Yes. First, consider where the action was coming from, or who was doing the begetting - God, the Father.
?"12 but as many as did receive him to them he gave authority to become sons of God -- to those believing in his name, 13 who -- not of blood nor of a will of flesh, nor of a will of man but -- of God were begotten." (John 1:12=13, YLT)
I think this statement is confusing the state of being born again with the mechanism of salvation, which is faith (Romans 4.3).
As a result of faith, we are born again. Asking how one can be born again as if there was some other path than faith is exactly like Nicodemus inquiring about crawling up his mother's birth canal. Any approach other than faith is ...
John 3:3 – unfortunately, has a number of problems. Apart from not knowing who wrote it and when it was written, there is a translation issue of ‘born again’
John did not use the phrase "born again". The Greek text reveals, the phrase used by John is born from above. The Greek word used by John is anothen' (ano' + then'). ano' means above' and the ...
Jesus promised salvation to the thief on the cross.
Paul told the jailer at Corinth, " Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ and you will be saved". Salvation is an instant action the moment you believe, regardless of which testament you are in.
All believers are born again at the moment they believe.
The O T saints believed from the understanding they had at the time. They looked forward to a future messiah. We look back at a historical messiah. All came to salvation the same way. Saved by grace through faith. Faith is the EVIDENCE of things not seen, even a future Christ.
Did people in O.T. times also have to be born again in order to be saved?
Change the auxiliary verb "Did" to "Will", and the answer is yes.
Copying from my answer to What is the biblical basis for interpreting "born again", "baptized in the Holy Spirit" and "filled with the Holy Spirit" as different ...
It's very telling the last sentence that Jesus spoke to John the Baptist in Luke 7:23
How blessed is anyone who is not offended by me!
It is amazing how even John after being told by the Spirt that Jesus was the son of God (John 1:33) that he too would have his doubts. John was imprisoned and Jesus did not come save him or get him out of it. Perhaps ...
Gen 49.10 is a rather cryptic passage, and it's not obvious how to interpret it.
If it is talking about a physical government, the first king was Saul, from Gibeah of the tribe of Benjamin and not from Judah. David was from Judah, it's true, but with the Babylonian captivity the scepter clearly departed to gentile nations, first Babylonia, then Persia, ...
Why are people still looking for another messiah?
Even John the Baptiser was a bit confused in
2 When John, who was in prison, heard about the deeds of the Messiah, he sent his disciples 3to ask him, “Are you the one who is to come, or should we expect someone else?”
And John was a prophet. People are not perfect in our understanding of the ...
The Greek word is an adjective used as a substantive (noun) within a prepositional phrase εἰς τὸ παντελὲς. An adjective can be only gender. The neuter is used for adverbial use. Thus, the prepositional phrase modifies the verb σῴζειν ... δύναται
(able to save) which encloses the phrase to make sure you take it that way.
πας means all
τελος has the idea of ...
The word παντελής is from two Greek elements, pan + teles = all + complete. It only occurs twice in Luke 13;11 and Heb 7:25. BDAG lists two meanings for this word:
pertaining to meeting a very high standard of quality or completeness, completely, (a) with respect to action (quite) complete, eg, Heb 7:25 ...
pertaining to unlimited duration of time, ...
I would interpret this as both "forever" and "completely" because
The context is the undying priest of the order of Melchezidek (focus on "forever"/olam in Psalm 110.4) as contrasted with the finite lifespans of Levitical priests
The temporary sacrifice of the scapegoat, which must be performed annually, is contrasted with the ...
It is translated rightly in the versions here as "in vain" and "for nothing". The point in Gal 2:21 is that if righteousness still comes from the law then Christ died in vain. It is a deductive argument like 3:3 or 3:21, since they received the spirit by faith apart from the law, therefore it proves that righteousness does not and cannot ...
When it comes to translated words, it doesn’t always follow that derivative words must absolutely hold to the root word of the translated language.
• δωρεαν - gratuitously
• δωρεά - gift
• δῶρον - gift made sacrificially, offering
The adverb in English gratuitously is defined as
being without apparent reason, cause, or ...
Obviously there is no specific translation which is why there are several options rendered.
The word is used for water flowing freely with no restraint Rev 21:6, 22:17. Water flowing without producing anything is pointless - it should do some work to make the flow useful.
If Christ died for no reason, then it has produced nothing, no gain.
They hated me for ...
What is the “it” in “those who find it are few” in Matt 7:14?
1/ "It" refers to the Kingdom of God: Acts 14:22 reads:
Acts 14:22 NET 22 They strengthened the souls of the disciples and
encouraged them to continue[b] in the faith, saying, “We must enter
the kingdom of God through many persecutions.”
2/ The "gate", refer to the ...