New answers tagged

1 vote

To which beginning is the word 'beginning' (arche) referring in the Gospel of John, outside of the prologue?

Overview of the Gospel An examination of the verses with ἀρχή shows John was purposeful to compose the Gospel so that the uses in the Prologue would be distinct from the uses in the rest of the Gospel:...
0 votes

Does 'disciples' imply apostles in John 20:22?

Note should also be taken of the expression, in John 20:24, 'one of the twelve' (despite that, Judas being deceased, there were only eleven, meaning - Thomas absent - there were only ten present). The ...
  • 28.1k
0 votes

Does 'disciples' imply apostles in John 20:22?

There are two comments to make about the composition of "the disciples" as recorded by John 20:22 Eleven?? We know that whatever "disciples" means it does NOT mean (at this point) &...
  • 81.9k
0 votes

Does 'disciples' imply apostles in John 20:22?

I've just looked up Westcott's commentary, and he draws our attention to "the eleven and those that were with them" (and also the two returned from Emmaus) in Luke ch24 v33. Luke, anyway, is ...
0 votes

Concerning John 9:3-4 with reference to John 11:4

You have some good answers here. These passages do not address the cause of suffering other than we cannot blame suffering directly on the one who is suffering. Note the book of Job. That was a way ...
0 votes

Concerning John 9:3-4 with reference to John 11:4

These two are the sixth and the seventh sign in the Gospel of John. They were specific chosen to reveal the divinity of Jesus, which was the message of his book, from the beginning to the end. The ...
  • 1,925
0 votes

Concerning John 9:3-4 with reference to John 11:4

There is no answer to this problem. However, we can offer two comments: People are born or become handicapped because of the sinful world in which we live. People experience bad things because of ...
  • 81.9k
0 votes

When Jesus said "It is finished" (John 19:30) did the High Priest also say it was finished at the end of the Passover slaughter

The scriptures teach that a major event happened when Christ died--which was just after his declaration that "It is finished" (that was his last breath). So roughly simultaneous to this ...
  • 3,118
2 votes

Is Jesus God's apostle?

The book of Hebrews depicts the risen Christ in the three-fold function of Prophet, Priest, and King (Heb. 1:2-3 & 7:3). He is the only Mediator between God and men (8:6). He intercedes for and ...
  • 16.5k
0 votes

Who does the phrase "I am" indicate in Mark 12:26 and John 8:58? What are the arguments if there is contrast?

There is a significant difference between the "I am" statements of Mark 12:26 and John 8:58 for the following reasons: Mark 12:26 John 8:58 "I am" is predicated and says "I ...
  • 81.9k
2 votes

When Jesus said "It is finished" (John 19:30) did the High Priest also say it was finished at the end of the Passover slaughter

I am still looking for an actual for the Passover Priest making the statement. This is not in the Old Testament. Thus, we would need other sources. I don't know that it is a valid statement. Here ...
1 vote

Who does the phrase "I am" indicate in Mark 12:26 and John 8:58? What are the arguments if there is contrast?

In the Bible story of the Burning Bush, the supernatural tribal-national supreme deity of Israel and Judaism self-identified himself to Moses and boasted, saying: וַיֹּאמֶר אָנֹכִי אֱלֹהֵי אָבִיךָ (&...
0 votes

Who does the phrase "I am" indicate in Mark 12:26 and John 8:58? What are the arguments if there is contrast?

Mark 12:26 And as for the dead being raised, have you not read in the book of Moses, in the passage about the bush, how God spoke to him, saying, ‘I am the God of Abraham, and the God of Isaac, and ...
1 vote

Who does the phrase "I am" indicate in Mark 12:26 and John 8:58? What are the arguments if there is contrast?

The context indicates that there is no correlation or contrast - egó and egó eimi merely being the first person singular. Me, myself, I. The translation in Mark 12:26 of egó or "I" into &...
4 votes

Is Jesus God's apostle?

Let there be no doubt that the Father sent Jesus, the Son, according to the frequent testimony of the Son: John 5:23 - so that all may honor the Son just as they honor the Father. Whoever does not ...
  • 81.9k
1 vote

What clues from John's general usage of 'the word' (or similar terms) help us to understand the referent of 'the word' in John's prologue?

The literary structure of John's Gospel is unique. Unlike Matthew, Mark, and Luke, John begins with a Prologue, which serves as an overture to his Gospel.1Regardless of whether this was composed by ...
1 vote

What clues from John's general usage of 'the word' (or similar terms) help us to understand the referent of 'the word' in John's prologue?

Point of view: I am a Biblical Unitarian, but I'm open to the 'word' in John's prologue referring either to a person or an active power of God, or indeed, just God's word as reflected in the Torah, ...
0 votes

Is there any significance behind Jesus' use of the word "love" in "John 21:15-17"

There is a valuable discussion in B.F. Westcott's commentary on John (pp302-303), which I will paraphrase briefly rather than copy out at length. First question; Jesus asks about AGAPE, and adds the ...
2 votes

What clues from John's general usage of 'the word' (or similar terms) help us to understand the referent of 'the word' in John's prologue?

