New answers tagged greek
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Let me first say Mr.Pearne that your working under the premise or the assumption that Jesus Christ is just a man who was created like the rest of us, therefore the conclusions you come up with would be wrong.
The following are your words to Nigel from the comments.@NigelJ Proverbs 8:22 says that the speaker was created and THEN he saw the earth created. ...
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Mark 7:19 - Does Jesus Really Declare “All Foods Clean?”
Mark 7:19 (NET Bible)
19 "For it does not enter his heart but his stomach, and then goes out into the sewer.” (This means all foods are clean.)"
Jesus did not declare "all foods clean," the expression should be understood in the cultural and historic context of the day, for - "The Law of Moses"- ...
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What about the thought of men and fellow believers ( brothers and sisters in Christ) those not of Christ but listening along with those in the Church Body as tru believers ?
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Firstly, the Hebrew word qanah does not mean 'create'. For example, regarding the KJV it is listed by Robert Young's Analytical Concordance 86 times, none of which have the rendering 'create' or 'make'. It is to do with possession .
Attain 1, buy 48, get 16, possess 2, purchase 5, redeem. Then the participle is translated as buyer or owner.
A related word ...
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Syntax
The living Father sent me, and because of him I live also. In the same way whoever eats me will live because of me. [GNT]
καθὼς ἀπέστειλέν με ὁ ζῶν πατὴρ κἀγὼ ζῶ διὰ τὸν πατέρα καὶ ὁ τρώγων με κἀκεῖνος ζήσει δι᾽ ἐμέ [mGNT]
All English translations treat the verb ζῶν ("to live") as an adjective describing a characteristic of the noun ("...
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Semantically, glory (doxa) is equivalent to φωτισμός. ἀπαύγασμα in Greek means "shining from a source" (e.g. as light beam from the sun or light from a candle).
"Kabod was translated as doxa in Greek Old Testament, and then as “glory” in the English Bible. Doxa, as the beam of God's light on the tabernacle, was more than just a show --- it was a tangible ...
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Jesus is frequently shown in the operative capacity of "The son of man" in Luke's gospel. While operating in that capacity as the Son of man, Jesus and the Father stay in their own lane in order to maintain the righteousness of the One True God. For example, "the Son of man" was the one who was required to be "lifted up" for the sin of mankind. Therefore, ...
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No, imho. Just a simple sojourner but methinks this conversation has nothing to do with foods being clean or unclean - for the Jew (Yeshua and the Pharisees in this conversation) kosher was kosher and that never changed. If you stood at Sinai, no bacon for you (sorry).
This conversation was perhaps more about the "tradition of the elders" (in this case ...
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DLNT: And Jesus said to him, “Why do you call Me good? No one is good except One— God.
ὁ δὲ Ἰησοῦς εἶπεν αὐτῷ τί με λέγεις ἀγαθόν οὐδεὶς ἀγαθὸς εἰ μὴ εἷς ὁ θεός
BDAG θεος 2. Some writings in our lit. use the word θ. w. ref. to Christ (without necessarily equating Christ with the Father, and therefore in harmony w. the Shema of Israel Dt 6:4; cp. Mk 10:...
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It might be helpful in sorting this out to look more deeply at the context of the Miriam and Elizabeth's pregnancies and the fact that Jesus and John are identified as 'cousins.' During the Roman occupation there was much concern about the 'invasion' of the wombs of the women of Judaea by Roman soldiers. Jane Schabeg's book ILLEGITIMACY OF JESUS delves ...
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The Greek δια means "by means of," or "through the mode of," as in God making all creation through the Son (John 1:1). Jesus lives because He receives His being Who He is, directly from the Father with Whom He is one (John 10:30). "Living Father" indicates a kind of finality or source of life in this precise context, as in, "As the Source of all life is ...
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Jesus represents himself as “The Beginning of the creation of God.” ἀρχή properly represents active cause or source. Jesus is the causative agent of all creation. He is the source, the originator, not the first being created. Used in the regal sense it refers to one who rules. “The Beginning of the creation of God,” is simply another way of saying, “The ...
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In view of the entire biblical corpus, the most suitable translation of ἀρχή would be “beginning.” However, this does not require Jesus Christ to be understood as a creature. One definition of “beginning,” like the word ἀρχή,1 is “origin; source”2 (i.e., first cause).
