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The word believe sometimes refers to 'trusting in' a person/thing, and other times refers to 'believing that' a proposition is true. One way to tell the difference is to check whether the sentence contains a proposition. A proposition is a phrase that makes a truth claim. For example, John 14:1 does not contain a proportion. It's about trusting in both God ...


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It depends on what you mean by incarnation. If you mean by incarnation that he existed in the flesh, as a man, then there was a man sent by God, and, a man called Jesus made clay and washed in the pool of Siloam. Also, testimony is not heard by man. Thus, if John was a man sent to come to testify about the existence of Jesus, then he could not have heard his ...


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How should John 3:13 be understood in view of the OT statements about Enoch and Elijah? First, Titus 1:2 tells us that 'God...cannot lie' and as God's representative, Jesus did not lie in his words to us. Now, let's address each individual's case separately. What happened to Enoch? Gen. 5:24 states: Enoch kept walking with the true God. Then he was no more, ...


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Straightforward answer: Jesus is right, and therefore traditional views of Enoch and Elijah, in so far as they say they are in heaven in the same sense meant by Jesus, are wrong. So the only remaining problem is to understand exactly where 'heaven' was for Enoch and Elijah. "how could Jesus state that" Note it is possible that John 3:13 is the ...


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The logic is fallacious, for it does not regard the polysemy of the term "spirit" and thus creates a famous fallacy of ambiguity. The Scripture distinguishes uncreated Spirit - God, and created spirits, angels (Hebrews 1:14), demons (Mark 1:27), human souls (for sometimes also human souls are called "spirits" /Hebrews 12:23/). Thus, when ...


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Protoevangelium is the fundamental prophecy of the Bible. Everything else hangs on it, although some historic happenings are more outstanding than others. Like the copper snake in the desert, Jonah in the belly of the great fish, etc. Jesus talked about this in Luk 24:13-27. Thus, the Israelian history was created “through and for” Jesus, the promised ...


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I am unaware of anything in Scripture that even remotely forces one to choose between who sends the Holy Spirit, Father or Son! It can surely be either one or both since Jesus declared that, "I and the Father are one" (John 10:30) which must mean, among other things, that they act in concert, concord, collaboration. Thus, we find that: Jesus sends ...


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Therefore, since He has been exalted at the right hand of God, and has received the promise of the Holy Spirit from the Father, He has poured out this which you both see and hear. Acts 2:33 Now Jesus is ascended and exalted to the Father, to sit at God's right hand, he can also send the spirit of God. Jesus having represented the Father in every way without ...


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The argument is flawed because it doesn’t take into account how the language is used and the overarching context. Stating “God is spirit”, is correct. But God also lives inside the body of believers “Do you not know that you are God’s temple and that God’s Spirit dwells in you? If anyone destroys God’s temple, God will destroy him. For God’s temple is holy,...


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Valid vs Sound I believe this argument is valid, but it is not sound. (terms defined here) It is valid in that if the premises are true, the conclusion logically follows. However, I suggest that it would be overplaying the evidence to claim that premises 1 & 4 are certain. If the premises are not true, the argument is not sound. Here is an example of a ...


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People are reading far too much significance into this one verse. Look earlier in the chapter, at verses 36 and 37: And as they thus spake, Jesus himself stood in the midst of them, and saith unto them, Peace be unto you. But they were terrified and affrighted, and supposed that they had seen a spirit. In verse 39, Jesus is simply trying to remove their ...


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A Biblical Unitarian probably wouldn't make an argument like this, and the reason turns on the meaning of 'spirit' in the relevant passages, which is a word with multiple meanings in both the ancient Greek and ancient Hebrew. This Biblical Unitarian commentary distinguishes 15 different senses of the Greek term 'pneuma' ('spirit' in English). For John 4:24, ...


