1 Corinthians 13:10 - What Will Cease when “The Perfect” Comes?
1 Corinthians 13:8-10 (NASB)
8 Love never fails; but if there are gifts of [a]prophecy, they will
be done away; if there are tongues, they will cease; if there is
knowledge, it will be done away. 9 For we know in part and we prophesy
in part; 10 but when the perfect comes, the partial will be ...
Is this dark glass the analogy of a looking glass? In ourselves we see a reflection of the person of Christ through the light of His Grace entering our thought as inspiration. Now we see His truth but not His person. Yet we know He is within us acting that we may see this truth. But does not Paul tell us that when we enter the spiritual realm of eternity, ...
"The original Greek" is a term I've heard in many sermons over 50 years following our Lord Jesus. But Jesus (Yeshua), his disciples, Jerusalem and even Josephus, all spoke Aramaic as their native language. Can you imagine them not first writing their words in their mother tongue?
We will get closer to biblical accuracy when we understand the ...
That’s a great thought Luke. As Isaiah said:
But now, O LORD, you are our Father;
we are the clay, and you are our potter;
we are all the work of your hand.
Isaiah 64:8 (ESV)
He cannot create anything but awesome!
God created a masterpiece when He created man. And, by believing in Jesus, we have become His new (awesome) creation (2 Corinthians 5:17)
Accepting the sonship of God through Jesus does not deprive anybody of freedom, and anybody, of course, can sin even after having accepted the mentioned sonship. Only Jesus cannot sin in virtue of ontological impossibility, for He is God-Incarnate, just like God-the Father cannot sin in virtue of ontological impossibility. That is why Paul says: "If we ...
The meanings of these two passages are quite clear in the Berean Study Bible.
1 John 1:10
If we say we have not sinned, we make Him out to be a liar, and His word is not in us.
we have not sinned,
Verb - Perfect Indicative Active - 1st Person Plural
John was saying that if we claim we habitually have not committed acts of sin, ...
We'll be 'locked in' to holiness because of God's seed in us. End of story.
While it's attractive to read a text in a way that 'fits' our theology, it isn't examining the truth honestly or without bias.
John doesn't say what we 'want' him to say... such as, we will not 'be inclined to sin'. He says we will not sin! Indeed, we "CANNOT" sin!
When we ...
I am assuming the ambiguity is the problem.
There is an ambiguity (in the ESV translation) between a sign being sent 'for' (for the possession of) Moses that Moses may be re-assured of his being sent to Israel : and a sign being sent 'for' (on behalf of) Moses that Israel may see the sign and realise that God has sent Moses to them.
Removing the comma does ...
Did the translators of 1 Thess 4:10-12 make use of a double-meaning in English to convey the original meaning?
No. Furthermore, I can say with certainty that NIV technically mistranslated the original Greek.
Acts 19:24 New International Version
A silversmith named Demetrius, who made silver shrines of Artemis, brought in a lot of business for the craftsmen ...
"Dia" means "through" when used with a genitive noun and "because of" or "on account of" when used with an accusative noun.
In Colossians 1:16, it is used with a genitive noun which is why it's translated as "through" instead of "because of"
For by Him all things were created that are in heaven and ...
The standard commentaries have slightly more views on this subject than authors, suggesting any kind of unanimity is still a long way off. However, the OP seeks the collected wisdom of this forum so we shall oblige. Many of the claims made in the standard commentaries are without basis so I shall avoid them.
What we do know is that the epistles in the NT ...
After some digging, This may be the case:
The ‘historical present’ describes the use of a present tense indicative form in a narrative where the aorist would be expected. The effect of its discontinuity with the other, preterite, verbs in the story usually marks out the main action of the event.
(1) Can the Ancient Greek of Matthew be read so that there is no contradiction of Mark and Luke?
Yes, but not necessarily by understanding the Greek differently. Here is one way to resolve the difference:
In the Gospels of Mark and Luke, Jesus' teaching on divorce might represent his teaching on divorce for the typical grounds for divorce in his day, while ...
I imagine that the imperative γνῶθι (from γι(γ)νώσκω) would be preferred over the imperative ἴσθι (from οἶδα) because ἴσθι is also the imperative of εἰμί. The easiest reading for ἴσθι would be the incorrect "be the Lord," not "know the Lord" (especially because the Septuagint uses the singular, where the two imperatives are identical, ...
In W E Vine's Expository Dictionary of the NT, he writes about the difference in meaning between γινώσκω and οἶδα -
The differences between ginosko (No. 1) and oida demand consideration:
(a) ginosko, frequently suggests inception or progress in "knowledge,"
while oida suggests fullness of "knowledge," e.g., John 8:55 , "ye
have not ...
This answer to this question would have included much from the other answers. But, rather than repeat, and detract from those, we’ll add what we think are some missing pieces.
First, a Mystery (in the Biblical sense) is anything that was not ‘seen’ in the Old Testament. Usually, as in the case of your question, because it couldn’t have, and add to that, it ...
Characterizing the numerous variants in a binary way as Alexandrian vs Byzantine, etc, oversimplifies the problem in John 1:18. According to UBS5 and NA28 we have the following variant readings in John 1:18 -
ὁ μονογενὴς Θεὸς
ὁ μονογενὴς υἱός
ὁ μονογενὴς υἱός Θεὸῦ
For a comprehensive list of which MSS support each reading, see ...
John 1:1 certainly has two ways to "spell" God but there are more than this.
Θεὸς (theoes) is Nominative masculine singular (In English the subject, approx)
Θεόν (theon) is Accusative masculine singular (In English the object, approx)
Θεέ (thee) is Vocative masculine singular (= O God), eg, Matt 27:42, 43.
Θεοῦ (theou) is Genitive masculine ...
Nouns in Greek are spelled according to their grammatical position within a sentence. Θεὸς is the nominative spelling and Θεόν is the accusative spelling of the same noun. The nominative and accusative largely (though not completely) parallel the grammatical positions of subject and object in a language like English.
Chapter 4 presents findings with regard to the term katapausis in the LXX where it refers to (1) the Promised Land (Deut 12:9); (2) the temple as the habitation desired by God (Ps 132:14); and finally (3) the Sabbath rest (Exod 35:2; 2 Macc 15:1). In Heb 3, a midrash on Ps 94, the rest the Exodus generation failed to enter was the Promised Land. The formal ...