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2 Maccabees 2. Where did Jeremiah hide the ark?

First, we should clarify that 2 Maccabees is considered apocryphal by most Protestants and Jews. But assuming that the report is indeed factual, the text states that the cave in question was located ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
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Why would God create vessels of wrath prepared for destruction (Romans 9:21-22) if He has no pleasure in the death of the wicked (Ezekiel 33:11)?

God's wrath is the Tribulation. This is the way Paul always used the nouns ὀργή and θυμός. The "vessels of wrath" are those who undergo the Tribulation. The "vessels of mercy" are ...
Don Samdahl's user avatar
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Question regarding apparent contradiction between Luke 24 and John 20

Unfortunately, I don't follow what the answers are trying to say. I'll try to clarify the question. According to John 20:1-3. Mary Magdaline came to the tomb and saw that the stone was rolled away (...
user66129's user avatar
2 votes

Why are David's men called "The Thirty" in 2 Samuel 23:24 when verse 39 says there were 37 in total?

The apparent discrepancy is well known and the explanation is widely available. Thirty and seven in all - This reckoning is correct, though only 36 "names" are given, the names of only two ...
Nigel J's user avatar
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Why are David's men called "The Thirty" in 2 Samuel 23:24 when verse 39 says there were 37 in total?

I would present 3 possibilities: Some, like Uriah, are known to have perished in combat. (2 Samuel 11:24) Despite having been murdered during David's reign, Uriah is mentioned. It's therefore ...
Jason_'s user avatar
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Who wrote the second set of tablets in Exodus 34:27 & Deutoronomy 10:1-4?

Answer Both the first and the second sets of tablets of stone with the Ten Commandments were written by the Almighty God Himself. Moses has no role in the writing. Not only in the first Covenant, even ...
Nephesh Roi's user avatar
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Who wrote the second set of tablets in Exodus 34:27 & Deutoronomy 10:1-4?

One possible reconciliation of the Ex.34 account of the writing of the 2nd tablets and the Duet 10 account is that as God the Father created the heavens and the earth by the Son's agency and God wrote ...
robert kelton Jackson's user avatar
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Contradiction on Peter's location during his second denial

As a general observation about such apparent contradictions, let me suggest that people's lives, their environment, and their interactions are complex. As a result, the biblical accounts are of ...
Dieter's user avatar
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1 vote

Contradiction on Peter's location during his second denial

There is one explanation which serves to explain all of the apparent contradictions. The living quarters for the High Priest consisted of two homes separated by a shared courtyard. The entire complex ...
Revelation Lad's user avatar
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Contradiction on Peter's location during his second denial

After examining the scriptures, here's what I think are two possibilities: Peter was never ON a porch when he denied Jesus. John does not record what happened in chronological order. Mark seems to ...
Jason_'s user avatar
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-1 votes

Why are the Israelites told to stay home until morning if they were meant to leave Egypt at midnight?

They came and told them to leave that nighy. But in Yashar/ Jasher Moses told them that they would not up and leave in the middle of the night. That was there deliverance and they were sent out that ...
Kaleb's user avatar
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Centurion Dispute

The answer resides in the diverse perspectives offered by the gospels. The Gospel of Matthew is positioned as the first gospel in the New Testament, as it's narrative serves as a link, connecting the ...
Vincent Wong's user avatar
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1 vote

Why did Jesus say He wouldn’t drink of the vine when it seems like He did?

Mark 15:23 And they gave him to drink wine mingled with myrrh: but he received it not. He received it not. Mark 15:36 And one ran and filled a spunge full of vinegar, and put it on a reed, and gave ...
S.A.'s user avatar
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1 vote

Centurion Dispute

Here is a table comparing the two accounts: OPTION #1. The Centurion came AFTER sending emissaries. While the centurion originally felt shame in approaching Jesus (Lk. 7:6), it’s possible that he ...
Jason_'s user avatar
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1 vote

Centurion Dispute

Both accounts are true: Matt 8:5-13 - the centurion speaks for himself Luke 7:1-10 - the centurion sends servants with a message When a servant/diplomat/messenger delivers a message, he delivers on ...
Dottard's user avatar
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Did Ephesians 2:15 intend to contradict Mathew 5:17?

When Ephesians 2:15 and Matthew 5:17 are taken in context, they do not contradict one another. In Mt 5:17, Jesus is not teaching strict adherence to the letter of the law but to the spirit or intent ...
Nhi's user avatar
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Who named the wrong priest in Mark 2:26?

