New answers tagged

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The favourite phrase of Jesus: "truly, truly, I say to you ... " (which occurs often but only in the Gospel of John, first in John 1:51) is directed to the person or people to whom Jesus us speaking at the time. Thus, Jesus comments are literally directed to the disciples or the crown, depending on the context. However, since nothing that Jesus ...


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In a sense, Scripture preserves for us the voice or the word of God. Long ago God spoke to our ancestors in many and various ways by the prophets, but in these last days he has spoken to us by a Son (He 1:1-2) God has spoken, but are we really listening and do we understand? In the text, hearing refers to more than just the physical sense or faculty. In my ...


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Jesus' remarks about His followers hearing and obeying "my voice" is a direct allusion to several such uses in the OT such as: 1 Kings 19:12 - After the earthquake there was a fire, but the LORD was not in the fire. And after the fire came a still, small voice. [That is the voice of instruction and lead from God.] Isa 40:3 - A voice of one ...


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John 10:1 “Very truly I tell you Pharisees, anyone who does not enter the sheep pen by the gate, but climbs in by some other way, is a thief and a robber. 2The one who enters by the gate is the shepherd of the sheep. 3The gatekeeper opens the gate for him, and the sheep listen to his voice. He calls his own sheep by name and leads them out. 4When he has ...


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Maybe not a specific (or good) answer, but: anyone who reads Scripture will find hundreds of contradictions. The takeaway is that Scripture was intended to instruct, not intended to be taken word-for-word literally. Before I became a Christian, I delighted in these contradictions. It was evidence to my naive mind that Scripture was untrustworthy. Once I ...


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If you judge, then Christ judges. That is, your Christ consciousness does it and you will feel it. A good demonstration of this in life is that you no longer feel judged when you stop judging others.


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These statements are not contradictory but are referring to different things. When Jesus says he did not come to judge, he is referring to the purpose for which he was sent into the world. “God did not send the Son into the world to condemn the world, but in order that the world might be saved through him” (Jn 3:17). If we stand back and look at Jesus' ...


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When human words are applied to God, they change their meaning and are transfigured into new, wonderful meanings. The same with the term "judgment": humanly, "judgment" means that one's action is esteemed and if found wrong the actor is given a just reprisal. For instance, a student's test is esteemed, and if found that he answered 8 from ...


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Will the King of kings Judge? You can count upon it. If He didn't, He would be the first king that didn't judge. Jesus is the King of kings and LORD of lords. When will He judge? In His times--future times per 1 Ti 6:12-15, KJV: Fight the good fight of faith, lay hold on eternal life, whereunto thou art also called, and hast professed a good profession ...


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The answer to the question does not lie in the statement but in the time/period. The first time Jesus was sent into the world His duty was to spread the Word of God to all men and not to judge anyone: For God did not send the Son into the world to judge the world, but that the world might be saved through Him. “He who believes in Him is not judged; he who ...


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Does Jesus Judge or Not? There are many passages that appear to directly contradict each other. Here is a sample on the subject of judgment. Jesus Judges all people: Jesus acknowledged that God had appointed him as a judge who met the divine standard. At John 5:22 ASV he said: Furthermore, the Father judges no one,but has assigned all judgment to the Son. ...


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I think an excellent question, but perhaps needs to be more specific. - You need to differentiate is ‘what is being judged’, because this makes a difference, it makes the difference - that is, the answer as to ‘Does Jesus Judge’ .... will differ! Let’s look a little closer ... The first point to note is seen here. JOHN 5:22 Furthermore, the Father judges no ...


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John 12:47 “If anyone hears my words but does not keep them, I do not judge that person. For I did not come to judge the world, but to save the world. 48There is a judge for the one who rejects me and does not accept my words; the very words I have spoken will condemn them at the last day. 49For I did not speak on my own, but the Father who sent me commanded ...


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Suppose a lorry carries a load up a hill; we can say the lorry is responsible for taking the the load up the hill. But then we can say, no, actually the lorry was not responsible, it was the the driver who was responsible. Then we can say actually it wasn't the driver but God who sustains all things. [Heb 1:3 He upholds the universe]. The lorry is an ...


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Does Jesus Judge or Not? Yes, Jesus judges. In 2 Corinthians 5:10 For we must all appear before the judgment seat of Christ, so that each one may receive compensation for his deeds done through the body, in accordance with what he has done, whether good or bad. This judgement seat comes from the word bēma and, combined with Matt. 16:27, 2 Tim. 4:8, Rev 22:...


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Jesus addressed her adultery and she was honest and admitted to it, and then He gives her the revelation of the Holy Spirit and Himself. Living Waters is the Holy Spirit and Jesus being the Messiah, the Savior and Redeemer. He who forgives sins and makes us into new creatures. Jesus always addresses the person on a personal level. Jesus reveals your ...


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For many reasons, I don't believe that the new heavenly bodies will resemble former earthly bodies. Imagine having a new body that looks like a family member who went to hell or even one who killed you. Our appearance in this life depends on our genes but also on how we lived, our health, nutrition, the environment. A new body would not be the product of ...


