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17

I will base this answer on the premise that an activity cannot be a reason to be excluded from the kingdom of God unless there is something sinful about it. This is a premise that it is reasonable to hold in light of verses such as: Behold, the Lord's hand is not shortened, that it cannot save, or his ear dull, that it cannot hear; 2 but your iniquities ...


16

This is an excellent question that has plagued the Christian church for millennia with copious arguments on both sides. What are the Biblical facts: There is no explicit Biblical command against alcohol, except for Nazarenes like john the Baptist. Grape juice (in various forms) was an important part of the eastern diet both socially and physiologically. ...


14

Onan's sin was entirely related to his refusal to perform his levirate duty. Quickly about the other three: Coitus interruptus is not masturbation. It is a (very unreliable) method of birth control. Onan was attempting not to get Tamar pregnant because he did not want to provide an heir for his deceased older brother. It was not "theft of Tamar's child." ...


14

Can a person lose their salvation according to 2 Peter 2:20-22? The short answer is "Yes, most definitely." The following response may be unpalatable to some. However, it is certainly not my intent to wound those who believe we simply cannot be lost once we receive salvation in Christ. The far greater imperative here is for the truth to be told, ...


13

There are several matters here that are crucial - First, 1 John 1:8 should never be read without also reading 1 John 1:10 - 8 If we say we have no sin [noun], we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us. ... 10 If we say we have not sinned [verb], we make Him out to be a liar, and His word is not in us. Thus we are all sinners both because of what we ...


11

'Clean' (טָהֵר) in Leviticus 16 The Hebrew verb טָהֵר / taher is used consistently throughout the Hebrew Bible in terms of cleansing or purifying, and so in the context of Leviticus 16 the stated meaning is that by performing the described ritual, the High Priest would have his sins cleansed and he would become pure. This ritual purification was required ...


9

The seeming contradiction is from not paying careful attention to the verb tenses; the continuous action of the present tense in particular. 1 John 1:8-10 isn't so much of an issue in an English translation. The issue is understanding 1 John 3:9 Doeth no sin [KJV] (ἁμαρτιαν οὐ ποιει [hamartian ou poiei]). Linear present active indicative as in verse 4 like ...


8

τὸν μὴ γνόντα ἁμαρτίαν ὑπὲρ ἡμῶν ἁμαρτίαν ἐποίησεν....1 "For he caused him who knew nothing of sin to be sin for us...." The preceding vv. 18-20 make it clear that 'he' is θεός (God), and 'him who knew nothing of sin' in this context is Χριστός (Christ). The presence of the article (τὸν) with the participle γνόντα indicates that it functions as a ...


8

We do not inherit sin, the following is copied from Xeno's comment at Polyhat's answer: Scripture plainly teaches that sin is not inherited: “[T]he son shall not bear the iniquity of the father” (Eze. 18:20). Everyone is responsible for their own conduct (Rom. 14:12). Sinfulness begins in one's youth (Gen. 8:21; Jer. 3:25). Children must reach a level of ...


7

It is helpful to understand the purpose(s) of the Mosaic Law. Quickly: It was intended to point people to their need for a Savior (Gal 3:19; Rom 5:20). It was intended to highlight their sinful nature (Rom 7:7). It taught many aspects of God and peoples' relationship to him. For examples, the sacrificial system was a reminder of humanity's need for a ...


7

Jews reject the argument that Cain's sacrifice was insufficient because it did not involve blood, and they have some good arguments. Leviticus clearly spells out various "grain offerings," and there is even one example of a "sin offering" where the poor people were allowed to offer grain instead of an animal sacrifice. (See Lev. 5:11-13.) The traditional ...


7

Good question. Strictly speaking, we don't know how commonly held the belief was (as we do not have a huge number of documents from that exact time period, and certainly "opinion surveys" didn't exist then). However, the IVP Commentary does a good job of explaining the probable background based on rabbinic comments from the following centuries. I will ...


7

The answer can be gleaned from other places in the Bible where King David and his sin is spoken of. Paul writes in Romans 4:5-8: “But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness. Even as David also describeth the blessedness of the man unto whom God imputeth righteousness without works, ...


6

The writer of Hebrews analyses why Abel's sacrifice was accepted and Cain's wasn't. Hebrews 11:4 By faith Abel offered to God a more excellent sacrifice than Cain, through which he obtained witness that he was righteous, God testifying of his gifts; and through it he being dead still speaks. The difference between the two sacrifices was that Abel brought ...


