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The fourth Gospel in the Christian New Testament that is attributed to John the son of Zebedee.

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Does John place the Bread of Life Discourse at the time of Pesach Sheni?

John places the feeding of the 5,000, Jesus walking on water, and the Bread of Life Discourse which follows at a time before Passover: Now the Passover, the feast of the Jews, was at hand. (John 6:...
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36 views

Does John 1:12 include a reference to the Last Supper?

The Gospel according to John lacks the account at the Last Supper; there is no "Take, eat; this is My body..." But commentators note while lacking those words, John includes things which show a ...
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What is the difference in eating and drinking in John 6:53 and 6:54?

The instruction to drink the blood of the Son of Man is first given in John 6:53: εἶπεν οὖν αὐτοῖς ὁ Ἰησοῦς· ἀμὴν ἀμὴν λέγω ὑμῖν, ἐὰν μὴ φάγητε τὴν σάρκα τοῦ υἱοῦ τοῦ ἀνθρώπου καὶ πίητε αὐτοῦ τὸ ...
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Is John 10:9 an allusion to Micah 2:12-13?

John 10:1  Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that entereth not by the door into the sheepfold, but climbeth up some other way, the same is a thief and a robber.  John 10:2  But he that entereth ...
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In Luke 18 why didn't Christ tell the rich young ruler to believe on Him for eternal life, as He had told many others in the Gospel of John?

John 3:14-15 KJV — And as Moses lifted up the serpent in the wilderness, even so must the Son of man be lifted up: 15 That whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have eternal life. ...
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Did Peter cut off the slave's ear to disqualify him as a priest (John 18:10)?

In John 18:10 (as well as the other gospels), Peter cuts off the ear of the slave of the high priest (NRSV): Then Simon Peter, who had a sword, drew it, struck the high priest’s slave, and cut off ...
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In John 3:35, what are the “all things” that are given into Christ's hands?

Verse 35 comes before verse 36 where everlasting life is contrasted with the wrath of God. So perhaps "all" refers to both of these. Verse 33 and verse 34 are about things of the Spirit and verse 31 ...
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1answer
69 views

Is translating οὕτως in John 3:16 as “so much” valid?

Is translating οὕτως (the adverbial form of the word meaning "this") in John 3:16 as "so much" valid, or is this based on a misreading of the KJV? In the KJV, it is translated "so," ""For God so ...
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71 views

In John 16:13, who is “the spirit of truth”?

I was wondering: Who is the "Spirit of truth" in this text ? John 16 12 “I have much more to say to you, more than you can now bear. 13 But when he, the Spirit of truth, comes, he will ...
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106 views

In John 1:3 to what does πᾶς refer?

In John 3:20 pas are people. In John 14:26 panta are words and memories. In John 1:3 is πᾶς referring to the tangible objects made in Genesis 1 or also to abstractions and the things men seem to do ...
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61 views

Does “all things” always mean the same in these seven verses?

John 1:3 All thingsπάντα were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made. John 3:35 The Father loveth the Son, and hath given all thingsπάντα into his hand. Romans 11:36 For ...
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How should John 3:13 be understood in view of the OT statements about Enoch and Elijah?

How should John 3:13 be understood in view of the OT statements about Enoch and Elijah? John 3:13 states: No one has ascended into heaven except the one who descended from heaven – the Son of ...
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27 views

In Ephesians 5:2 and 5:25 what does Paul mean by ἑαυτὸν παρέδωκεν ὑπὲρ αὐτῆς?

Ephesians 5:2 and 5:25 are normally taken to refer to Christ dying for the Assembly ("Church"): Westcott and Hort / [NA27 variants] Ephesians 5:2 καὶ περιπατεῖτε ἐν ἀγάπῃ, καθὼς καὶ ὁ χριστὸς ...
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In John 4:21-23 What does “But the hour cometh, and now is, when the true worshippers shall worship the Father in spirit and in truth” means?

John 4:21 Jesus saith unto her, Woman, believe me, the hour cometh, when ye shall neither in this mountain, nor yet at Jerusalem, worship the Father. 4:22 Ye worship ye know not what: we know what ...
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In John 4:51 why a son (παῖς) and not a son (υἱός)?

υἱός is most common way to call a child a son. In John, this word is used 57 times. However, there is one instance where παῖς is used: As he was going down, his servants met him and told him that ...
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In John 1:36 what is the background of the term “Lamb of God”?

John 1:36 King James Version (KJV) 36 And looking upon Jesus as he walked, he saith, Behold the Lamb of God! No one seems bewildered by this designation. Was it an idiom, a recognized concept in ...
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John 1:24-34 John's baptism is illegal?