In Mark 2:25 Jesus names Abiathar as the High Priest who gave David the show bread. David was about twenty six years old at the time. Mark 2:26 How he entered into the house of God when Abiathar was ...
Jack Hartland's user avatar
2 votes

Why does James associate physical illness to sin?

If we read both passages carefully, there is no contradiction: Jesus did not rule out any association of sin with illness, only that we should not overgeneralize or think that this particular ...
GratefulDisciple's user avatar
1 vote

Did Ephesians 2:15 intend to contradict Mathew 5:17?

Both verses can be fully true when realized that fulfilling something often causes it to expire in a sense or become obsolete. For example you make an order of 1 hamburger at McDonalds. Until the ...
Mike's user avatar
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0 votes

Did Ephesians 2:15 intend to contradict Mathew 5:17?

Yet even in 1 Samuel 2:9 it is written: He will guard the feet of His godly ones (those who believe in Him, ie have fsith) , and the wicked shall be silenced and perish in darkness, for by strength ( ...
M Safronovitz's user avatar
3 votes

Why does James associate physical illness to sin?

James says "If they have sinned …". This means that sin is a possible cause of illness, not that it is the only cause. Irresponsible lifestyles are obvious examples of this (e.g. promiscuous ...
Ray Butterworth's user avatar
2 votes

Who named the wrong priest in Mark 2:26?

The Greek word "archiereus" (ἀρχιερεύς) is used in Mark 2:26 as well as in numerous other New Testament passages. Comprising "archi-" (meaning "chief" or "principal&...
prospector's user avatar
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Does God dwell in human temples?

In the OT after the temple of King Solomon was destroyed and Jews were captured by the Babylonians brought to captivity, God no longer dwelled in the temple made with human hands. God had a plan, ...
Cody's user avatar
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Jesus died for the forgiveness of sin past present future why then would God hold the believer accountable 2 Corinthians 5:10

No contradiction whatsoever! Lord Jesus Christ healed the sinful condition that beset humanity since Adam's fall, and He healed this sinful condition for Adam himself, Eve herself and for all Adam's ...
Levan Gigineishvili's user avatar
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Jesus died for the forgiveness of sin past present future why then would God hold the believer accountable 2 Corinthians 5:10

The answer is found in understanding the definition of "good" in 2 Cor. 5:10. The word translated as "good" is Strong's Gr. 18 "agathos" and it means inherently, ...
Gina's user avatar
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0 votes

Jesus died for the forgiveness of sin past present future why then would God hold the believer accountable 2 Corinthians 5:10

The sins we commit are forgiven when we believe in Jesus' sacrifice for the redemption of our sins. A genuine believer in Jesus, as described by Paul in Ephesians 4:22, is called to discard their old ...
Vincent Wong's user avatar
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0 votes

Why did Jesus say He wouldn’t drink of the vine when it seems like He did?

Drink With You Let us not leave out important phrases. Jesus talked about drinking with the disciples. (Matthew 26:29) Being given sour wine (vinegar) to deaden the pain on the cross is hardly what ...
ray grant's user avatar
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4 votes

Why did Jesus say He wouldn’t drink of the vine when it seems like He did?

This is less complicated than it appears. First, notice that all the accounts of the last supper never use the word "wine", but always express what was drunk as "the fruit of the vine&...
Dottard's user avatar
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5 votes

Why did Jesus say He wouldn’t drink of the vine when it seems like He did?

There are a number of ways to deal with this apparent contradiction. Table Fellowship, not wine-drinking per se. Jesus did not say that he would drink no wine at all; he said he would drink no wine &...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
0 votes

Why did Jesus say He wouldn’t drink of the vine when it seems like He did?

The fruit of the vine He is talking about in Matthew will occur when those who are called in Israel will be enjoying the fruits of Christ shed blood on behalf of their sins. It is in reference to the ...
Sherrie 's user avatar
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How can John 3:13-14 be reconciled with what happened to Enoch, Elijah and Jesus?

John 3:13 (ESV) No one has ascended into heaven except he who descended from heaven, the Son of Man. While the statements ascended and descended within the passage present serious difficulties, ...
Revelation Lad's user avatar
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Jesus died for the forgiveness of sin past present future why then would God hold the believer accountable 2 Corinthians 5:10

Forgiveness of sin is a concept that God would not literally kill the person immediately for egregious and significant disobedience of the law of Moses here on Earth. That was the responsibility of ...
Roamer 's user avatar
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Jesus died for the forgiveness of sin past present future why then would God hold the believer accountable 2 Corinthians 5:10

The best conceptual discussion about what a believer experiences during the event described in 2 Corinthians 5:10, I believe, is found in Paul's first letter to the Corinthians: 11 For no one can lay ...
Austin's user avatar
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0 votes

Why do some translations have a completely opposite interpretation of John 18:37?