2

Excellent question that this humble exegete will probably not resolve as many better have also attempted the same. So, let us examine the evidence in the Gospel of John: For the most part, John appears to use the Jewish method of time reckoning by counting hours of 12 hours of daylight from dawn: John 1:39 - the 10th hour (= about 4pm) John 4:6 - the 6th ...


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For the grace of God that bringeth salvation hath appeared to all men, Teaching us that, denying ungodliness and worldly lusts, we should live soberly, righteously, and godly, in this present world; [Titus 2:11,12 KJV] I have quoted the above text as it may be that which has suggested the question, originally. Here, Paul says that grace has 'appeared' but ...


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You won’t find any verse or scripture that directly says this. (That Grace is a person/Jesus.). But, nevertheless, in a similar vein to ‘the trinity’, scripture clearly shows this. The clouding issue is the definition or interpretation of the word ‘Grace’, in particular as it is used in doctrinal statements. But, putting these aside, and looking at scripture,...


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I love the New Living Translation (NLT) (when used in conjunction with other helps). In this situation it greatly illuminates John 3:6: [Jhn 3:3-8 NLT] (3) Jesus replied, "I tell you the truth, unless you are born again [or, "from above"], you cannot see the Kingdom of God." (4) "What do you mean?" exclaimed Nicodemus. "...


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Salvation is from Jews, because Jesus is the one through whom salvation was to come, and Jesus is Jew. But those concrete Jews who did not accept Him were enemies of their own salvation, for it is to serve justice to accept Jesus as Messiah, but as Psalms say, "he who loves injustice, hates his own soul" (ὁ δὲ ἀγαπῶν ἀδικίαν μισεῖ τὴν ἑαυτοῦ ψυχήν /...


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This is not an answer as much as a train of thought set in motion by the question and based on the premise that Adam “is a type of the one who was to come.” (Rm 5:14) The imagery of the vine and branches brings to mind a genealogical chart or a family tree. If we can imagine it as such, then we can juxtapose the physical genealogy that originates with Adam, ...


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for He was before me Many denominations accept that before his incarnation, Jesus was the JHVH of the old testament. Many scriptures support this, in particular [John 8:58 (KJV): Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am. Those who heard this obviously understood it as his claiming to be JHVH (the I AM).


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The Greek word kosmos simply means "an apt and harmonious arrangement or constitution, order, government". That is the first meaning according to The NAS New Testament Greek Lexicon. The last definition is: "any aggregate or general collection of particulars of any sort" and the editor gives his examples: "the Gentiles as ...


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The greater question of the question posed is, “Does Scripture support the Universalism?” And do the passages-John 1:29 & 12:47 support the Universalism? 1. The Universalism (differ from the Universal atonement) The modern-day Universalism -Christian Universalism - is a specific theological term for a belief that ultimately all human beings - all people/ ...


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Several lexicons I consulted all give a very similar origin for the Greek transliteration resulting in Θωμᾶς (Thomas). Thayer: Θωμᾶς, Θωμᾷ, ὁ (תְּאום (i. e. twin), see δίδυμος), Thomas, one of Christ's apostles: Matthew 10:3; Mark 3:18; Luke 6:15; John 11:16; John 14:5; John 20:24-29 (in 29 Rec. only); John 21:2; Acts 1:13. (B. D. under the word.) Strong's:...


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Who is Yahweh? Commentaries only discuss the meaning of the words. What is the context of what Jesus is telling us? Jesus was speaking to the leaders of the temple, when He tells them that their God "Yahweh", is Satan. Who is Yahweh? Yahweh is the old testament God of Moses. This is the God that brought the Israelis out of Egypt to the promised ...


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Part of the following explanation of your question was taken from this site. https://www.xenos.org/teachings/?teaching=469 I am going to quote some of it because I think he gave an excellent explanation. "The Logos Is Ultimate Reality (vs 1-3) Read vs 1-3. John introduces us to an entity he calls "the Word."This is the Greek word logos. ...


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In John 1:1 why is “The Word” used instead of saying Jesus? Because it would not be true. Jesus was born ~ 4 BC and was not around 'in the beginning' which refers to the creation account of Genesis. In the beginning God created the heavens and the earth. Gen 1:! Now we know from scripture that Jesus is not God - the son of God, the form of God, the image ...


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John 1:1 (which the local/immediate context extends to verse 5) is a prelude to the CREATION account of Genesis 1 (Bereshith: “In the beginning”) in which the “Word” WAS the “Beginning of the creation of God.” (Psalm 33:6; Hebrews 1:1-2; 11:3; 2Peter 3:5; Revelation 3:14). The REDEMPTION account which God gave His REDEMPTION plan starting in Genesis 3:15 ...


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In John 1:1 why is “The Word” used instead of saying Jesus? To connect the pre-incarnate Christ with the pre-existing Word. John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. Word Λόγος (Logos) Noun - Nominative Masculine Singular Strong's Greek 3056: From lego; something said; by implication, a topic, also reasoning ...


