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You’re reading it slightly wrong because you’re assuming how the Father draws a person. The claim “No one can come to me unless the Father who sent me draws him. And I will raise him up on the last day. It is written in the Prophets, ‘And they will all be taught by God.’ Everyone who has heard and learned from the Father comes to me—” ‭‭John‬ ‭6:44-45‬ ‭ ...


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John 6: 37a All those the Father gives me will come to me Let P1 be a person. If the Father gives P1 to Jesus, P1 will come to Jesus. Did he [P1] come as a result of the Father giving him to Jesus? Yes. 37b whoever comes to me I will never drive away. Assume that 37a and 37b are independent. If P1 comes to me, then Jesus will not drive P1 away. Did the ...


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John 14 vs John 6 vs John 10 are discussing three different situations that should not be confused. John 14:6, "Jesus answered, “I am the way and the truth and the life. No one comes to the Father except through Me." This is discussing the method by which we know and understand the Father - the greatest revelation of the Father is Jesus Christ, ...


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No, it might seem complicated, but it really isn't. 'the Father who sent me draws/calls them'. He places His spirit into our life and we begin to think more like He wants us to. We begin to question our selfishness and our motives for the way we live. We might be totally unaware at this point that there even is a God - but we start to think differently and ...


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Those closest to Jesus, who grew up with him, had the most trouble respecting him.  After this Jesus went about in Galilee. He would not go about in Judea, because the Jews were seeking to kill him. 2 Now the Jews’ Feast of Booths was at hand. 3 So his brothers said to him, “Leave here and go to Judea, that your disciples also may see the works you are ...


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Let us be clear about what Jesus did say in Matt 4:44 - For Jesus Himself testified that a prophet has no honor in the own hometown (= Nazareth). [See also Luke 4:24] Jesus then was received positively in Cana - quite separate from Nazareth where he was rejected (Luke 4:28-30). Jesus was also received positively in Capernaum (Luke 4:23), again, quote ...


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There were indeed many in Galilee who believed in Jesus. The point made in multiple Gospel accounts is that the people around whom Jesus grew up struggled to see Him as more than just the carpenter's son. From Luke 4: 14 And Jesus returned in the power of the Spirit into Galilee: and there went out a fame of him through all the region round about. 15 And he ...


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In reference and critical analysis to these claims: "I think that Eric is unfamiliar with the Scriptures that do teach the Trinity doctrine such as Matt 28:19, where the singular "name" is used for all three, "Father, Son and Holy Spirit". We also have the three explicitly mentioned in 2 Cor 13:14. Lastly, we have the passage in Heb ...


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Only a supplement to the prior answers: Ex 3:14 uses אֶהְיֶה אֲשֶׁר אֶהְיֶה, ’eh·yeh ’ă·šer ’eh·yeh, in Hebrew, and the Aramaic Onkelos uses the original Hebrew wording here. There is no difference between the first I AM (εγω ειμι) and the second I AM (ο ων). Supposing, Jesus really said what John reports, Hebrew will be more important than Greek because ...


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The answer to this is subtle. The words, "I am" are the same in both places, BUT, their grammatical function is different. See the appendix below for a longer discussion of this. The facts are these: In Ex 3:14 (LXX) we have ἐγώ εἰμι ὁ ὤν = "I am the being" [This is NOT a good translation of the Hebrew, "I am who I am", or ...


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In what sense did Jesus descend/come from heaven? As with many things about Jesus (and the bible in general), we must be certain to grasp what is literal and what is figurative. Did he literally come from 'heaven' to earth to be born as a child? No. First, we should clarify who Jesus is so that the following comments make sense. Jesus is the human son born ...


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They are identical in the words "I am" themselves: ἐγὼ εἰμί (“ego eimi”). See interlinear of John 8:58 here and of Exodus 3:14 here. It is worth pointing out than in the Septuagint “ego eimi” is followed by "ho on" to try to capture the breadth of the Hebrew "ehyeh", a concept that is difficult to convey through translation. ...


