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3 votes

Strong Exegesis of Hebrews 12:15 "fail of the grace of God" in what sense?

Clarity might come by first getting rid of what God's grace is not. It is not ever earned by humans. Although people such as Noah "found grace in the eyes of the Lord" (Genesis 6:8 KJV), ...
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0 votes

What is the meaning of the phrase "purge your conscience from dead works" in Hebrews 9:14?

The dead works are the business, employment, tasks, industries of this world that we busy ourselves with, exchanging time given by God for money made by man. John 7:7 the world can not hate you, but ...
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1 vote

Why would God create vessels of wrath prepared for destruction (Romans 9:21-22) if He has no pleasure in the death of the wicked (Ezekiel 33:11)?

In Hebrew literature or thought, active verbs or voice is often used to describe passive events such as divine permission. This is common to show God's sovereignty. God does not wish anyone should ...
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1 vote

"... where their worm does not die and the fire is not quenched" - Is Jesus' description of Hell (Gehenna) literal or figurative?

NOTE: There have been four primary passages throughout history to be repeatedly cited in support of the doctrine of eternal conscious torment. These are Mark 9:43-48, Matthew 25:41-45, Revelation 14:...
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Why would God create vessels of wrath prepared for destruction (Romans 9:21-22) if He has no pleasure in the death of the wicked (Ezekiel 33:11)?

I honestly don't see the need for much Biblical scriptures and unrelated messasges. But I am non the wiser. I can't emphasize this enough A God's want, need, wish is to be glorified or exalted, the ...
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2 votes

Strong Exegesis of Hebrews 12:15 "fail of the grace of God" in what sense?

The idea of "failing from grace" is taught elsewhere such as: 2 Cor 6:1, “As God’s fellow workers, then, we urge you not to receive God’s grace in vain. Gal 1:6, I am amazed how quickly you ...
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1 vote

Is Revelation 3:16 a warning about the possibility of losing one's salvation?

The Revelation of Jesus Christ is a vision about what it to come. It is a warning, not just to the seven churches in Asia back then, but to the church now. It is interpreted spiritually. John was ...
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2 votes

Are John 15:1-11 and Revelation 3:14-22 referring to the same group of people?

Who are the people referred to in John 15:1-11? Jesus' followers are being personally addressed by him. They already believe in him, love him, and are following him. Note how, in 14:23, Jesus answered ...
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3 votes
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Are John 15:1-11 and Revelation 3:14-22 referring to the same group of people?

This question conflates two matters that I will keep more distinct. Whether the lukewarm members of the church of Laodicea (Rev 3:14-22) are the same as those not bearing fruit (John 15:1-11) are ...
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0 votes

Is Jesus using multiple definitions of "life" in Matthew 10:39?

Considering the Aramaic (Peshitta) version, a literal reading of Matt 10:39 and Matt 16:25 could be: Matt 10:39 Whoever finds himself makes himself perish; whoever makes himself perish for me he ...
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1 vote

Is Jesus using multiple definitions of "life" in Matthew 10:39?

In Mt 10:39 Jesus presents us with a paradox: there is only one way to find one’s life, and that is by losing it for the sake of Christ. There is only one way to life, and it is through Jesus. The key ...
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Is there a contradiction between John 6:44 and Matthew 22:14?

We read: Then he said to his servants, ‘The wedding is ready, but those who were invited were not worthy. 9 Therefore go into the highways, and as many as you find, invite to the wedding.’ 10 So ...
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2 votes

Does "saved" mean the same thing in 2 Samuel 3:18 & Ephesians 2:8?

No it doesn't. At least at first glance. ”Yasha” in the Old Testament always means physical deliverance. The only two exception can be found in the book of Ezekiel. 29 I will also save (הוֹשַׁעְתִּ֣י)...
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4 votes
Accepted

Is Jesus using multiple definitions of "life" in Matthew 10:39?

Technically, the word, ψυχή (psyche) is used in an identical sense both times it occurs in Matt 10:39. What is different, is the implied pronoun, "it". Let me be more specific by setting ...
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4 votes
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Does "saved" mean the same thing in 2 Samuel 3:18 & Ephesians 2:8?

The two words, יָשַׁע (yasha) and σῴζω (sozo) both mean save as in rescue from danger. However, the lexicons classify these meanings into two distinct categories: to save/rescue from physical danger ...
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2 votes

Does "saved" mean the same thing in 2 Samuel 3:18 & Ephesians 2:8?

In [2 Samuel 3:18], the term "הוֹשִׁיעַ" Hoshia (saved) relates to deliverance from physical destruction: מִיַּד פְּלִשְׁתִּים 'from-hands [of] Philistines' during battle - not from immoral ...
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1 vote

Is Jesus using multiple definitions of "life" in Matthew 10:39?

Yes, of course there are different semantics here of two "lives", for one life means everything, all aspects of our existence that are not related to Christ's commandments and Christ's life ...
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3 votes

Is Jesus using multiple definitions of "life" in Matthew 10:39?

[Matthew 10:39] Whoever finds his life will lose it, and whoever loses his life for my sake will find it. The latter part of the verse will help us understand the former part. If you have lost your ...
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0 votes

In 1 Cor 5:5 how does delivering someone to Satan destroy the flesh? What does this have to do with being saved?

Could destruction of the flesh in this instance also refer to castration, that is the removal of that part of bodily flesh that is incorporated in the sin? Jesus refers to men who are made eunuchs or ...
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