Questions tagged [john]

The fourth Gospel in the Christian New Testament that is attributed to John the son of Zebedee.

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What did Jesus imply in John 11:9,10?

"Jesus answered, “Are there not twelve hours of daylight? Anyone who walks in the daytime will not stumble, for they see by this world’s light. It is when a person walks at night that they stumble, ...
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Does John 14:23 involve a “physical” house?

John 14:23 in some translation involves "making our home with them" while some translate them as "make our abode with him" from "ποιησόμεθα μονὴν". Which translation is correct and does that phrase ...
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Can there be two different beginnings of God's creation, one at Proverbs 8:22 and a different one at Revelation 3:14?

The speaker Proverbs 8:22 said “The Lord created[1] me the beginning of his way for his works, κύριος ἔκτισέν με ἀρχὴν ὁδῶν αὐτοῦ εἰς ἔργα αὐτοῦ. The Hebrew word qanah does mean "create" at ...
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Does John 1:4+5:26 support whether or not the Word received life from God as BDAG suggests?

https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=John+1%3A3-4&version=NRSV John 1:3-4 New Revised Standard Version (NRSV) 3 All things came into being through him, and without him not one thing came ...
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When Jesus said he lives because of the living Father, what do “because of” and “living Father” mean at John 6:57?

When Jesus said he lives because [1] of the living Father what do because(δια) and living Father mean at John 6:57? 57 As the living Father (ὁ ζῶν πατὴρ) sent me, and I live because of the Father (...
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Rhema versus Logos

What is the difference between ‘rhema’ and ‘Logos’? Does the difference between these two words provide deeper understanding to the mystery of ‘the Word was made flesh (John 1:14)’ and ‘God was ...
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How can the verses which say no one has seen God be reconciled with those that say the Lord appeared to people such as Abram?

At John 1:18 it says, "No man has seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, He has declared Him." Also, John 4:24 states, "God is spirit, and those who ...
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“You are the Christ the Son of the Living God.” Matthew 16:16 (NASB)

John 1:1 (KJV) 1 "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God." In view of the above verse John 1:1 many believe that Jesus is God. Why then is Jesus , ...
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Do Jesus and Paul share the same doctrine of salvation?

Based upon John 14:21, love for Jesus is not merely a belief in Him: "He that hath my commandments, and keepeth them, he it is that loveth me: and he that loveth me shall be loved of my Father, and I ...
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Why did Jesus not call Mary mother?

3 And when they lacked wine, the mother of Jesus said unto Him, “They have no wine.” 4 Jesus said unto her, “Woman, what have I to do with thee? Mine hour is not yet come.” - John 2:3-4 KJ21 ...
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Why did Jesus - not baptize?. John 4:2

John 4:2 (NASB) 2 (although Jesus Himself was not baptizing, but His disciples were),
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In John 17:6, John 17:11-12 and John 17:16, what is the “keeping power” of God's name?

[Jhn 17:6, 11-12, 26 NKJV] (6) "I have manifested Your name to the men whom You have given Me out of the world. They were Yours, You gave them to Me, and they have kept Your word. ... (11) "Now I am ...
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In John 4:24, what does it mean to “worship in Spirit and truth”?

John 4:24 says "God is Spirit, and his worshipers must worship in the Spirit and in truth." How do we know we are worshipping in Spirit and in truth?
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Why does the Gospel of John omit Jesus' teachings on eschatology and end of days, while the synoptics include them?

What intrigued my attention was the post here and the answer by user25930 listing a lot of passage from New Testament about tribulation, end of days and second coming of Jesus Christ but he could ...
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Difference in translation for John 1:1 [duplicate]

47 of the 59 translations of the Bible online are consistent in translating the third phrase John 1:1 as ‘... the Word was God.’. The Greek Bible translated the same as ‘... God was the Word.’ Are ...
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Doing good and doing evil in John 5:29

John 5:29 (Interlinear) 29 καὶ (and) ἐκπορεύσονται (will come forth) — οἱ (those) τὰ (-) ἀγαθὰ (good) ποιήσαντες (having done), εἰς (to) ἀνάστασιν (the resurrection) ζωῆς (of life); οἱ (-) ‹δὲ› (...
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Did Jesus call the disciples brothers before the resurrection?