Philo, a contemporary of Paul and Jesus in the 1st century A.D., wrote the following,3
...
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Teknia is indicating the emotional connection in tandem with their entry level maturity.
Paidia is indicating their educational connection in tandem with their knowledge level which has begun more recently.
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Is there solid linguistic support that the phrase “beginning of creation” at Revelation 3:14 means Christ is not the first created ?
Are you asking us whether, within the Greek language, being the arche of something prevents or excludes the arche itself from being part of that certain something ? If so, then the simple answer is no. As an example of ...
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What's the meaning of brother in 1 John 2.9-11?
In context of John's writings,the expression "brothers" refers to the anointed brothers of Christ, more commonly known as "saints" they are also referred to as "the least of these brothers or sisters of mine.
Matthew 25:40 NET
40" And the king will answer them,[d] ‘I tell you the truth,[e] just
as you ...
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This is in answer to @Lucian who brought up Proverbs 8:25.
Thanks for providing this. I don't remember analyzing it before.
23 πρὸ τοῦ αἰῶνος ἐθεμελίωσέν με ἐν ἀρχῇ,
24a πρὸ τοῦ τὴν γῆν ποιῆσαι καὶ πρὸ τοῦ τὰς ἀβύσσους ποιῆσαι,
24b πρὸ τοῦ προελθεῖν τὰς πηγὰς τῶν ὑδάτων,
25a πρὸ τοῦ ὄρη ἑδρασθῆναι,
25b πρὸ δὲ πάντων βουνῶν γεννᾷ με
Aside from the ...
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The question states the opinion that :
Bauer-Danker-Arndt-Gingrich Greek lexicon cites Mark 10:18 to show that Jesus did not equate himself with the Lord God the Father of the Shema.
In support of this opinion, the OP quotes from BDAG the following :
BDAG θεος 2. Some writings in our lit. use the word θ. w. ref. to Christ (without necessarily equating ...
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The verse in context asserts the divinity of Jesus.
Jesus said that none were good but God.
The man said he was good and equal to God.
Jesus then challenged him to do what Jesus had done. He gave up all as the Eternal Son to take the flesh and be the poor man that the rich man had chased.
"If you are equal to God, then do what God has done and come ...
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Yes, definitely Jesus asserts His divinity in Mark 10:18.
For, of course, Jesus clearly admits Himself that there are good humans and bad humans (Luke 6:45), but here He simply reprimands the young man for calling Him good in the sense of just a good human teacher.
Would not Jesus put Himself at least on the level of the good humans understood in human ...
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The verse in question (Mark 10:18), I don't think it's informing "our" view of Jesus as God. Read the "context starting at verse 17. "And as He was setting out on a journey, a man ran up to Him and knelt before Him, and began asking Him, "Good Teacher, what shall I do to inherit eternal life?"
Notice the man was not looking for material goods or healing; ...
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What did Jesus likely say in John 8:58?
Professor of Religious Studies , Jason David BeDuhn of Northern Arizona University in his book "TRUTH IN TRANSLATION Accuracy and Bias of the New Testament" compares nine major English translations and list them as follows:
In Chapter ten "TEMPERING WITH THE TENSES" deals exclusively with John 8:58 analyzes grammar ...
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The following are your own words and comments Thomas Pearne. "You never gave the reference about Jewish law. And claiming to be God's son is not the same as claiming to be God. Angels are sons of God too." I want to address this statement of yours in detail.
Now, I'm going to say first that the Jews knew all the time what Jesus was claiming and that's why ...
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Like I told you before, the Greek word for "beginning" is arche and we get our English word "architect" from that Greek word. The following is what Wallace has to say and the BDAG is included in his comments.
"This is the solemn pronouncement of the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the originator,54.
54tn Or “the beginning of God’s creation”; or “the ...
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It's not just reasonable, but according to Greek scholar Kenneth McKay, those who have only "a smattering of Greek" and see some sort of "magic" in the words use the words "I am" and not some form of the English perfect (e.g. have been). See the article, Kenneth McKay, "I AM" in John's Gospel and also a link to the paper online.
Kenneth L. McKay graduated ...
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Two comments in your question are not quite accurate.
