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Is Hebrews 10:28 talking about the past or present

Here is the literal BLB rendering of Heb 10:28 - Anyone having set aside the Law of Moses dies without mercies on the basis of two or three witnesses. There are two verbs in this verse as follows: ...
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Is Hebrews 10:28 talking about the past or present

According to the Bible Hub, the original Greek has it in present tense. Parallel Commentaries ... Greek died ἀποθνήσκει (apothnēskei) Verb - Present Indicative Active - 3rd Person Singular Strong's ...
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Genesis 2 and 3 - Why was nudity suddenly a shame for Adam?

There is a deeply spiritual dimension to all of this. For further consideration by those interested in plumbing deeper depths in this account of the first couple's nakedness, I begin by quoting from ...
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What was written on the stone tablets?

I have been struggling with the same question for years. In Exodus 19-23 God gives the Israelites 'judgements' (Exodus 21;1) which Moses writes down in a book - which by the way, God never commanded ...
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What was the significance of the daily decrease of the number of bulls offered during Tabernacles in Numbers 29:12-32?

It seems to me that the decrease in numbers is a countdown towards the seventh day after the seventh day of offering; that is, a notional "fourteenth day" of offering. On the first day of ...
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What was the significance of the daily decrease of the number of bulls offered during Tabernacles in Numbers 29:12-32?

70 is a significant number and we have good answers above. But why the decreasing numbers? One possibility for the decrease relates to the spiritual significance of the feasts, all of which typify ...
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How best to understand the NLT translation of νόμος in Romans 8:2?

If you want to understand the translation philosophy of the NLT, then you need to go back to the Living Bible, written by Ken Taylor who later founded Tyndale House Publishers and oversaw the ...
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How best to understand the NLT translation of νόμος in Romans 8:2?

The solid majority of translators use "law of the Spirit" here because that is the literal meaning of the word νόμος. Moreover Paul is clearly contrasting the law of the spirit with the law ...
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Is "until heaven and earth pass away" from Matthew 5:18 an idiomatic expression?

The reference to the passing away of “heaven and earth” must be considered in light of the establishment of that same “heaven and earth” in Isaiah 51: 15 "I am the LORD your God, Who divided the ...
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Does Romans 3:31 refer to the Law or the law?

Expositor's commentary is wrong. There is no need to use Law (Pentateuch) instead of law (Covenant) in the verse. The distinction is superficial. The covenant is the core of the Pentateuch. ESV uses ...
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Does Romans 3:31 refer to the Law or the law?

“Apart from law a righteousness of God has been shown…”. Romans 3:21 Separate from law conditions, a righteousness (God has 2 righteousnesses one under the law one in Jesus Christ. Both are mutually ...
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In Romans 1:17, what does Paul mean by “from faith to faith” (ἐκ πίστεως εἰς πίστιν)?

It is definitely temporal deictic in meaning; but doesn't mean from law to faith, since law is not like faith, it is contrasted by Paul in defense of the new covenant. It is similar to John 1:16 grace ...
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Was Barnabas' land ownership as a Levite against Mosaic Law?

There is also the law conerning the dedication of land; "If a man dedicates to the Lord part of the land which is his by inheritance" (Leviticus ch27 v16). The following verses appear to ...
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Was Barnabas' land ownership as a Levite against Mosaic Law?

The Law was incapable of changing the heart of Barnabas regarding the ownership of land. The Gospel, however, was the change agent in his heart and he gladly sold the land.
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What significance does ‘God’s law’ have in Romans 8:7,if any, with regards to those who set their mind, on the things of the Spirit?

I suggest that "God's law" is to be found in Matthew ch22 vv37-40; "You shall love the Lord yuur God with all your heart and will all your soul and with all your mind This is the first ...
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What significance does ‘God’s law’ have in Romans 8:7,if any, with regards to those who set their mind, on the things of the Spirit?

We are called to fulfill the righteous requirement of the law even if we are no longer bound by the letter (Rom 7:6, Rom 3:31). Indeed, it was for that very purpose that Christ was sent into the world,...
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In Romans 1:17, what does Paul mean by “from faith to faith” (ἐκ πίστεως εἰς πίστιν)?

OP's question, What does Paul mean by from faith to faith" For in it God's righteousness is revealed out of faith for faith, according at is written: Now the just by faith shall live. Rom. 1:...
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In Romans 1:17, what does Paul mean by “from faith to faith” (ἐκ πίστεως εἰς πίστιν)?

I believe that Paul is saying that righteousness is revealed in saving people by faith. They go from being unrighteous, when they do not have faith, to being made righteous BY their faith.

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