[John 20:17] Jesus saith to her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended unto the Father: but go unto my brethren, and say to them, I ascend unto my Father and your Father, and my God and your God. ...
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Is John 8:58 an allusion to Psalm 90:2 LXX?

[Jhn 8:58 CSB] (58) Jesus said to them, "Truly I tell you, before Abraham was, I am." [Jhn 8:58 MGNT] (58) εἶπεν αὐτοῖς Ἰησοῦς ἀμὴν ἀμὴν λέγω ὑμῖν πρὶν Ἀβραὰμ γενέσθαι ἐγὼ εἰμί [...
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Imperfect Indicative Active in John 1:1-4

John 1:1 (ESV) 1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2 He was in the beginning with God. 3 All things were made through him, and without him was not any ...
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What did Jesus write on the ground? [duplicate]

In the Gospel of JOHN (King James) Chapter 8 verse 6 quote: This they said , tempting him,that they might have to accuse him.But Jesus stooped down ,and with (his) finger wrote on the groung ,(as ...
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Allusion between Revelation 17:10 and John 4:18, 25

In Revelation 17:10, John receives an explanation of the seven heads of a beast he has seen: They are also seven kings. Five have fallen, one is, the other has not yet come; but when he does come, ...
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In John 11:20 why did Mary remain at the house?

In John 11:20 why did Mary remain at the house? So when Martha heard that Jesus was coming, she went and met him, but Mary remained seated in the house. (John 11:20, ESV) This is not typical of ...
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In John 11:2 why did John reference Mary anointing Jesus’ feet before this occurred in chapter 12?

In John 11:2 why did John reference Mary anointing Jesus’ feet before this occurred in chapter 12? It was Mary who anointed the Lord with ointment and wiped his feet with her hair, whose brother ...
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Is 'begun' a better translation than 'made' in John 1:3?

παντα δι αυτου εγενετο και χωρις αυτου εγενετο ουδε εν ο γεγονεν [TR] John1:3 All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made. [KJV] All things through him ...
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What was Jesus’ πατρίδι (hometown/homeland) in John 4:44?

What was Jesus’ πατρίδι (hometown/homeland) in John 4:44? I had always assumed that this referred to Nazareth and Galilee, where Jesus grew up. However, Eli Lizorkin-Eyzenberg in The Jewish ...
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δόλος = deceit in John 1:47

On the account of Jesus' encounter with Nathanael, this is written: Joh 1:47  Jesus saw Nathanael coming toward him and said of him, “Behold, an Israelite indeed, in whom there is no deceit!” (ESV) ...
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How should we understand λαμβάνω in John 5:34?

How should we understand λαμβάνω in John 5:34? ἐγὼ δὲ οὐ παρὰ ἀνθρώπου τὴν μαρτυρίαν λαμβάνω, ἀλλὰ ταῦτα λέγω ἵνα ὑμεῖς σωθῆτε. (John 5:34, NA27) While many more literal translations translate ...
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Peter's second comment to the maiden's interrogation in Mark

In Mark 14:68 Peter denies knowing Jesus but he also says he does not understand what she meant. But he denied it, saying, “I neither know nor understand what you are talking about.” And he went ...
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What does it mean that the Word became flesh?

And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth. — John 1:14 I heard a Jehovah's Witness say that ...
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Should “from the father” be translated instead as “beside a father” in John 1:14?

A typical translation of John 1:14-18 usually reads about like this: (John 1:14–18, ESV) And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we have seen his glory, glory as of the only Son from ...
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In John 1:14 what is meant by “glory as of an only begotten of a father”?

[John 1:14 YLT] (14) And the Word [IE: "utterance"] became flesh, and did tabernacle among us, and we beheld his glory, glory as of an only begotten of a father, full of grace and truth. [Jhn 1:...
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In John 17:26 what does Jesus mean by “and that I myself might be in them”?

[John 17:26 NIV] (26) I have made you known to them, and will continue to make you known in order that the love you have for me may be in them and that I myself may be in them." What does "I myself" ...
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Why did the lame man in John 5:1-15 not know that Jesus healed him, but the blind man in John 9 knew that Jesus healed him?

Why did the lame man in John 5:1-15 not know that Jesus healed him, but the blind man in John 9 knew that Jesus healed him? Neither one asked for Jesus to heal him. The lame man could see, but ...
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What is the significance of “you will not find me”in John 7:34 (ESV) when it is left out in John 13:33?