The footnote on John 1:1c in the 2013 NWT to “a god” is “or divine.” In fact these two are not mutually exclusive. The NWT understands θεός here as a mixture of indefinite-qualitative, this not “a god” but rather “a god.”
The distinction is significant. This is not another god in addition to ...
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Luke 22:16 - Did Jesus say he was not going to eat THAT Passover?
Luke 22:14-16 (NASB)
The Lord’s Supper
14 "When the hour had come, He reclined at the table, and the apostles
with Him. 15 And He said to them, “I have earnestly desired to eat
this Passover with you before I suffer; 16 for I say to you, I shall
never again eat it until it is ...
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For this type of question, a good place to start is the BDAG. Here is the section on θεός when used of Jesus.
Note that all of these, according to BDAG, should be interpreted in light of Jesus words at Mk 10:18:
King James Version
Mark 10:18
And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God.
Also note that the ...
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Since my initial post was deleted because I did not provide the Apostle Paul's thoughts as it relates to the question about Romans 11:36 The following is the question?
"So since the Father is both Creator and Maker and Jesus is never the source is the Son Creator or Maker in Paul?"
As you can see the poster of the question says, "and Jesus is never the ...
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It is the same as to ask: "Is the radiation of the sun the enlightener or merely the light-shedder on the landscape sunk in an utter darkness, while the sun-disc is the sole source of enlightening and driving out of the mentioned utter darkness from the mentioned landscape?"
But the question is out of point, for the sun disc is the sole source of ...
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The short answer is no. I will expand.
The Greek word is ην. It is also found at J 1:10. In verse 9, the Word is coming into the world. Then in 10, he was (ην) the world. His being in the world did not precede his arrival. If we apply this to J 1:1, he did not precede the beginning.
In addition, the word και (and) found at J 1:1 is said by Danker ...
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If we can imagine Jesus to be emphasising "was" in the phrase, "Before Abraham was," the grammatical non-congruity of the following "I am" can be jotted up to making clear His eternality (explaining His personal acquaintance with historical figures long predating His birth—and moreover their internal life and experience), and His self-identifcation with the ...
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πριν αβρααμ γενεσθαι εγω ειμι [TR] John 8:58 [Text undisputed]
Baxter's Analytical Greek Lexicon says of the word γενεσθαι, genesthai, that it is the aorist 2, infinitive and is an inflection of γίνομαι, ginomai Strong 1096 which means 'to come' 'to become' or 'to come into being'.
And, without a doubt, the meaning of εἰμί, eimi Strong 1510 is 'I exist' ...
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Firstly, the link supplied to an article by Gregory Blunt appears to me to show that Blunt is arguing against Daniel B Wallace's treatment of the article :
However, it will be demonstrated that a consistent treatment of the article as pronoun, described by Middleton, and anaphora with respect to "individualizing articles" as described by Daniel Wallace ...
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You are assuming that John 1:1 has the same time reference as the Genesis 1 creation event. It is more likely that beginning (arche) has its reference to Proverbs 8:22 where someone says "The Lord made me the beginning (arche) of his ways for his works" and Revelation 3:14 where the Son is called "the beginning (arche) of the creation of God."
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The Bauer-Danker-Arndt -Gingrich Greek Lexicon (BDAG) specifically lists Mark 13:20 as an example which would normally grammatically have the article like the LXX where YHWH was replaced with κύριος. That reference also lists Blass-Debrunner-Funk (BDF) a stellar grammar.
Thus there really is no question that there is ample scholarly evidence, both lexical ...
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Of ἄρρητα, arreta, Strong 731 Thayer states :
a. unsaid, unspoken: Homer, Odyssey 14, 466, and often in Attic.
b. unspeakable (on account of its sacredness) (Herodotus 5, 83, and often in other writings): 2 Corinthians 12:4, explained by what follows: ἅ οὐκ ἐξόν ἀνθρώπῳ λαλῆσαι.
'Unsaid' or 'unspoken' does not convey that something cannot be uttered ...
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I believe there are a few points to be noted here against Leighton Flowers view.
First, one could argue there is no difference in meaning between "know in former times" or "know of old" and "know in advance" or "get to know in advance." That is, if something about today is known in "former times" then it was also known "in advance." So one can argue that a ...