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A lot of answers here... I have skipped over some so I hope I am not repeating an already used reference. Might I answer this question quite simply by quoting JW's own Interlinear online https://www.jw.org/en/library/bible/kingdom-interlinear-greek-translation/books/john/8/ εἶπεν αὐτοῖς Ἰησοῦς᾿Αμὴν ἀμὴν λέγω ὑμῖν, πρὶν᾿Αβραὰμ γενέσθαι ἐγὼIεἰμ Said to them,...


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Most definitely and unequivocally, Jesus says that He existed in Heaven and descended from there, without, though, leaving the Father, for it is said that while He has descended He simultaneously has remained with the Father in Heaven (John 3:13) ("the Son of the Man who is in Heaven"). It is eternal and changeless theological 'momentum' that God-...


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The NT certainly asserts, using the precedents of the OT that Jesus existed before His incarnation. We see this many times in the Bible, especially in the Gospel of John, such as: John 1:1-3 - In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was with God in the beginning. Through Him all things were made, and without Him ...


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The Greek of John 16:28b is πάλιν ἀφίημι [= I leave] τὸν κόσμον καὶ πορεύομαι [= I go] πρὸς τὸν Πατέρα. In this construction it is difficult to make πάλιν apply to "go" rather than "leave" because of two reasons: proximity - "leave is MUCH closer separation - καὶ [= and] separates the two phrases, "I leave the world" and ...


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Passages about Jesus as God's right shows he is now in heaven, but does come from heaven and from the Father mean he was literally in heaven before he was born? This Jesus God raised up, and of that we all are witnesses. 33 Being therefore exalted at the right hand of God, and having received from the Father the promise of the Holy Spirit, he has poured out ...


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Is Jesus implying that he already existed in heaven prior to his incarnation? Yes, John declares his pre-existence in 1:18 No one has ever seen God, but the one and only Son, who is himself God and is in closest relationship with the Father, has made him known. How did Jesus reveal God? By descending from heaven, Jesus took on human flesh. He descended ...


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Considering the Greek βλεπη is used and this could mean both to see with the physical eye and/or with the mind’s eye, as in to understand, perceive, discern, one can make several observations. Firstly Jesus voluntarily annulled His divine attributes Phi2:7, so the only way to see the Father physically or in a vision would be to receive revelation through the ...


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Short answer: When Jesus says,  " the Son can do nothing of his own accord, but only what he sees the Father doing. For whatever the Father does, that the Son does likewise," He is basically just saying," I must be about My Father’s business” (Luke 2:49 KJV).  Long answer: "When reading this in  21st century English, it looks like monkey ...


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Great question! This made me scratch my head too. Let me share my personal understanding, if you keep reading, you'll see what happened next in a later verse: Therefore, because it was the Preparation Day, that the bodies should not remain on the cross on the Sabbath (for that Sabbath was a high day), the Jews asked Pilate that their legs might be broken, ...


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The spiritual reality was described in John 5:17 In his defense Jesus said to them, "My Father is always at his work to this very day, and I too am working." The intimacy continues to verse 19: So Jesus said to them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, the Son can do nothing of his own accord, but only what he sees the Father doing. For whatever the ...


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John 9:1 As he went along, he saw a man blind from birth. 2His disciples asked him, “Rabbi, who sinned, this man or his parents, that he was born blind?” How did this blind man get to this spot in the first place? Acts 3:2 may provide a clue: And a man who was lame from birth was being carried to the temple gate called Beautiful, where he was put every day ...


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Lets try to keep the analysis of the aforementioned verse in the context of the overall story of the Healing a Nobleman’s Son discussed in John 4:46-54 John 4:46-54 (NASB1995) Healing a Nobleman’s Son **46 Therefore He came again to Cana of Galilee where He had made the water wine. And there was a royal official whose son was sick at Capernaum. 47 When he ...