What is the significance of “you will not find me”in John 7:34 (ESV) when it is left out in John 13:33? I will be with you a little longer, and then I am going to him who sent me. You will seek me ...
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In John 15:15 how is a friend different from a servant?

[Jhn 15:15 NIV] (15) I no longer call you servants, because a servant does not know his master's business. Instead, I have called you friends, for everything that I learned from my Father I have made ...
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In John 11:16 did Thomas think Jesus was going to Lazarus by going to Jerusalem to die?

In John 11:16 did Thomas think Jesus was going to Lazarus by going to Jerusalem to die? Then Jesus told them plainly, “Lazarus has died, and for your sake I am glad that I was not there, so that ...
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Why does Jesus say Judas had perished when he was still alive?

It seems that Jesus is suggesting that Judas had already died before he commits suicide, which we know happens after the betrayal. For some context let me start the quotation from John 17:6. “I ...
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Anyone know why Σιλωάμ in John 9:7 has the μ at the end

Anyone know why Σιλωάμ in John 9:7 has the μ at the end. The Hebrew New Testament (Bible Society of Israel) has הַשִּׁלּוֹחַ (apparently qal passive participle) with no ending m sound from the Hebrew ...
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Does the phrase “i am ascending” in John 20:17 meant it an act in progress?

Does the phrase "i am ascending" in John 20:17 meant it an act in progress which could be completed before Jesus appears to those Jewish disciples who were hiding behind locked doors later that night ...
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Why Gospel of John uses the word “Sign” instead of “Miracle”?

Gospel of Johns stays away from using the word "miracle". Instead the author prefers to uses the word "Sign". The occurrences of the word "Sign" during miracles in the book of John are as below: John ...
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and the truth will set you free Meaning

John 8:31 So He said to the Jews who had believed Him, “If you continue in My word, you are truly My disciples. 32 Then you will know the truth, and the truth will set you free.” What does mean? Does ...
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God vs devil - How much does God allow?

I asked this question in the other Christian exchange and was directed here: From my understanding and through examples in history and my life as well, God allows good and bad things to happen. ...
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Why did the Jews refuse to have dealings with the Samaritans? John 4:9

John 4:9 (NASB) "Therefore the Samaritan woman *said to Him, “How is it that You, being a Jew, ask me for a drink since I am a Samaritan woman?” (For Jews have no dealings with Samaritans.)
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Is there a linguistic basses for how to translate John 8:43, or are translations basing their translation on context alone?

Is there a linguistic basis for how to translate John 8:43, or are translations basing their translation on context alone? The following is not meant to be exhaustive, but a sample of the variation ...
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How can Jesus say that Jews are the children of the devil (John 8:44) and provide salvation (John 4:22)?

In the Gospel of John there are conflicting descriptions of the Jews. For example: How can Jews be both the children of the devil (John 8:44) and provide salvation (John 4:22)?: [Jhn 8:44 ASV] (44) ...
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Did Jesus make alcoholic wine or grape juice?

I heard someone giving a talk on alcohol and Christianity. One thing that stood out was when they said that the word used for 'wine' at the wedding in Cana (John chapter 2) meant grape juice. When ...
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Does the Tyndale’s version use “if” I’m John 12:32?

The pastor mentioned that the Tyndale’s version KJV 11 uses “if” instead of “when” in John 12:32. The only reference on the internet I found is: And I yf I were lifte vp from the erthe will drawe ...
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When Jesus told Martha if you believe, wasn’t he saying her spiritual insight depended on her belief, not Lazarus’s return to life?

When Jesus told Martha if you believe, wasn’t he saying her spiritual insight depended on her belief, not Lazarus’s return to life? Jesus said to her, “Did I not tell you that if you believed you ...
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Is John 3:8 an allusion to Ecclesiastes 11:5?

In John 3:8 Jesus is talking to the Pharisee and senior Jewish figure Nicodemus. "The wind bloweth where it listesth, and thou hearest the sound thereof, but canst not tell whence it cometh, and ...
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Important facts during the arrest of Jesus, Mark 14:52 [duplicate]

What significance is the naked man in the garden of Gethsemane where Jesus was arrested, Mark 14:52. he fled naked, leaving his garment behind.