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“Which premise (or step) of the argument is flawed” - Step 4, ‘Therefore, Jesus is not a spirit”. Jesus did not say he was not a Spirit. He said, a spirit does not have flesh and bone. And that is absolutely correct, it doesn’t. They don’t. You are making a deduction, but your ‘therefore’, your conclusion fails to consider the whole verse. Look at at that ...


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According to Thayer’s Greek Lexicon the word ἑώρακεν as used in John (1:18) means “to see with the mind, to perceive, know.” This definition is consistent with the idea in this and other verses that Jesus has made God known or “visible” to our minds: No one has ever seen God, but the one and only Son, who is himself God and is in closest relationship with ...


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The entire premise of this question is flawed. Jesus did not deny being a God with this statement; in this fourth statement of comfort/consolation (in as many verses), Jesus is affirming that he is indeed flesh. Compare this to the passage about Jesus walking on the water. There (in Mark and Matthew) the word fantasm is used instead of pneuma, but the form ...


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John 10:36 Berean Literal Bible do you say of Him whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world sent ἀπέστειλεν (apesteilen) Verb - Aorist Indicative Active - 3rd Person Singular Strong's Greek 649: From apo and stello; set apart, i.e. to send out literally or figuratively. world κόσμον (kosmon) Noun - Accusative Masculine Singular Strong's Greek 2889:...


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I would suggest not trying to take this one word from this one verse and use it as if to draw some dramatic, over-arching conclusion. Many people come to these texts with very different assumptions. They have a lot of ambiguity and can be read in many different ways. Let's look at the context surrounding this verse. Jesus is being threatened with execution ...


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ἀποστέλλω and πέμπω Jesus said to them again, “Peace be with you. As the Father has sent (ἀπέσταλκέν) me, even so I am sending (πέμπω) you.” (John 20:21) [ESV] Jesus uses two different words to describe "sending," one of which He applies to Himself and the other to the disciples. Specifically the Father sent ἀποστέλλω Jesus. However, Jesus sends, ...


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Jesus Christ was sent from heaven when He incarnated as a man. Isaiah 9:6, For a child will be born to us, a son will be given to us; And the government will rest on His shoulders, And His name will be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God." Then there is John 6:42, John 3:13, "No one has ascended into heaven, but He who descended from heaven.&...


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This question is wrongheadedly put from the outset, for it affirms that it is even possible to interpret this passage in a sense that Jesus is “implying” something when in reality He is plainly, without even a particle of ambiguity and equivocation, asserting His not only pre-incarnate existence but pre-universe-creation co-existence with the Father. How can ...


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I struggle to see how John 17:5 can be understood in any other way but as a testimony to the pre-incarnate existence of Jesus. The same idea is also present in V24. We see this in numerous other places such as: John 1:1-3 - In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was with God in the beginning. Through Him all ...


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John 1:1-2 says ‘IN THE beginning there WAS THE Word, and the Word WAS WITH God, and the Word WAS God. He WAS IN THE beginning WITH God.’ Given a double reference, the emphasis of this text is about ‘the Word that WAS IN THE beginning WITH God.’ I plead to everyone to respect the context of this text and NOT try to pull anyone phrase out of the sentence ...


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The word in question here is the Greek word θεός (Theos), which is a noun. If "divine" is being used as a noun that is synonymous with "God", I don't see any issue here. On the other hand, if "divine" is being used as an adjective, that would be an incorrect rendering of the Greek. Theos is not an adjective describing god-like ...


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According Daniel B Wallace, Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics (GGBB), page 269 - The most likely candidate for Θεός [in John 1:1c] is qualitative. This is true both grammatically (for the largest proportion of pre-verbal anarthrous predicate nominative nominative fall into this category) and theologically (both the theology of the Fourth Gospel and the NT as ...


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Okay, my answer is short and simple, I do not want to be redundant here but I wish to contribute something valuable to this good question and good conversation. The thing is Adam and Eve begat our ancestors. In a similar way, dogs begat more dogs, and cats cats, and so forth. The Father, therefore, begat the son. Here's the twist if humans produce humans, ...