John 1:24-34 New International Version (NIV) 24 Now the Pharisees who had been sent 25 questioned him, “Why then do you baptize if you are not the Messiah, nor Elijah, nor the Prophet?” Why isn't he ...
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68 views

In John 4:18 is Jesus accusing the woman at the well of fornication or of adultery?

John 4:18 reports Jesus saying οὐκ ἔστιν σου ἀνήρ. Does the οὐκ govern σου or ἀνήρ? If the former, does it mean he’s a man but he’s not yours; and if the latter, does it imply he’s not a man, since ...
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In John 11:26 what is the meaning of “die”?

John 11:26 (version-A) and whoever lives by believing in me will never die. Do you believe this? The translation of this verse in my native language, in English will be like this : John 11:26 (...
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To whom were the Jews referring in John 6:31?

John 6:31 New King James Version (NKJV) 31 Our fathers ate the manna in the desert; as it is written, ‘He gave them bread from heaven to eat.’”[a] In the following text Christ accuses the Jews as ...
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Did the same “John” write the fourth gospel and Revelation?

By John, I mean the author of the Gospel of John (whom I believe to be the Apostle John, the beloved disciple: cf. John 21:22). Anecdotally speaking, in my lay opinion, the same (I would say artfully)...
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Literal or symbolic interpretation?

Jesus washing the feet of the disciples (John 13:1–17) occurred in the upper room, just prior to the Last Supper. "If I then, the Lord and the Teacher, washed your feet, you also ought to wash one ...
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How can we trust the Gospels if nobody was there to witness? [closed]

I am reading the Gospels and sometimes I wonder how can some stories have been recorded and then written down. The case is when Jesus is basically by himself and nobody there to witness or when he is ...
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Does John 20:22 indicate that disciples receive Holy Spirit then? [duplicate]

John 20:22 seems to indicate the disciples received the Holy Spirit at that time. I thought the Holy Spirit came at Pentecost. Can you help me understand this?
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In John 15:19 what does the author intend by κόσμος and the apostles no longer being of it?

KJV John 15:19  If ye were of the world, the world would love his own: but because ye are not of the world, but I have chosen you out of the world, therefore the world hateth you.  Westcott ...
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2answers
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John 10:33 — Nominative vs. Accusative Nuance (θεος / θεον)

John 10:33 in the Greek reads (NA28): ἀπεκρίθησαν αὐτῷ οἱ Ἰουδαῖοι· περὶ καλοῦ ἔργου οὐ λιθάζομέν σε ἀλλὰ περὶ βλασφημίας, καὶ ὅτι σὺ ἄνθρωπος ὢν ποιεῖς σεαυτὸν θεόν. There is nothing special or ...
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What does the verb tense etc. for τηρήσετε in John 14:15 indicate?

In John 14:15, does the Greek verb tense (etc.) make the keeping of Jesus' commands a command, a predictive promise (you will) or is it even possible that Jesus is saying that in you love me you are ...
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50 views

Is the term “sons of God” in John 1:12 the same categorization as “sons of God” in the OT (IE: Job 1:6)?

The OT seems to have a consistent usage of the phrase "sons of God" as "angels" and the NT seems to ignore it completely. Or does it? Is there actually continuity? KJV John 1:12  But as many as ...
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What is the importance of the folded napkin in the empty tomb? [duplicate]

What is the importance of the folded napkin n the empty tomb? And the napkin, that was about his head, not lying with the linen clothes, but wrapped together in a place by itself. John 20:7. TR.
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Why did Jesus call His mother “Woman”?

In John 19:26 it says, "When Jesus therefore saw his mother, and the disciple standing by, whom he loved, he saith unto his mother, Woman, behold thy son!" This isn't the 1st time Jesus uses ...
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Why doesn't the ASV translate the accusative με in John 14:14?

In the Greek, John 14:14 reads: ἐάν τι αἰτήσητέ με ἐν τῷ ὀνόματί μου ἐγὼ ποιήσω. (SBL) Most English translations render the accusative με as "me" or "of me"' for example, the ESV reads: If you ...
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In John 10:18 what command did Jesus receive from his father?

New International Version John 10: 17The reason my Father loves me is that I lay down my life—only to take it up again. 18 No one takes it from me, but I lay it down of my own accord. I have authority ...
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In John 5:26 what is meant by “life in himself”?

In the New Living Translation and others John 5:26 is translated in a way that seems antithetical to the Augustinian concept of "the eternal generation of the Son". That is, if the NLT reading is ...
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82 views

John 5:18 — John's own Christology or Misunderstanding of the Jews?

