New answers tagged romans
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To what does Paul refer when he said "Higher Powers" in Romans 13:1?
It is hard to imagine that Paul himself referred to the American Revolution or any modern event. However modern readers may certainly interpret his writing as applicable, or even prophetic. On the ...
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To what does Paul refer when he said "Higher Powers" in Romans 13:1?
I suggest it is best if the statements in that passage are taken as generalisations rather than being read literally and legalistically as absolute statements.
For example, "Rulers are not a ...
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Romans 8:19-22, does "creature" mean "all humanity"?
I wondered this myself. Is Paul referencing the jews when he says
Romans 8:21-23 Because the creature itself also shall be delivered from the bondage of corruption into the glorious liberty of the ...
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Is it true that Luther intentionally mistranslated Romans 3:28?
If one is asking about Luther's translation of Romans 3:28, why not let Luther directly answer the question in his own words? In his "open letter on translating" he writes:
I also know ...
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Is it true that Luther intentionally mistranslated Romans 3:28?
It is true that the Greek word for ‘alone’ does not occur in any of the Greek manuscripts of the book of Romans regarding that particular verse.
Yet the Greek for ‘apart from’ or ‘without’ [law-...
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Is it true that Luther intentionally mistranslated Romans 3:28?
In Romans 3:28 and many of Paul's verses in Romans, Corinthians and Galatians the Greek word for the definite article "the" (ton) is not present. Paul is not referring to The Law of Moses ...
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How best to understand the NLT translation of νόμος in Romans 8:2?
If you want to understand the translation philosophy of the NLT, then you need to go back to the Living Bible, written by Ken Taylor who later founded Tyndale House Publishers and oversaw the ...
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How best to understand the NLT translation of νόμος in Romans 8:2?
The solid majority of translators use "law of the Spirit" here because that is the literal meaning of the word νόμος. Moreover Paul is clearly contrasting the law of the spirit with the law ...
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In Romans 8:18, how is the aorist ἀποκαλυφθῆναι translated as a future tense?
In Greek, the future tense can be formed in several ways, one of which is by using the auxiliary verb μέλλω (mello) followed by the infinitive of the main verb.
So, when μέλλουσαν (mellousan) "is ...
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