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The "My God" refers to Jesus' relation to God in His humanity. It was in His manhood as well as His deity that He restored the loss which came through Adam's sin. "Your God" at John 5:17 implies they had need of a mediator that God might become their Father. This is explained at Philippians 2:5-11. Vs5, "Have this attitude in ...


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This is a question on which it is difficult to be objective; I will attempt to offer an objective take (my own two cents in the conclusion only). I’ll probably fall somewhat short of any single person’s ideal answer. We all have preconceptions on this topic and they are pretty core to our beliefs. Let’s interpret this passage through the lens of the 4 most ...


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There are some very good and enlightening answers here, to which I am grateful for the insight. Let's not completely over-complicate our thinking on this, however. Jesus was not exclusively teaching scientists and philosophers. Conversely, most of his audience was of average intelligence with little to no formal education. Why then would meaning be so deeply ...


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In the bible, the word God (elohim in Hebrew or theos in Greek) is ascribed to more than one person. Some examples: The Father - John 17:3, John 20:17 Jesus - John 20:28 Moses - Exodus 4.16, Exodus 7.1 (ʾĕlōhîm, see this answer) Judges - Exodus 21.5, Exodus 22.8 (Judges translated from elohim) Davidic King - Psalm 45:7 Satan - 2 Corinthians 4:4 In John, ...


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As a result of the Resurrection, the message of salvation based solely on faith in Jesus gave birth to the Church. The exclusivity of salvation by belief in Jesus, without any knowledge or acceptance of God as found in the Old Testament logically implies the divinity of Jesus. It also raises questions about the nature of that divinity relative to the Old ...


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Jesus is fully man, and this means that He fully has created nature of man. Now, the one who creates this nature is the Creator, God. Thus, Jesus as being a man in the sense of possessing the entirety of human nature, has God as the Creator of this nature. However, how does God the Father create? Necessarily God the Father creates through His Logos, the ...


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Not only the salvation can be lost, but if after becoming Christians we slacken and cease to increase talents, we shall be punished more than non-Christians who do not know God's will, or at least like we do through His Son's direct teaching (cf. Luke 12:47: "And that servant, who knew his lord’s will and prepared not himself, neither did according to ...


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There are three questions here so I will separate them. QUESTION #1 - Can salvation be lost? Here are some examples of salvation being lost: The “wilderness generation” of Israelites that God called out of Egypt perished in the desert because, despite being called, turned their backs on God and refused to trust in God by believing the majority spy report. ...


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Looking carefully at this passage, I do not see how the words “face”, “hand” or “back” can refer to God's literal body. My interpretation is based on the context of the events from the previous passage. In Exodus 32, the Israelites cast a golden calf and give it worship and sacrifice. In this passage, God tells Moses to lead his people to the promise land, ...


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English Standard Version If you were of the world [ἐκ τοῦ κόσμου], the world would love you as its own; but because you are not of the world [ἐκ τοῦ κόσμου], but I chose you out of the world [ἐκ τοῦ κόσμου], therefore the world hates you. In one verse, the phrase "of the world" [ἐκ τοῦ κόσμου] is used three times. Why in the 3rd time, it is ...


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No Human has ever seen the Father Let us be very clear that the NT is unambiguous about no one (human - angels see God's face, Matt 18:10) ever having seen the Father. John 1:18 - No one has ever seen God; the only God, who is at the Father’s side, he has made him known. John 6:46 - No one has seen the Father except the one who is from God; only he has seen ...


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You cannot see God. [because] God is spirit. And, spirit’s need a ‘body’ to be seen, even with ‘spiritual eyes’. Whenever a heavenly ‘being’ was ‘seen’, they always had [spiritual/heavenly] bodies. Every time! JOHN 2:24 God is spirit [snip] But, you can see the/a manifestation of God. The Israelites has the ‘cloud’, (shekhinah). And, they at times saw ...