(Biases on the table: I am a Christian and believe that Jesus is God in the flesh, namely, the eternal Λογος of God Rev 19:13 (who is distinct from the Father προς τον θεον, but of the same nature ...
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140 views

What did Jesus mean in John 4:22, ὑμεῖς προσκυνεῖτε ὃ οὐκ οἴδατε?

What did Jesus mean in John 4:22, ὑμεῖς προσκυνεῖτε ὃ οὐκ οἴδατε (You worship what you do not know; ESV)? Why is the neuter relative pronoun used in both statements: ὑμεῖς προσκυνεῖτε ὃ οὐκ οἴδατε· ...
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91 views

What was the probable original Hebrew statement spoken by Jesus in Jn 10:30? [closed]

I want to know the probable original Hebrew statement spoken by Jesus in Jn 10:30: "I and the Father are one." "Egō kai ho Patēr hen esmen." Specifically, I want to know whether the probable ...
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1answer
62 views

What does ανωθεν mean in John 19:23?

In John 19:23, John writes εκ των ανωθεν (translated 'from the top' by KJV) in relation to Jesus' garment for which soldiers gambled. των is genitive, since that is what the preposition εκ requires. ...
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3answers
141 views

What did the disciple whom Jesus loved (ἐφίλει) believe?

Several times in the Gospel, John makes a statement or uses a word which can be understood in more than one way. Often times this appears to be purposeful as both meanings are correct. For example ...
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139 views

In John 17:5 does the “world” (κόσμος) refer to physical matter or any creation?

(Douay-Rheims Bible) And now glorify thou me, O Father, with thyself, with the glory which I had, before the world was, with thee. John 17:5 Does the word "world" refer to the actual planet earth, ...
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177 views

According to the Bible the whole world lies under the power of the evil one. (1 John 5:19)

1 John 5:19 (NRSV) "We know that we are God’s children, and that the whole world lies under the power of the evil one." How could someone evil gain control over the world (humanity)?
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How did John the Baptist question whether he should baptize Jesus (Matt. 3:13-15), if he did not know before Jesus' baptism (John 1:31-34)?

How did John the Baptist know enough about Jesus to question whether he should baptize Jesus (Matt. 3:13-15)? 13 Then Jesus came from Galilee to the Jordan to John, to be baptized by him. 14 John ...
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John 1:31 Why did John not know his cousin?

"I myself did not know him, but the reason I came baptizing with water was that he might be revealed to Israel." (John 1:31) Mary and Elizabeth both met up before John and Jesus were born, but it ...
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How do you reconcile world (κόσμος) in 1 John 2:15-17 with John 3:16-17?

How do you reconcile world (κόσμος) in 1 John 2:15-17 with John 3:16-17? κόσμος has obviously different meanings as used in the following two passages. For God so loved the world, that he gave ...
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In John 1:15, why is μαρτυρεῖ present tense while ἦν in οὗτος ἦν ὃν εἶπον is imperfect?

In John 1:15, why is μαρτυρεῖ present tense while ἦν in οὗτος ἦν ὃν εἶπον is imperfect? The tenses seem backwards. The present tense on past events is common in the Gospel of John, "Historical (...
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16 views

What did John's intend with Ἐγένετο in John 1:6?

Is it valid to say John intended Ἐγένετο in John 1:6 to signify that John the Baptist was a part of creation (John 1:3) as opposed to the eternal Word (John 1:1 with the verb ἦν)?
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What does “the life was the light of men” mean in John 1:4?

What does ἡ ζωὴ ἦν τὸ φῶς τῶν ἀνθρώπων mean in John 1:4?
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65 views

John 1:28 Bethany/Bethabara Location?

So, i'm just wanting to know where the location of Bethany is as mentioned by John. I've seen different maps that have it in different places. Some NT maps even show two Bethanys! You should see the ...
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130 views

In what way was the word with God?

John states the word was "with" God: In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with (πρὸς) God, and the Word was God. He was in the beginning with (πρὸς) God. (John 1:1-2 ESV) As used after ...
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2answers
94 views

Where is Cana of Galilee in John 2:1?

On the third day there was a wedding at Cana in Galilee, and the mother of Jesus was there.  Jesus also was invited to the wedding with his disciples. The Holy Bible: English Standard Version. (2016)....
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79 views

λέγει πρὸς αὐτόν vs. λέγει αὐτῷ—what is the difference?

What exactly is the difference between saying something 'to' someone ("λέγει πρὸς αὐτόν"), and simply saying something to someone ("λέγει αὐτῷ"). I read in John 2:3-4 that: Mary "λέγει πρὸς αὐτόν" (...