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Unless you (people) see signs and wonders, you (simply) will not believe. - John 4:48 NASB Jesus' statement seems more wistful than harsh, more longing than expectation. His words hang like a cloud over this story. The man in this account believes in Jesus' words that his son will live. When his son does in fact recuperate, not only he but his whole ...


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The Greek nouns in these two verses are generally translated "judgement", although in context, "damnation" is not completely wrong. John 5:29 has κρίσις (krisis and the English "crisis") = trial process, judgement Luke 20:47 has κρίμα (krima) = decision, sentence or verdict, judgement The distinction between these two nouns is ...


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The only record for a blind person using help in the first century was evidence of a seeing eye dog. But when exactly man’s best friend became an aide to people with disabilities and other challenges remains a mystery. The earliest evidence of such partnerships—a fresco in which a blind man is led by his dog, discovered amid the ruins of the ancient Roman ...


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I would say metaphorically since the language Jesus uses of the Trinity (Father, Son, Holy Spirit) elsewhere appears to be overtly metaphorical also. An example I think most relevant is when the Holy Spirit "receives" from the Son what it is that is to be revealed over time to the Church, which it "cannot now bear" (John 16:12). The only ...


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This claim of Jesus confirmed the conviction of the Jewish religious leaders that Jesus was a blasphemer as claiming His divinity, for they plainly say "we do not want to kill you for good deeds, but because being a man you make yourself God" (John 10:33), and "God" here does not mean a) any created being, even as elevated as angel or ...


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The original Greek words do not really say damnation. Young's Literal Translation John 5:29 and they shall come forth; those who did the good things to a rising again of life, and those who practised the evil things to a rising again of judgment [krisis G2920]. Luke 20:47 who devour the houses of the widows, and for a pretence make long prayers, these ...


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We can be sure that John was writing to the Jews, the caretakers of the word of God, the law and the prophets that all looked toward the coming Christ and the unfolding and re-envisioned Holy Days that found their true meaning through the New Covenant and its convenor Jesus through his blood, death and new life as the firstborn from the dead, Col 1. So we ...


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The frequent use of καὶ appears to be a Hebraism equivalent to the waw prefixed to the word that starts a new clause. 2 וְהָאָ֗רֶץ הָיְתָ֥ה תֹ֨הוּ֙ וָבֹ֔הוּ וְחֹ֖שֶׁךְ עַל־פְּנֵ֣י תְהֹ֑ום וְר֣וּחַ אֱלֹהִ֔ים מְרַחֶ֖פֶת עַל־פְּנֵ֥י הַמָּֽיִם׃ 3 וַיֹּ֥אמֶר אֱלֹהִ֖ים יְהִ֣י אֹ֑ור וַֽיְהִי־אֹֽור׃ (Gen. 1:2-3, MT) But there can be little doubt that the extreme ...


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This is Bruce Metzger's commentary on this text. He was an expert on this subject. 3:13 ἀνθρώπου {B} On the one hand, a minority of the Committee preferred the reading ἀνθρώπου ὁ ὤν ἐν τῷ οὐρανῷ, arguing that (1) if the short reading, supported almost exclusively by Egyptian witnesses, were original, there is no discernible motive that would have ...


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Perhaps Jesus himself, as a human body incarnate here on earth, was showing deep human frailties, He had certainty enough to say who he was to those He loved and chosen as his own.


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Which feast is in question? Is this feast the Passover? Jamieson-Fausset-Brown argues that the Passover is the intended feast of verse one which would mean that this is the second Passover celebration of Jesus' ministry. This would mean that one year had passed between 2:13 and 5:1. We cannot appeal to the other gospels for a definitive answer because the ...


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I also find it makes more sense to be Purim due to the fact he just simply calls it "A" feast of the Jews. I think if it had been one of the high feasts, Yohanan would have said which one it was, but he is simply putting no great importance on it, and nor should we.


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Note that Jesus was not specifically talking about the official but about the Jews in general in John 4:48 Unless you [people] see signs and wonders, you [people simply] will not believe. To balance this, we also have John 10:38 But if I do them, even though you do not believe me, believe the works, that you may know and understand that the Father is in ...


