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In John 11:2 why did John reference Mary anointing Jesus’ feet before this occurred in chapter 12?

Because Mary want more blessing, and she used her hair to dry Jesus feet. JOHN 12:3
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1 vote

John 18:5 The Great I AM has become I am he

There are 7 I am statements by Jesus in the gospel of John but John 18:5 is not one of them! The Bread of Life And Jesus said to them, "I am the bread of life. He who comes to Me shall never ...
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4 votes

How accurate is the New World Translation bible?

For a full analysis of how the NWT renders John 1:1 and Colossians 1:16, I refer you to Section IV in the following article: http://www.bible-researcher.com/metzger.jw.html Here is a partial quote ...
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How accurate is the New World Translation bible?

I would concentrate on the question regarding Colossians 1:16 as the other 2 have been discussed at length on this site. My answer was taken from jw.org. all other things: A literal rendering of the ...
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1 vote

How accurate is the New World Translation bible?

When translating from Greek to English (or between any two languages), we must understand that the understanding of, and implications present in, any given text in one language, are separate to the ...
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3 votes

Did Jesus change his view on preaching to Gentiles?

This is where collating information from another gospel account, that of Mark, helps show that Jesus did not "change his mind on this matter, as at the end of his life (or rather after the end of ...
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1 vote

How does "the day of judgement" in Matthew 10:15 compare with "is condemned already" in John 3:18?

ESVMark 16:16: “Whoever believes and is baptized will be saved, but whoever does not believe will be condemned.” Hebrews 12:25: “See that you do not refuse him who is speaking. For if they did not ...
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2 votes

How does "the day of judgement" in Matthew 10:15 compare with "is condemned already" in John 3:18?

Matthew 10:15 speaks of the future Day of Judgment in which all people will stand before God, the righteous being commended and the unrighteous being condemned in the final eschatological sense. See: (...
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11 votes

How accurate is the New World Translation bible?

The NWT is contentious, not only for some of its "unique" translations, but also because it is one of the very few denominationally specific versions - used only by the JWs. However, let us ...
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1 vote

How accurate is the New World Translation bible?

Consider John 1:1 Greek English equivalent Ἐν in ἀρχῇ beginning ἦν was ὁ the λόγος word καὶ and ὁ the λόγος word ἦν was πρὸς with τὸν the θεόν god καὶ and θεὸς god ἦν was ὁ the λόγος ...
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0 votes

How accurate is the New World Translation bible?

A very similar question is asked in an article on the jw.org website. In the article "Is the New World Translation Accurate?", are listed the following comments from non-Witness scholars: ...
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2 votes

Will the righteous be judged 2 Cor 5:10 or will they not John 5:24?

John 5:24 is talking about judgement of condemnation and 2 Co 5:10 of mankinds deeds, we shall ALL be judged at the Bema seat but the non-believers shall be judged for for eternal life or condemnation,...
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2 votes

Will the righteous be judged 2 Cor 5:10 or will they not John 5:24?

In the light of Paul wanting to please the Lord (2 Corinthians 5:9), he here turned his attention to a judgment seat before which all believers will stand. The Greek noun for “judgment seat” is “BEMA,”...
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5 votes

Will the righteous be judged 2 Cor 5:10 or will they not John 5:24?

All the dead will appear before the great white throne of judgment, standing there in their resurrection bodies - Revelation 20:11-15. Verse 13 states that "they were judged every man according ...
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2 votes

Are John 15:1-11 and Revelation 3:14-22 referring to the same group of people?

Who are the people referred to in John 15:1-11? Jesus' followers are being personally addressed by him. They already believe in him, love him, and are following him. Note how, in 14:23, Jesus answered ...
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3 votes
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Are John 15:1-11 and Revelation 3:14-22 referring to the same group of people?

This question conflates two matters that I will keep more distinct. Whether the lukewarm members of the church of Laodicea (Rev 3:14-22) are the same as those not bearing fruit (John 15:1-11) are ...
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-1 votes

Who asks nothing in my name in John 16:24, and why is joy referenced specifically?

This is the second time Jesus has told the disciples to pray in Jesus' name. Note the two instances: John 14:12-14 - Truly, truly, I tell you, whoever believes in Me will also do the works that I am ...
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Who asks nothing in my name in John 16:24, and why is joy referenced specifically?

Who? Jesus is speaking here to 11 of the 12 apostles (Judas has already left). Ask in my name It is clear that the disciples have already learned to pray and to ask the Father for the things they need;...
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4 votes

Is the Son sealed, by the Father, 'as God' (John 6:27)?

Op asks, "Is not the meaning that the Father has impressed his seal upon the Son to demonstrate that he is equal Deity?" sealed: 4972 sphragízō (from 4973 /sphragís, – properly to attest ...
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3 votes

Is the Son sealed, by the Father, 'as God' (John 6:27)?

