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In James 2:23, does the use of the word "fulfilled" (ἐπληρώθη) suggest that Genesis 15:6 was a prophecy about the future (IE: Genesis 22:12)?

Ruminator, That is why James' letter was like garlic to Luther... he was an incredibly bright man, even brighter than today's best theologians who think they can reconcile James 2 with Luther's ...
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1 vote

Why would God create vessels of wrath prepared for destruction (Romans 9:21-22) if He has no pleasure in the death of the wicked (Ezekiel 33:11)?

In Hebrew literature or thought, active verbs or voice is often used to describe passive events such as divine permission. This is common to show God's sovereignty. God does not wish anyone should ...
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Why would God create vessels of wrath prepared for destruction (Romans 9:21-22) if He has no pleasure in the death of the wicked (Ezekiel 33:11)?

I honestly don't see the need for much Biblical scriptures and unrelated messasges. But I am non the wiser. I can't emphasize this enough A God's want, need, wish is to be glorified or exalted, the ...
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2 votes
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Do the 'vessels of wrath' have libertarian free will? Romans 9:14-24

Yes, they do have free will. In Romans 9-11 Paul is not teaching determinism; he is countering the deterministic views of his opponents. Paul's Titanic Chiasmus Romans 9-11 is a massive, chiastic ...
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Do the 'vessels of wrath' have libertarian free will? Romans 9:14-24

If I had a computer which had free will and I asked it five times what was 5+6, suppose the fifth time it got 11 by chance for the first time, would that be to the credit of the computer? No, it would ...
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How do we reconcile Luke 11:42 with Romans 8:8?

There is no contradiction. They boasted about their lineage: Luke 3:8 They were obsessed with outward cleanliness: Mark 7:1-9 They loved money: Luke 16:13-15 They were quick to pointlessly admonish ...
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4 votes
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How do we reconcile Luke 11:42 with Romans 8:8?

The answer to this conundrum is found earlier in the same chapter of Rom 8. Rom 8:5-9 - 5 Those who live according to the flesh set their minds on the things of the flesh; but those who live ...
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How do we reconcile Luke 11:42 with Romans 8:8?

This question is mixing chronology and covenants. There is a chronology to what happened in Luke and an aftermath whereby the old covenant no longer applies because Jesus dies. (And then establishes a ...
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2 votes

How do we reconcile Luke 11:42 with Romans 8:8?

Hebrews 11:6 says, “Without faith it is impossible to please him,” so Romans 8:8 could also read, “So then they that are in the flesh cannot have faith” because faith is the only way to please God. ...
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1 vote

How do we reconcile Romans 3:11 with Acts 17

Firstly, let me list the two words involved: In Rom 3:11, "seek" translates the verb ἐκζητέω (ekzeteo) = seek out, search for, required, etc, eg, Luke 11:50, 51, Acts 15:17, Rom 3:11, Heb ...
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3 votes

Is the NWT translation of Σαβαὼθ in Romans 9:29 reasonable?

I agree that the OP has correctly quoted BDAG and its meaning of Σαβαὼθ, Sabaoth. The essential thrust of this word is a title of God as head of the armies of heaven which is also made explicit in ...
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Romans 1:23 an allusion to Ezekiel 8:10?

Yeah, it's a little too easy to draw corollaries where none actually exist. Paul is trying to show the Romans that their dependence on their own "whiz-dumb" is its own kind of trap. Refer ...
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8 votes
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Romans 1:23 an allusion to Ezekiel 8:10?

Be careful not to claim too much here. Several verses in the OT have the same references to "birds and beasts and creeping things" such as: Eze 38:20 - The fish of the sea and the birds of ...
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1 vote

Why did death reign from Adam to Moses?

"Death" has multiple meanings. Biologically both a coward man dies and a courageous man dies, but as Shakespeare says, "cowards die many times before their [biological] deaths", ...
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2 votes

Why did death reign from Adam to Moses?

I take a different approach. That death reigned from Adam to Moses - the question is why did it reign, even when there was no law and sin was not imputed to anyone and since then, No one had sinned ...
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2 votes

Why did death reign from Adam to Moses?

It doesn't say that death reign only from Adam to Moses. 12 Therefore, just as sin entered the world through one man, and death through sin, and in this way death came to all people, because all ...
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Why did death reign from Adam to Moses?

I have found a very good answer via google search due to a comment by @User76451. I came across an article written very long ago by a man named E.J. Waggoner. He says: The Reign of Death—“Death ...
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3 votes

Why did death reign from Adam to Moses?

Paul is making a parallel between death & sin in this chapter. The Fall of Adam brought death & sin into the world; the atonement of Christ overcomes death & sin. For example: 17 For if ...
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3 votes

According to Romans 1:3-4, did the resurrection "make" the Son of God or "declare" the Son of God?

The answer to this question can be determined by seeing whether the Bible speaks of the Son being the Son of God eternally, or only becoming the Son of God at a particular point in time - in the case ...
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1 vote

Why did death reign from Adam to Moses?

Why does death reign from Adam to Moses? As the original post asks, how can 'death reign from Adam to Moses' if we still see death during all of humanity's existence? The topic of "Sin, I" ...
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