6

Sacred prostitution was practised widely throughout the Mediterranean world and probably originated as a fertility ritual. The prostitute, whether male or female, could charge a fee on behalf of the temple for which he or she worked. These are not common prostitutes, but sacred prostitutes, for which the Hebrew language uses different words. The practice ...


6

In the ancient world papyrus was a valuable and expensive commodity. For ephemeral scribblings people used erasable wax tablets, or they wrote on the ground with a stick or a finger. There is the famous story of how the great mathematician Archimedes was drawing geometric figures in the dust when he was murdered by an invading Roman soldier. This was around ...


6

Since this is a hermeneutic site (not a theological discussion), I will limit the answer to Paul’s intent and theology. Paul does acknowledge people are incapable of not sinning or keeping the Jewish law. “For by works of the law no human being will be justified in his sight, since through the law comes knowledge of sin.” (Romans 3:20, ESV); ”for all have ...


6

Most of these questions ask for subjective answers, but in the spirit of this site I will try to answer from a hermeneutical perspective. :) Is there anything inherently wrong with alcohol or getting drunk? There is no prohibition in scripture to the drinking of alcohol, but drunkenness. This does suggest that the drinking of alcohol itself is not inherently ...


5

"Faith" here is used in a broad way. The fuller context is: [21] It is good not to eat meat or drink wine or do anything that causes your brother to stumble. [22] The faith that you have, keep between yourself and God. Blessed is the one who has no reason to pass judgment on himself for what he approves. [23] But whoever has doubts is condemned ...


5

The answer to your question is best examined by looking at Onan's sin in the context of the exchange between Judah and Tamar and requires a good understanding and background of the place of women in ancient middle eastern culture and the purpose of Leverite marriage practices. We must remember that this culture had no medicare and no social security. ...


5

She was not unclean because she had a baby. She was unclean because there was an issue of blood that came out of her when she gave birth (see Leviticus 12:7). Its the blood, not the baby, that's deemed unclean.


5

The word "forgive*"(aphiemi-to send forth*) implies a legal action: it holds one 'harmless' from a legal debt. To be declared "aphiemi", means one's debt has been satisfied; in the case of Matt. 12:30-32, one's penalty of 'sin and blasphemy' shall be "aphiemi" them-following, of course, the prescription of 1 John 1:9,"If we confess our sins; He is faithful ...


5

Your alternative explanation seems to be in plain agreement with this passage. Nearly all versions of verse 28 emphasize intention, with the version quoted in the question explicitly using the word intent. We suppose Jesus occupied a body which grew, hurt, bled, suffered, ached, died and perhaps longed for companionship, and so was exposed to a whole ...


5

Strong's translates the lust verb (ἐπιθυμέω) as "to set the heart upon". Had Jesus stopped with βλέπων (to look upon) or combined it with a form of the verb πειράζω (to be tempted), indicating that the simple act of looking upon a woman or being tempted to keep looking was sin, then you have a dilemma. Yet, James says in chapter 1, verse 15 of his epistle ...


5

The sudden shame for Adam's (and Eve)nakedness is an allegory, the physical of the spiritual. Not just the gained knowledge from eating the fruit. First, they were commanded not to eat the fruit from the tree, nor touch it (Genesis 3:3) This is confirmed when the Lord went searching for Adam in Genesis 3:11 "And He said, "Who told you that you were naked? ...


5

My dad, who is a pastor, has an interesting theory as of why. He says that prior to the Fall, they were clothed in light as a result of walking with God. They were physically naked, but because they were clothed in God's glory, they couldn't see that they were naked. This idea is rooted in Exodus 34:9-25, where Moses' face was radiant from being in God's ...


5

This is essentially almost the same question as the OP's question in https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/48780/does-ισα-το-θεου-refer-to-the-role-of-jesus-as-κυριos-in-philippians-26 My answer to that question should be viewed as background to this question. I am going to suggest something that many find repugnant, not because it belittles ...


5

Introduction Sin is not the consequence of a hardened heart, it is the natural disposition of mankind after the fall. The hardening induced by God is related to the response to the opportunity for repentance and faith. Explanation Let no man say when he is tempted, I am tempted of God: for God cannot be tempted with evil, neither tempteth he any man: But ...


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