The OP states that some English translations render John 18:37 in a way that gives a completely opposite meaning to the majority, “with Jesus appearing to deny what Pilate said.” While there is some ...
Nhi's user avatar
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Did God "change His mind" in Ezekiel 4?

What an insightful question you've raised. I recently came across Paul LeBoutillier's book "Pastor I Have a Question," which led me to ponder further on the intriguing concept of 'God ...
Joshua Vine's user avatar
2 votes

Jesus died for the forgiveness of sin past present future why then would God hold the believer accountable 2 Corinthians 5:10

A crown of salvation will be given to all who Jesus acknowledges on that Day as belonging to him. But that salvation is not a reward for doing anything. It is freely given though it is totally ...
Anne's user avatar
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0 votes

Jesus died for the forgiveness of sin past present future why then would God hold the believer accountable 2 Corinthians 5:10

One way to deal with this seeming contradiction is by understanding that even though a person is already forgiven, they still must stand before Christ at the time of judgment. We may speculate that in ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
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Did Paul teach works-based salvation in 1 Corinthians 9:24-27?

No, because in this context, Paul uses the word "prize". 1 Corinthians 9:24-27 Know ye not that they which run in a race run all, but one receiveth the prize? So run, that ye may obtain. ...
Nathan's user avatar
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0 votes

Jesus died for the forgiveness of sin past present future why then would God hold the believer accountable 2 Corinthians 5:10

When someone recognizes their sin, asks for forgiveness, and repents (changes their behaviour and attitude), then Jesus's sacrifice is used to pay the debt of sin, which is death. These forgiven sins ...
Ray Butterworth's user avatar
0 votes

Why are Paul's requirements for the Gentiles different from Jesus' teaching of the Moral Law?

Answer Paul’s requirements for the Gentiles are not in the least way different from Jesus’ teaching of the Moral Law! Explanation Paul states positively: “I did not receive it from any human being, ...
Nephesh Roi's user avatar
0 votes

Why are Paul's requirements for the Gentiles different from Jesus' teaching of the Moral Law?

I have to take issue with some suppositions of the OP before answering the main question. The OP says Mt. 5:17-20 is "God's Moral Law requirement of mankind." That is not how it is ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
0 votes

Why did they celebrate again the day after the New Moon in 1 Samuel 20:27?

If the sighting of the new moon (NM) comes on 29th then the month ends with 29 days then there is only one new moon day feast - NM Day 1 of the following month. If the new moon did not come on the ...
Alex Young's user avatar
1 vote

Why are Paul's requirements for the Gentiles different from Jesus' teaching of the Moral Law?

Many Apostles had to deal with this matter in the first century. It threatened to take Christians back to a legalistic bondage to the law. Paul's explanations go into greater depth. He certainly ...
Anne's user avatar
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0 votes

Why do some translations have a completely opposite interpretation of John 18:37?

KJV and NKJV Bibles are based on the Textus Receptus or Received Texts which consists of over 5,800 Greek manuscripts, which includes 1550 Stephanus Greek New Testament, 1598 Beza Greek New Testament, ...
Steven 1231's user avatar
1 vote

Why are Paul's requirements for the Gentiles different from Jesus' teaching of the Moral Law?

Dottard's answer provides a well-present list of covenants in the Bible, which I won't repeat here. However, although all these covenants were initiated by God, it's essential to note that most of ...
Vincent Wong's user avatar
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1 vote

Why are Paul's requirements for the Gentiles different from Jesus' teaching of the Moral Law?

The OP is conflating two separate laws and covenants, see appendix below. Further, all these covenants are declared eternal and unbroken - but in a way that most do not understand. When the NT refers ...
Dottard's user avatar
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0 votes

Why are the four gospel accounts of the empty tomb so different and how do we reconcile them?

[This was a crude article I wrote sometime before when I was studying. So, please bear with me] The chronology at the Tomb of Jesus Christ There have been a lot of controversial disputes about the ...
Nephesh Roi's user avatar
2 votes

Why do some translations have a completely opposite interpretation of John 18:37?

I think what others are saying is: the phrase translated "you say" (that I am) is an idiom native to Greek or Hebrew (and probably also to that time), not English. An idiom usually conveys ...
Avdecha .org's user avatar

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