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Why is it only Matthew who records Peter walking on water in Matthew 14:26-31?

Only Matthew and John were to witness it. John writes to provoke faith in Jesus, resulting in eternal life. “That you may believe”. He is likely writing both to call unbelievers to faith in Jesus and ...
Dpki8p's user avatar
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How did Jesus "hide himself" or "pass through the midst" of mobs intent on killing him?

Jesus Was not Handsome The Man, Jesus of Nazareth was not a good looking man. He was not a handsome guy so that people would take notice of Him, and turn back and look at Him again! I don’t say this....
Nephesh Roi's user avatar
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The word 'believe' in John 3:15-16

Don't the demons "believe" and tremble? The word has been changed in the Lexicons, Concordances, Bible dictionaries, and then in the translations, but originally, it was "faithful."...
Sheryl Lynn's user avatar
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What is the deeper significance of the seamless coat of Jesus?

God is one, seamlessly. He and the Father ARE one per John 10:30, 17:11, 17:22. NOT three in one.
Bavarian Almonds's user avatar
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Question regarding apparent contradiction between Luke 24 and John 20

Unfortunately, I don't follow what the answers are trying to say. I'll try to clarify the question. According to John 20:1-3. Mary Magdaline came to the tomb and saw that the stone was rolled away (...
user66129's user avatar
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How did Jesus "hide himself" or "pass through the midst" of mobs intent on killing him?

Gentlemen and ladies, You are missing the point! Each time Jesus “went through the midst of them”, Jesus was telling them whom He is. Each time He showed them and those around Him that He physically ...
Robert A Boehm's user avatar
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Why does Jesus tell his mother his "hour has not yet come"?

The Hour When Jesus said that His hour had not yet come, Jesus was revealing that He was fully cognizant of His purpose for coming to Earth. His life was not one bandied about by circumstances out of ...
ray grant's user avatar
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Did the dialogue with "the Woman at the Well" forecast, by anticipation, Jesus's prophecy about the Destruction of the Temple in Matthew 24?

A Dimensional Shift The conversation between the Woman at the Well and Jesus is one of the most confrontational dialogues in the N.T., yet one of the most heart-searching, transformational incidents ...
ray grant's user avatar
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Is John 18:31 better understood as "It is not lawful for us to murder anyone."

There are indeed questions about whether the Sanhedrin had the authority under Pilate's regime to execute people. However, to the OP's headline question the answer is no. The group of Jewish ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
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Is John 18:31 better understood as "It is not lawful for us to murder anyone."

We should begin by noting that, by definition, it is ALWAYS illegal to murder, precisely because murder is illegal killing. The OP has accurately described the meanings of both ἀποκτείνω and θανατόω ...
Dottard's user avatar
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1 vote
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What is "the manner of the purifying of the Jews" as mentioned in John 2:6?

The Jews had a tradition of washing their hands before eating. It was usual for there to be water available for this purpose. The number and size of the pots indicates there was preparation for many ...
llessurt's user avatar
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In John 1:1c, should the Greek word θεὸς be translated into English as “a god” or “God”?

Answer IF in John 1:1c, the anarthrous (without article) Greek word “THEOS” can be translated as “a god” (with small “g”) for Jesus Christ, THEN it can be applied to God the Almighty Father as well! ...
Nephesh Roi's user avatar
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"for my thirst they gave me sour wine" and anything else?

I take the view that Psalm 69 is not a prophetic psalm that was fulfilled by Jesus being given sour wine during the crucifixion. The OP's interpretation works only if the crucifixion is viewed through ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
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What did Jesus mean calling the devil a ‘murderer’ ? John 8:44

As a human, Jesus died, was executed, and murdered because of human unfaithfulness to GOD. This unfaithfulness was literally or metaphorically devised by evil incarnate, Satan, the devil, etc. ...
george k chung's user avatar
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How can John 3:13-14 be reconciled with what happened to Enoch, Elijah and Jesus?

John 3:13 (ESV) No one has ascended into heaven except he who descended from heaven, the Son of Man. While the statements ascended and descended within the passage present serious difficulties, ...
Revelation Lad's user avatar
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John 1:1 - How would Λόγος (Logos) be understood in Hellenistic philosophy?

Logos was a demanded response that occurred during philosophical debates. A philosopher would state his idea, then the audience would respond with “what is your Logos?” Logos in the Greek was the ...
Roamer 's user avatar
3 votes

Is there any other God other than the one true God of Jesus Christ, John 17:3?

The Bible is clear that there is but one God alone. This was the Hebraic understanding, and the belief that set Israel apart from "the nations" for millennia. The God of Israel promised ...
Apologetics's user avatar
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Who is "A person" in, "A person cannot receive even one thing....". John 3:27?

As Thayer notes, ἄνθρωπος without the article (i.e., indefinite) can be used in the sense of “someone...when who he is either is not known or is not important” and thus “equivalent to τὶς [anyone; ...
Der Übermensch's user avatar
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Is there any other God other than the one true God of Jesus Christ, John 17:3?

Introduction I have often heard some people making two bold claims with two verses from the Scripture just to try futilely to disprove that Lord Jesus is God. The first one is the famous Shema in ...
Nephesh Roi's user avatar
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Is there any other God other than the one true God of Jesus Christ, John 17:3?

You've asked two similar, but significantly different questions, with quite opposite answers. Yes: Is there any other God other than the one true God of Jesus Christ? 2 Colossians 4:4 explicitly ...
Ray Butterworth's user avatar
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Why did Jesus create Judas only for the predestined purpose of being doomed to destruction - based on [Colossians 1:15-20] + [John 13:27, 17:12]?

