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 104k
0 votes

Why do some translations have a completely opposite interpretation of John 18:37?

KJV and NKJV Bibles are based on the Textus Receptus or Received Texts which consists of over 5,800 Greek manuscripts, which includes 1550 Stephanus Greek New Testament, 1598 Beza Greek New Testament, ...
Steven 1231's user avatar
-2 votes

What is the justification for translating James 2:14b as "Can such faith save them?"?

Translators who insert modifiers like "such" or "this kind of" before "faith" have apparently decided to clarify the text so that it cannot be read to contradict the ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
2 votes

What is the justification for translating James 2:14b as "Can such faith save them?"?

In Jam. 2:14, the noun “faith” occurs twice: first, «πίστιν», which is indefinite or anarthrous, and then «ἡ πίστις», which is definite. The author is discussing faith which does not have works: 14 ...
Der Übermensch's user avatar
7 votes

Why do translators translate Luke 2:25 and 11:13 as "the Holy Spirit" instead of "a holy spirit"?

It is true that the NT speaks of the "spirit of man" (eg, 1 Cor 2:11) as distinct from the "Spirit of God" (eg, 1 Cor 2:11, Rom 8:9, etc). However, when the word "spirit" ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 104k
2 votes

Why do some translations have a completely opposite interpretation of John 18:37?

I think what others are saying is: the phrase translated "you say" (that I am) is an idiom native to Greek or Hebrew (and probably also to that time), not English. An idiom usually conveys ...
Avdecha .org's user avatar
3 votes

Is ὅλος not more apt than πάντα

πάντα has no inherent sense of time. It simply means “all, every”. If I were to say in English, “Are you going to eat all that?” or in Koine Greek, «Μὴ μέλλεις φαγεῖν πάντα ἐκεῖνα?», neither indicates ...
Der Übermensch's user avatar
2 votes

The meaning of "akoe" in Matthew 24:6

Context The verse in question is found in part of the Olivet Discourse given by Jesus to describe the coming destruction of Judea, and in particular, the Temple. This is the context that must be kept ...
ray grant's user avatar
  • 2,275
2 votes

The meaning of "akoe" in Matthew 24:6

First, the word ἀκοή (akoe) is often used in the sense of hearing "rumor", eg, Matt 4:24, 14:1, 24:6; Mark 1:28; 13:7, etc. A rumor is, by definition, an unconfirmed report that may or may ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 104k
0 votes

The meaning of "akoe" in Matthew 24:6

The term "rumors of wars" is understood to refer to reports or indications of potential conflicts which may or may not be confirmed. So, the use of "rumors" in this context conveys ...
Jason_'s user avatar
  • 4,229
6 votes

Why do some translations have a completely opposite interpretation of John 18:37?

I was about to provide a very literal translation of John 18:37 but noticed that my version was almost identical to the BLB - Therefore Pilate said to Him, "Then You are a king?" Jesus ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 104k
12 votes

Why do some translations have a completely opposite interpretation of John 18:37?

Witherington makes a point on the parallel account in Mark 15. Here's what he has to say: Thus at 15:2 we must envision that the trial has gone through several stages perhaps, and Mark is only ...
Jason_'s user avatar
  • 4,229
2 votes

Why do some translations have a completely opposite interpretation of John 18:37?

Perhaps the difference lies between dynamic equivalence and formal equivalence translations. The immediate conversation concerning kingship goes back to John 18:33. Pilate's question and Christ's ...
Thomas Waters's user avatar
1 vote

Did Judas realize his sin at the moment of the kiss?

Short answer: The text does not offer detailed information regarding Judas's personal thoughts or emotional state at that specific moment. Thus, any suggestion that Judas might have had a moment of ...
Jason_'s user avatar
  • 4,229
3 votes

Why didn't John use "ego eimi ho on" in John 8:58 like he did in Revelation for the divine name?

Always keep in mind that Jesus was speaking Aramaic to the Pharisees and the Torah was originally in Hebrew. In John 8:58, Jesus is quoted as saying “Before Abraham was, I am”. Some Christians use ...
jacq's user avatar
  • 31
1 vote

Is "because" the best way to describe the meaning of ὅτι in the Prologue?

Rendering the conjunction oti as "because" in all three instances cannot 'work' except for the first occurrence. There it is equally true to say that "because he was before me..." ...
Anne's user avatar
  • 23.6k
0 votes

Which of these four versions most accurately translates (μενοῦν/μενοῦνγε) in Luke 11:28?

A good translation of μενοῦνγε or μενοῦν is 'more so' or 'rather', which is is probably closest to the NIV, NLT, or ESV translation; 28'But He said, "Blessed rather are those who hear the word of ...
Caleb Furler's user avatar
0 votes

Should we ONLY say the Lord's Prayer?

Sample Lord, teach us to pray. What Jesus gave the disciples was only a sample prayer. It was not a ritualistic form to be repeated over and over. Although many denominations recite this prayer ...
ray grant's user avatar
  • 2,275

Top 50 recent answers are included