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Koiné (from κοινή, "common") Greek was the form of post-classical Greek spoken and written in Hellenistic and Roman antiquity. It is the language of the Septuagint (LXX), Christian New Testament, and most early Christian theological writings.
7
votes
Does Romans 9:5 assert the deity of Christ?
At the root of the punctuation problem in Romans 9:5 is the notion of "the nature of God", and those who struggle with a rational understanding of how God is constituted can't help but get hung up on …
4
votes
Galatians 2:16: is it really "not by works but by faith"?
A quick scan of the results on BlueLetter for G3362 will suffice to clarify the sense of the Greek as, "only if". …
3
votes
What sort of phrasing is "the many" in Romans 5?
G4183 masculine, plural)
In this verse the Greek adjective, given as Strong's G4183, occurs in three different forms. … English has no means of doing the same thing as the Greek. …
3
votes
In Hebrews 1:3 does χαρακτηρ της υποστασεως αυτου say that Jesus is the same substance or si...
I would render Hebrews 1:3 as:
Who, not only while being a distinctive brightness of his glory and a perfect expression of the depth of his steadfastness, but also while upholding everything there …
3
votes
In John 1:1c, should the Greek word θεὸς be translated into English as “a god” or “God”?
NIV: A whole bunch of words here that are not in the Greek
No one has ever seen God, but the one and only Son, who is himself God and1 is in closest relationship with the Father, has made him known. … Greek: in the bosom of the Father …
2
votes
Define "being" in regards to Acts 17:28
The Greek word εσμεν appears twice in Acts 17:28
For in him we live, and move, and have our being εσμεν; as certain also of your own poets have said, For we areεσμεν also his offspring.
-- Acts 17 … Here's the Greek:
Εν | αυτω | γαρ | ζωμεν | και | κινουμεθα | και | εσμεν
In | him | indeed | we live | and | we move | and | we are
ζωμεν, κινουμεθα, εσμεν
All three of these Greek words …
2
votes
In Revelation 21:8, is "Fear" or even "Cowardice" a Sin necessitates punishment?
John 16:7-11 (KJV)
7Nevertheless I tell you the truth; It is expedient for you that I go away: for if I go not away, the Comforter will not come unto you; but if I depart, I will send him unto you.
…
2
votes
What does "by inheritance obtained a more excellent name than they" mean in Hebrews 1:4?
"he hath by inheritance obtained" is the KJV translators' rendering of the Greek κεκληρονόμηκεν, which is the perfect/active/indicative/3rd person/singular inflection of the verb κληρονομέω (Strong's G2816 …
2
votes
Did Matthew intend “evil” or “the evil one” in the Lord’s Prayer?
I'm not a Greek scholar. …
2
votes
Accepted
In John 19:25, are there three women or four women listed?
I would translate John 19:25 like this:
For there to be four woman in the writer's list of those present near Jesus' cross, one would have to assume that the writer was not consistent in his use of …
2
votes
Is "theos" of the Textus Receptus of 1 Timothy 3:16 the original reading?
I would translate the WH Greek of 1 Timothy 3:16 this way:
When Paul writes "he was made manifest in the flesh", he is declaring that Jesus preexisted his manifestation in the flesh. …
2
votes
Why the use of Lamb, ἀρνίον and not, ἀμνὸς in Revelation?
Details:
As the OP has observed, the Greek word ἀρνίον (Strong's G721 - arnion), given as "lamb" by the KJV translators, is what would be referred to in older English as a "lambkin", i.e. a young lamb …
2
votes
Mark 7:19 - Does Jesus Really Declare "All Foods Clean?"
The suggestion that ἐκπορεύομαι is not the subject of Jesus' teaching in Mark 7:18-23 belies the number of occurrences of the word in the passage. Here is how I would translate it:
18And he said t …
2
votes
Is NWT's translation of John 8:58 reasonable?
The NWT translation of John 8:58 is not reasonable, since it mangles the tense of the word εἰμί (Present/Active/Indicative/1st Person Singular - "I am"), which they don't do for Paul's statement in Ac …
2
votes
Accepted
In Daniel 7:22 is judgment "committed to" the saints or "rendered in favor of" them?
Any ambiguity that may be present in Daniel 7:22, can be resolved by considering this: the judgment of the LORD "rendered in favor of" the saints, is that judgment "be committed" to the saints.
This …