2

The word translated prince in the Greek is archon which in the LXX is used in several different ways, it ultimately means to be in charge of, in the sense of a leader, or the first in command. Who is therefore the first in command and in charge of this world? And more importantly how did he attain this position? “in which you once walked, following the ...


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The prophet Yeshayahu spoke of a savior the Prince of Peace called "Immanu-El" (עִמָּ֥נוּ אֵֽל) and another ruler who casts lots over nations called Shining One "Helel" (הֵילֵל). In Isaiah 14:12, the prophet Yeshayahu refers to the Prince of this world as the "Morning Star" ( Heylel, הֵילֵ֣ל) . Helel originally referred to the &...


2

That the Father sent the Son to be the saviour of the world and that John declares of him ‘Behold the Lamb of God which taketh away the sin of the world’, does not suggest, in any way, a ‘Christian Universalism’, that is to say the notion that, automatically, all humankind shall be saved irrespective of their behaviour, irrespective of faith or irrespective ...


0

The question is a bit ambiguous, for it gives two quotes - John 1:29 an John 12:47 - which have quite different connotations: the first clearly shows that according to John Jesus' ministry is for the entire world and not just for one chosen nation of Jews, and there are quite a few passages in John that confirm the same. Thus, if in "universalism" ...


1

John is a fascinating philosophical take. Its perception in scholarship has also evolved remarkably. Pretty much everything we thought we knew about John has changed in the 20th century, particularly since the 1980s. There has been new knowledge about John that has come from excavation of the pool of Bethesda to the relationship between the "children ...


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Does John teach Universalism? Yes and NO! Let me be more specific. There is an important difference between the provision of salvation and the reality of salvation. The Bible clearly teaches that the provision of salvation is universal but the actuality is not. In the writings of John we have: John 1:29, “Behold the Lamb of God who takes away the sin of ...


0

The answer depends on whether partaking of the Lord's Supper is one of these things: 1) It's not a commandment. If it's not a commandment, then it becomes very difficult to maintain that partaking is a salvation issue. However, the Scriptures are rather clear that partaking is something commanded of all of us. 2) We are commanded to partake once, after which ...


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Thou hast brought a vine out of Egypt: thou hast cast out the heathen, and planted it. 9Thou preparedst room before it, and didst cause it to take deep root, and it filled the land. 10The hills were covered with the shadow of it, and the boughs thereof were like the goodly cedars. 11She sent out her boughs unto the sea, and her branches unto the river. 12Why ...


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I am not sure this will answer your question but here it is. According to physics (about which I have some expertise), "light", namely electromagnetic radiation, cannot exist in the absence of space-time. God does not need space-time to exist because He is the ultimate prime-eval cause. Now here is the nub of the matter - Since God is eternal, and ...


2

Means of identification The biological body with five senses, touch, taste, smell, sight and hearing can identify a person. The mind though immaterial is another means of identifying a person, key phrases, behaviors and/or mannerisms can bring into play memories which identify a person. Morphing Jesus Himself prior even to His resurrection transfigured or ...


2

Because they had watched Him die. Even if foretold, resurrection is very hard to believe. Just like moderns, the ancients tended to assume that the dead stay dead, and would have trouble recognizing anyone they knew was dead, even right in front of their eyes.


3

This whole question relates to the Person of Christ. The Son of God is ever with the Father. And he told us that the Son of man (The Son, of man) is in heaven. 'Is' in heaven. He spoke those words when his physical feet were on this earth, John 3:13. He was separated from his God (as man to God) in his sufferings. My God, My God, why hast thou forsaken me, ...


8

In the first case, Mary was exceedingly upset. 'They have taken away my Lord and I know not where they have laid him.' Grief overcame her. And frustration, that she could neither find Jesus nor lay him to rest. True, there were reasons that she should have known what would happen and what was yet to happen, but who can fault her as she wept in her love for ...


1

Acts 10:40-41 God raised Him up on the third day and granted that He become visible, not to all the people, but to witnesses who were chosen beforehand by God, that is, to us who ate and drank with Him after He arose from the dead. NASB There is a clear sense that God was supervising the revealing of the re-born son. (Col 1:18 He is also head of the body, ...


1

There actually four matters here that I will take one at a time: Parakletos The Greek word, despite occurring only five times in the NT (John 14:16, 26, 15:26, 16:7, 1 John 2:1) is very well known and is variously translated as "comforter", "helper", "advocate", etc. I note the following three points: Once parakletos refers to ...


2

Here's an answer I posted elsewhere a couple of years ago: On the first Sunday after Passover, Jesus wouldn’t let anyone touch him. John 20:17 says “Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father …”. Yet later that day he did allow people to touch him. This implies that he had ascended to heaven sometime during that day. ...


2

We have numerous time where the Holy Spirit "come" or "fills" people, here is a sample: John 20:22 - When He had said this, He breathed on them and said, “Receive the Holy Spirit Acts 2:3, 4 - They saw tongues like flames of fire that separated and came to rest on each of them. And they were all filled with the Holy Spirit ... Acts 4:8 - ...


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