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This is the best explanation I've found. Jesus' response in 5:48 was primarily to the disciples. The official believing what Jesus said and heading back home showed superior faith. The immediate response of Jesus is remarkable in the context. ‘Unless you see signs and wonders you will not believe’ (iv. 48). John does not inform us what prompted this ...


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What's the name of the father that Jesus came in? Perhaps this question is equivalent to a similar question: What's the name of The Law that the sheriff, bailiff, police, etc. are referring to when they say "Open the door in the name of the law!"? In this context, it doesn't mean a literal name; it means that the legal system has given this ...


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‘Name’ had more than one meaning in biblical times; a point lost on most people today. We are inclined to think of what’s written on our birth certificates as our name/s, so your name may be Charles Mbogo, and you are asking if God the Father has a similar personal name designation. While it is true that ‘God’ is a general title and not a personal name, ...


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The word "name" here has multiple meanings. First, It is often used to designate the person himself. Jesus use this word to refer to himself in John 15:21 They will treat you this way because of my name, for they do not know the one who sent me. Matthew 10:22 and you will be hated by all for my name’s sake. But the one who endures to the end will ...


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This is my first post and it's a rather intimidating topic to address coming from the angle I'll be presenting :) I recall years ago reading a passage that struck me as having a striking resemblance to what Jesus perhaps was referring to in John 18:19 and John 17:12. This would require one to be a bit open minded to appreciate it, but the resemblance is ...


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In what sense did Father dwell in Jesus? Is it a figure of speech? It most certainly is not a figure of speech! To entertain such a notion is to misunderstand the nature of Jesus entirely. I cast no aspersions on the OP as, no doubt, this was intended as a rhetorical comment. Hold to the Rod said, "the Father is not physically present". But, that ...


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How can Jesus say “My Father is working until now” in John 5:16,17 if God rested on the 7th day? John 5:16-17 NASB 16 For this reason the Jews were persecuting Jesus, because He was doing these things on a Sabbath. 17 But He answered them, “My Father ]is working until now, and I Myself am working.”John 5:16-17 What did he mean? Jesus’ words at John 5:16, ...


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That something more transcendent than physical oneness is intended can be seen by flipping ahead a few chapters to the great intercessory prayer. In John 17: 6 I have manifested thy name unto the men which thou gavest me out of the world: thine they were, and thou gavest them me; and they have kept thy word. 11 And now I am no more in the world, but these ...


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The operative verb translated "abide" or "remain" is μένω (menó) - the largest number occur in John who almost elevates the word to a technical word. He uses meno in the sense of someone "abiding" or "remaining" in someone or something else in both the literal sense and in the Metaphorical/spiritual sense. Literal ...


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The passage you are listing does not actually imply that Judas was doomed to destruction so that the scriptures might be fulfilled. In the ESV for example While I was with them, I kept them in your name, which you have given me. I have guarded them, and not one of them has been lost except the son of destruction, that the Scripture might be fulfilled. ...


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(Possibly, Until Jesus went to the Father He did not want to be touched because those touching Him were corrupt (Dead). In the Old Testament it was forbidden to touch the dead. Once He completed His assertion than it would be different. Or He was telling her I’ll be back but don’t hold me here because I have to this first. It’s an interesting passage.


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What is difficult with the word ψυχή is soul has developed a much different meaning than what it meant to the first century Jew. Look at how we use the word psyche, which is a transliteration of ψυχή and the word psychology. It can be rather shocking to a Greek student reading the John 15:13. μείζονα ταύτης ἀγάπην οὐδεὶς ἔχει, ἵνα °τις τὴν ψυχὴν αὐτοῦ θῇ ...


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Hold up a bit - not so fast! The Bible does NOT say that God creates for destruction and over-rides our free choice - it says the opposite! See appendix below. Jesus' statement about Judas being "doomed to destruction" was a statement of simple fact on the basis of the choices he had made. Please do not confuse God's foreknowledge with any idea ...


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