There has been much written about the "Logos", and this question and answer will not settle the numerous questions orbiting this broad subject. So, let me offer a few clarifying comments: &...
  • 81.9k
0 votes

How might we understand Jesus "not entrusting Himself" to those around Him (John 2:23-25)?

All depends on for what reason one wants relationship with Christ, who is not just perfect - the adjective applicable solely to God in Hypostases of both Father (Matthew 5:48) and the Son (Hebrews 7:...
2 votes

How might we understand Jesus "not entrusting Himself" to those around Him (John 2:23-25)?

Firstly, it is important to know that the literal Greek word is "believe". The point is that the "belief" is not reciprocal. They believe in him, he does not believe in them. I can ...
2 votes

How might we understand Jesus "not entrusting Himself" to those around Him (John 2:23-25)?

Some 'believed' but not in a way which resulted in a 'committed relationship' with Jesus Christ. He did not commit Himself to them. They believed only in the production of miraculous events ; they did ...
  • 28.1k
0 votes

What does Jesus imply in John 20:17 by saying "my Father and your Father, and my God and your God"?

John 20:17 is seen in its entirety in post-Nicene codices Sinaiticus, Alexandrianus, Vaticanus, Bezae Cantabrigiensis, and Washingtonianus (Freer Gospels), c. 325-499 CE. However, in extant ante-...
4 votes

Moses the accuser

Moses wrote down that a prophet like him would come later. The people were to listen to him: "The Lord thy God will raise up unto thee a Prophet from the midst of thee, of thy brethren, like ...
  • 16.5k
0 votes

Did Jesus perform any miracles between John 2:11 and John 4:54?

Read all four gospels together, the Wedding of Cana took place not long after Jesus' Baptism. His Baptism was happened at Bethany on the other side of the Jordan, where John was baptizing (John 1:28). ...
  • 1,925
1 vote

Did Jesus perform any miracles between John 2:11 and John 4:54?

Let me propose, first, that "sign means more than "miracle". It means "miracle with a purpose". A "sign" points in a particular direction. Jesus complains elsewhere ...
2 votes

How do we reconcile Deuteronomy 22:5 with John 7:24?

How do we reconcile Deuteronomy 22:5 with John 7:24? To do so, we should consider the context of the NT quotation. My answer is that they do not need to be reconciled because Jesus is not discussing ...
4 votes

How do we reconcile Deuteronomy 22:5 with John 7:24?

This is not an isolated problem - the NT appears equivocal about the matter of whether we judge anything - see appendix below. In the particular case at hand, we have two different situations: Deut ...
  • 81.9k
6 votes

How do we reconcile Deuteronomy 22:5 with John 7:24?

The judgment, Deuteronomy 2:5, was already given by God to Moses. That decreed judgment is to be carried out. Enforcing God's judgment is not personally judging. There is no contradiction here. If ...
  • 28.1k
6 votes
Accepted

Does Matt. 5:8 also tell us that willing unrepentant sin causes doubt?

Purity in heart is something that no sinner has. "The heart is deceitful above all, and desperately wicked: who can know it? I the Lord search the heart" (Jeremiah 17:9-10 KJV). Further, the ...
  • 16.5k
1 vote

What can the Son do nothing for himself?

John 10:30 provides the answer to all the questions; John 10:30 - "I (Jesus) and the Father are one" Peter addressed to the crowd at Pentecost, Acts 2:22 read 22 “Fellow Israelites, ...
  • 1,925
1 vote

Jesus says His Father is greater than Him so does Jesus' death show that His love for those for whom He died was greater than His Father's?

This appears to be a bit of a loaded question and more of a Trinitarian challenge to Unitarians based on the chat. This far from helps the Trinitarian position and IMO and has been taken out of ...
1 vote

"Overcome" vs "comprehend" in John 1:5

"Overcome" vs "comprehend" in John 1:5 I believe that interpreting καταλαμβάνω as overtake or overcome in John 1:5 is preferred because such a meaning is more consistent with how ...
  • 3,397
1 vote

"Overcome" vs "comprehend" in John 1:5

There is ambiguity of languages here, both in the Greek and in the English. Taking the English ambiguity first, we need to appreciate that "understand" is not the original meaning of the ...
0 votes

Why might John not be allowed to write the prophecy of "the seven peals of thunder" (Rev. 10:4)?

I'm going to quote from my own book on this one; The voice of seven thunders would have to be God's voice, of course, the expression of God's will (since "seven" is the number indicating &...
0 votes

Why might John not be allowed to write the prophecy of "the seven peals of thunder" (Rev. 10:4)?

I have a more basic question arising out of this text. With what and how would John be writing things down? Does it imply that he was not in heaven? That it was what could be called an open vision, ...
0 votes

What did Mary Magdalene tell the Disciples in John 20 vs Luke 24?

Introduction Here is a hypothetical and true version of what, when, and where the women spoke to the disciples, and what they said, and why, on the first day of the week, after Jesus rose: First, as a ...
  • 1

Top 50 recent answers are included