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Who has seen God? If we take the text at face value, then God was seen by Abraham, Moses, Stephen, and others. Genesis 17:1 the Lord appeared to Abram Exodus 33:11 And the Lord spake unto Moses face to face, as a man speaketh unto his friend. Acts 7: 55-56 55 But he, being full of the Holy Ghost, looked up steadfastly into heaven, and saw the glory of ...


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Jesus related his authority to being a Son of Man (no definite article): [Jhn 5:26-27 NKJV] (26) "For as the Father has life in Himself, so He has granted the Son to have life in Himself, (27) "and has given Him authority to execute judgment also, because He is [the] Son of Man. The OT background of the Son of Man motif that seems to be in view ...


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Important note about this question: this is not a question about all Jews at the time or all Jewish people in general. This is a question about why the interactions between a handful of very specific people - the Sanhedrin and Pilate - played out the way they did. I'm not sure you can skip the context. You really need the full picture here to see why it ...


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The best explanation is provided by Ellicott (see below) to which the weak, vacillating, sycophantic Pilate was highly susceptible. If thou let this man go, thou art not Cæsar’s friend. . . .—There was another weapon left in the armoury of their devices, against which no Roman governor was proof. The jealous fear of Tiberius had made “treason” a crime, of ...


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The important word in Luke 1:36, usually (correctly) translated "relative" is συγγενής which could be a near or far relative. That is they could have been cousins, second cousins, aunt and niece, etc. The fact that the tribes intermarried is important here. It means that: Father Joseph From Jesus earthly father He inherited the right to royal ...


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Because people from different tribes intermarried, a person's tribe was determined by patrilineal descent (their father's father's father etc -- see Numbers 36:7). It is highly probable that more than a millennium and a half after Jacob, all Jews were descendants of multiple sons of Jacob. For a modern parallel over a slightly shorter timespan, it is ...


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The members of the Sanhedrin are here blackmailing Pilate by saying that they will spread rumors about him or even directly inform the Emperor that he released the enemy of the Rome who claimed illegitimately that he was the king of Jews. The releaser of a political enemy would automatically be considered as a complacent to this enemy and thus also a co-...


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Starting with John the Baptist, water baptism was practiced for remission of sin. Mark 1.4 It is assumed Jesus followed his lead when he, and the apostles, practiced baptism. The apostles were commanded by Jesus, just before his Ascension, to make water baptism a part of their preaching. Mark 16.15,16. Luke 24.47. It would naturally follow that they would ...


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I find the post-resurrection narratives of the Gospels fascinating--this is one of a number of good questions that come by comparing them side by side. The simplistic scenario It's easy to picture the women all leaving the tomb in a single group and going to talk to the disciples, all of whom are also waiting somewhere in a single group. I very much doubt ...


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The central matter here in John 1:15 is the meaning ascribed to the adjective πρῶτος (protos) which can mean: of time - first in time, earliest or earlier, eg, Phil 1:5, Acts 20:18 first in a sequence of list, eg, Matt 21:28, 22:25, etc most prominent, foremost, most important, eg, Matt 22:38, Mark 12:29, etc. Before answering this question we should ...


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Good question! It is apparent that the women either did not believe the angel, or, more probably, were so upset and shaken the previous day's events that they did not hear properly what the angels had said. Note Luke 24:11 - But they did not believe the women, because their words seemed to them like nonsense. The women, including Mary Magdalene, probably ...


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In calling himself the disciple whom Jesus loved, I do not think that John was claiming a special relationship between himself and Jesus. Rather, the fact that John referred himself in this way reflects his awareness of being loved and the key role that Jesus' love played in shaping his identity. John wrote that love can only be understood and defined by God’...


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The answer to this excellent question is found by examining another passage about very similar things, Matt 16:19, 18:18 The Greek is Matt 16:19 and Matt 18:18 is unusual. Let me quote my very literal translation. Matt 18:18, “Truly I say to you, whatever you bind on earth will have been bound [simple future + perfect participle passive] in heaven; and ...


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