Even if one wants to take the extreme position the OP suggests, Jesus created Judas only for the predestined purpose of becoming doomed to destruction, we must not forget the Law provided a means for ...
Revelation Lad's user avatar
1 vote

Is there any other God other than the one true God of Jesus Christ, John 17:3?

Jesus clearly wants us to know that his Father is the ONLY true God. And he even points out that this is important for eternal life! This is a common theme all throughout scripture. Paul says "...
Kenneth Joel's user avatar
2 votes

Is Jesus' "I am" statement in John 8:58 equivalent to God's "I am" statement in Exodus 3:14?

When Jesus said I Am in John 8:58 it is the Greek Ego Eimi, and Ego Eimi is stated 71 times all throughout the New Testament, it is not a claim of being God. The blind man said Ego Eimi in John 9:9 ...
Kenneth Joel's user avatar
1 vote

Why did Jesus create Judas only for the predestined purpose of being doomed to destruction - based on [Colossians 1:15-20] + [John 13:27, 17:12]?

There is nowhere in the Bible a concept of a 'free will' except in the case of Adam and Eve prior to their fall, the angels, prior to their fall and the new Adam, Jesus the Messiah of God who never ...
Mike's user avatar
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2 votes

John 20:4: προέδραμεν has a singular subject. What does that mean?

προέδραμε(ν) is singular. The plural form is προέδραμον.
Jakub Lédl's user avatar
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Why did Jesus create Judas only for the predestined purpose of being doomed to destruction - based on [Colossians 1:15-20] + [John 13:27, 17:12]?

I believe that the devil made a conjecture with the punishment of Judas so that the spirits would become misguided by feelings of a lack of net worth due to his holding the money bag. The levites who ...
AJSM's user avatar
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2 votes

John 20:4: προέδραμεν has a singular subject. What does that mean?

John 20:4 contains two sentences linked by "and/καὶ" as follows: Sentence #1 ἔτρεχον δὲ οἱ δύο ὁμοῦ - but the two were running together Here, the subjects is "two" and the verb &...
Dottard's user avatar
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5 votes
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John 20:4: προέδραμεν has a singular subject. What does that mean?

This is your word of interest: John 20:3-4 NKJV 3 Peter therefore went out, and the other disciple, and were going to the tomb. 4 So they both ran together, and the other disciple outran Peter and ...
Jason_'s user avatar
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What might have 'stirred up' Jerusalem’s pool of Bethzatha in John 5:1-7

The spring Gihon that supplies pool Bethesda is an intermittent spring. An intermittent spring or siphon spring will gush at varying times depending on condition of the associated aquifer. The siphon ...
Robert Gilmer's user avatar
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How do we reconcile John 17:22 with Isaiah 42:8?

Isaiah 42:8 says God will not give His glory to another. John 17:22 Christ gives the glory that the Father gave him to believers so that believers can be one, as Christ and the Father are one. This ...
Mason Simmons's user avatar
2 votes
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What does "word/logon" mean in "I have given them your word" John 17:14?

Both works in v8 and v14 are direct objects. Thus, they are accusative. λόγον is the accusative singular of λόγος. ῥήματα is the accusative plural of ῥῆμα. There is some overlap in these two words. ...
Perry Webb's user avatar
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3 votes

John 1:4-5. If life is the light of men, what is the darkness?

John starts his gospel account referring to Creation (Genesis 1:1 ff., which is mysterious in its wording). John then brings clarity by leaping straight from Creation to the arrival of John the ...
Anne's user avatar
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0 votes

John 1:4-5. If life is the light of men, what is the darkness?

The verse in John 1:5 about darkness appears to be a direct allusion to Isa 9:1, 2 - a prophecy fulfilled by Jesus: Nevertheless, there will be no more gloom for those in distress. In the past He ...
Dottard's user avatar
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1 vote

John 1:4-5. If life is the light of men, what is the darkness?

A comment from the article "Follow the Light of the World" from the Watchtower of April 1, 1993, says: Light stands for truth and righteousness,in contrast with darkness, which stands for ...
Jim monette's user avatar
1 vote

Does pisteuō mean Believe or obey?

Let me state this as emphatically as possible: There is NOTHING in the meaning of the word πιστεύω that suggests "to obey". One may consult any reputable lexicon and all list the meaning of ...
Dottard's user avatar
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3 votes

Does pisteuō mean Believe or obey?

πιστεύσωσιν, pisteusosin, see Biblehub interlinear for John 1:7 is an inflection of πιστεύω, pisteuo, see Biblehub/Strong 4100 and Thayer. All of the meanings associated with this word are 'faith' '...
Nigel J's user avatar
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0 votes

In what sense would Nathanael have "seen" in John 1:51?

In the language of Christianity, Nathaniel would have “seen” just by imagining. During the martyr of Stephen, the same imaginary vision was seen only by Stephen. Because only Stephen “sees” it we can ...
Roamer 's user avatar
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Why did John make such a big deal about being a faster runner than Peter?

In many questions of motivation, we need to depend on inferences from human nature, patterns of behavior, and from cultural norms. There are also direct quotes from scripture that shouldn’t be ignored,...
Dieter's user avatar
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What is the logic behind Jesus' refusal to be touched / clung to by Mary because he had not yet ascended to the Father? John 20:17

Jesus is reassuring her. Consider 'cling' ἅπτω with 'ascend' ἀναβαίνω. This is theater, not theology. This isn't theological like John 3 The passage indeed has theological implications, but Jesus is ...
Jesse's user avatar
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Is there an interpretation of the blood and water that poured from Jesus' side (John 19:34) that involves, in part, some physiological component?

It seems an appropriate time now to continue considering this question. It’s important to note that Jesus was not the first nor by any means the last Jew crucified by the Romans. It was a fairly ...
Dieter's user avatar
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