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John quotes the understanding of Genesis 2:4
αὕτη ἡ βίβλος γενέσεως οὐρανοῦ καὶ γῆς ὅτε ἐγένετο ᾗ ἡμέρᾳ ἐποίησεν ὁ θεὸς τὸν οὐρανὸν καὶ τὴν γῆν Genesis 2:4
ἐποίησεν has the sense of something new, object of modification, of transformation.
BGT Judges 6:27 καὶ ἔλαβεν Γεδεων δέκα ἄνδρας ἀπὸ τῶν δούλων ἑαυτοῦ καὶ ἐποίησεν ὃν τρόπον ἐλάλησεν πρὸς αὐτὸν ...
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In some instances ἔλεγεν and other verbs in the form of imperfect do not really convey a past continuous sense, but a sense of an instance and a singularity of action, like aorist. Here is a salient example: Mark 9:24. “Immediately the father of the boy cried out and said (ἔλεγεν), “I believe; help my unbelief!”, here ἕλεγεν simply cannot have a notion of ...
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“That throughout the first five books of
the Greek Bible kyrios is employed as a proper noun was shown long
ago by Huber,37 Debrunner,38 and Baudissin39 and has been reiterated
since. As a proper noun, a divine name, and in complete conformity
with other personal names in these books, it is more often
unarticulated than articulated. This basic fact holds ...
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At Genesis 1:1 it states, "In the beginning God created the heavens and the earth. John 1:1 says, "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God." The "Word/Logos" here is not the spoken word.
At John 1:2 beginning, The definite article has been supplied. The actual Greek is en arche--that is, "in beginning." Moreover at ...
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This is an attempt to answer this question in a straight forward way without getting caught up in the technicalities, as we do in the question.
1) The LXX uses φιλεῖς and ἀγαπᾷς as synonyms.
2) However, the wording in John 21:15–17 makes sense if John used the words with different meanings.
3) In John’s text Jesus words the questions differently ...
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Background
Luke 3:4 is one of the 237 instances where the New World Translation (NWT) uses Jehovah:
just as it is written in the book of the words of Isaiah the prophet: “A voice of one crying out in the wilderness: ‘Prepare the way of Jehovah! Make his roads straight. (NWT)
As it is written in the book of the words of Isaiah the prophet, “The voice ...
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In Romans 11:22 what does Paul mean by “continue in his goodness”?
The Symbolic Olive Tree
"Some of he branches broken off", represent the Jewish people that rejected Jesus , they themselves were rejected. Paul continues ,"and you" meaning the gentiles being "a wild olive shoot were grafted in among them and participated in richness of the olive root" ...
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"Continue in Goodness of God" means that God's Goodness, that is to say, His Mercy, His Grace and salvific Love is not acting automatically, without our free reciprocation and constant faithful co-action and our constant growth in Him, that is to say, in His Grace to become a "perfect man" (Cf. Ephesians 4:13).
Thus, if we lose faith in Christ and do not co-...
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Valid enough to prove what this footnote says, but insufficient to warrant wholesale changing of every other instance of Kyrios in the New Testament to "Yahweh."
In this one verse (or a few others at most) an allusion to the Old Testament may be intended. But an intended, "read this Kyrios as Yahweh" doesn't give liberty or justification for haphazardly ...
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Infuriatingly simple evidence: the immediate context.
Indeed, have this mind which Christ Jesus also had: who, being naturally in the form of God, did not consider it robbery to be equal with God, but emptied himself, taking on the form of a slave: and being made in the likeness of men, and in fashion found as a man, he humbled himself, becoming obedient ...
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What evidence is there that “morphe theou” in Philippians 2:6 means “God's nature”?
Is there any evidence that μορφῇ θεοῦ (morphe theou) in Philippians 2:6 means the "nature" of God the Father?
Philippians 2:6-7 (NASB)
6 "Who, although He existed in the form of God, did not regard
equality with God a thing to be grasped, 7 but emptied Himself, taking
...
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Scripture: Col 1:15 “Who is the image (Eikon) of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature.”
Comment: The Greek word “Eikon” refers to the glorious visible image or form that God took upon himself as He emerged from timeless eternity. The word firstborn in this verse is the Greek word- Prototokos: (literally “first brought forth”.
Scripture: Rev 3:...
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