The OP's proposed translation is not possible because the word, God" or "deity" is NOT in either the accusative case nor the dative case to make such possible. Indeed, the only ...
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3 votes

Is the Son sealed, by the Father, 'as God' (John 6:27)?

While I have no problem with the theology of your interpretation, there is a problem with the grammar. The problem is that ὁ θεός is nominative and thus in apposition to the subject rather than being ...
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0 votes

Is there a contradiction between John 6:44 and Matthew 22:14?

We read: Then he said to his servants, ‘The wedding is ready, but those who were invited were not worthy. 9 Therefore go into the highways, and as many as you find, invite to the wedding.’ 10 So ...
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2 votes
Accepted

Is John 7:38 a paraphrase of OT scripture?

The situation is succinctly summed up by Ellicott: The exact words “Out of his belly shall flow rivers of living water,” are not found in any part of the Canonical Scriptures of the Old Testament, ...
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2 votes

Why was the phrase "..as though he heard them not." deleted from many versions of Jn 8:6?

That phrase in verse 6 is part of 12 whole verses that are omitted in many modern translations. You do not ask about that, but in one Interlinear of John's gospel I found this comment about the Greek ...
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0 votes

(John 19:19, Hebrew) was YHWH written on the Cross?

I've started learning Hebrew self-teaching through grammars at home. I'm very new. Would the vav not be required in Hebrew? If I try to translate without the Vav, I end up with a noun noun sequence ...
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3 votes

Is John 7:38 a paraphrase of OT scripture?

It is possible this was paraphrasing an OT reality/scripture … This phrase “as the scripture hath said” could possibly be referring to Isaiah 58:11 where the Lord promised to make us “like a watered ...
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1 vote

What did Jesus imply in John 11:9,10?

He is referring to an important day occurring on an equinox that helps him with important struggles in ordering his steps and judging risks and priorities with his time on Earth as man. By that point ...
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1 vote

What is the most accurate English translation of John 16:25 with respect to “figurative language”?

John 16:25 paroimia Etymology οἶμος (oimos) a way, road, path, course of a song. Paroimia should be allegory The representation of abstract ideas or principles by characters, figures, or events in ...
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1 vote
Accepted

What is the most accurate English translation of John 16:25 with respect to “figurative language”?

According to BDAG, the operative word, παροιμία (paroimia) has the following meaning: a pithy saying, proverb, maxim, eg, 2 Peter 2:22 a brief communication containing truths designed for initiates, ...
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-1 votes

Is the use of ἀγάπη (agape) and ἀγαπάω (agapao) evidence the Gospel and Letters of John were written from Ephesus?

I love my dad. I always showed love to my dad. These sentences are very different. In fact, they do show the differences between agape and agapao. Christ asked why do you say you love Me (paraphrased) ...
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Is there any significance behind Jesus' use of the word "love" in "John 21:15-17"

It seems to be as insignificant here as His usage of the πρόβατα and αρνία (sheep) interchangeably. But significant is that He pronounces even the three phrases with identical semantics in three ...
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Is there any significance behind Jesus' use of the word "love" in "John 21:15-17"

What are the difficulties in understanding John’s use of ἀγαπάω and φιλέω in John 21:15-17? Ὅτε οὖν ἠρίστησαν λέγει τῷ Σίμωνι Πέτρῳ ὁ Ἰησοῦς· Σίμων ⸀Ἰωάννου, ἀγαπᾷς με πλέον τούτων; λέγει αὐτῷ· ναὶ ...
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3 votes

Why did the detachment of soldiers and the police fall to the ground during Jesus' arrest in John 18:6?

There has been a large amount of commentary on John 18:6, and there is no settled explanation of why the soldiers and police (if indeed it is meant to be inclusive of all sent to arrest Him) stepped ...
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Imperfect Indicative Active in John 1:1-4

There is no article with ἀρχῇ, so John is not speaking of the beginning in the sense of Genesis 1. He is indicating a quality of time, a 'beginning kind of time.' So the first part of John 1:1 reads ...
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2 votes
Accepted

Why did Christ initially reveal himself to Mary only in John 20?

Christ revealed himself physically to Mary in John 20 but John's revelation that "Christ is risen" comes in the same chapter. My answer to your question about only appearing to Mary is that ...
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Why did Christ initially reveal himself to Mary only in John 20?

"Mary" Μαρία (Maria) "Magdalene" Μαγδαληνή in [John 20] was a "Bat-Zion" בַת־צִיּ֔וֹן (Daughter-of-Zion) who came to fulfill [Isaiah 62:11-12] Behold, YHVH announced to ...
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(John 15:22) No sin without Jesus?

You have shared a great example of how misinterpretation can turn God into Satan, Christ into devil. The meaning of the saying only talk about their guilt due to rejection of Christ; it only depicts ...
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