Questions tagged [greek]
Koiné (from κοινή, "common") Greek was the form of post-classical Greek spoken and written in Hellenistic and Roman antiquity. It is the language of the Septuagint (LXX), Christian New Testament, and most early Christian theological writings.
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In 1 Timothy 6:16 in what way does Jesus “have immortality” (if indeed he is the referent)?
[1Ti 6:11-16 ESV] (11) But as for you, O man of God, flee these things. Pursue righteousness, godliness, faith, love, steadfastness, gentleness. (12) Fight the good fight of the faith. Take hold of ...
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What does “bearing about in the body the dying of the Lord Jesus” mean in 2 Corinthians 4:10?
What does
"bearing about in the body the dying of the Lord Jesus"
mean in
2 Corinthians 4:10 always bearing about in the body the dying of the Lord Jesus, that the life also of Jesus might be ...
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1answer
27 views
Why is the indefinite aorist tense used in Luke 22:15 'With desire I have desired / 'Ἐπιθυμίᾳ ἐπεθύμησα?
Why is the indefinite aorist tense used in Luke 22:15 And he said unto them, With desire I have desired to eat this passover with you before I suffer...
I am most interested in the hebraism used here ...
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Does Ephesians 5:3 mean that if a person fall into sins “sexual” or “covetous” he/she should not confess it to anyone in the Church?
Does
Ephesians 5:3 But sexual immorality and all impurity or covetousness
must not even be named among you, as is proper among saints.
mean that if a person fall into sins that are "sexual" or ...
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In 2 Peter 1:16 what does Peter mean by “eyewitnesses of his majesty”?
[2Pe 1:16-18 ESV] (16) For we did not follow cleverly devised myths when we made known to you the power and coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, but we were eyewitnesses of his majesty. (17) For when he ...
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Does the expression “Commandments of God” in Revelation 14:12 refer to the ten commandments on stone tablets given to Moses?
Does the expression Commandments of God in
Revelation 14:12 Here is a call for the endurance of the saints, those
who keep the commandments of God and their faith in Jesus.( ESV )
refer to the ...
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Why change the greek word opse to mean After instead of late in the evening in matthew 28? [closed]
This post is evidence the whole of Marks so called ressurection account is a vatican lie from the first verse to the ending and so not just the 8 verse. For That says the sun had already risen, but ...
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What is the meaning of the Greek words translated as “blackest darkness” in Jude verse 13
Jude verse 13 speaks of those who are... "wandering stars for whom blackest darkness has been reserved" (NIV) or "wandering stars, to whom is reserved the blackness of darkness for ever" (KJV).
My ...
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In Hebrews 1:4 what does it mean that Jesus “inherits” a more excellent name?
[Heb 1:4 DBY] (4) taking a place by so much better than the angels, as he inherits a name more excellent than they.
1:4 τοσούτῳ κρείττων γενόμενος τῶν ἀγγέλων ὅσῳ διαφορώτερον παρ᾽ αὐτοὺς ...
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1 Cor. 7:5 “προς καιρόν” = “perhaps”?
Why do some translations have a "perhaps" in 1 Cor. 7:5:
Defraud not one another, except, perhaps, by consent, for a time, that you may give yourselves to prayer; and return together again, lest ...
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How should we interpret “not because you saw signs” (οὐχ ὅτι εἴδετε σημεῖα) in John 6:26?
How should we interpret “not because you saw signs” (οὐχ ὅτι εἴδετε σημεῖα) in John 6:26?
Jesus answered them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, you are seeking me, not because you saw signs, but ...
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Was the official (βασιλικὸς) in John 4:46 Roman or Jewish?
Was the official (βασιλικὸς) in John 4:46 Roman or Jewish?
So he came again to Cana in Galilee, where he had made the water wine. And at Capernaum there was an official whose son was ill. (Jn 4:46,...
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What is the “water” in John 3:5? [duplicate]
What is the water in
John 3:5 5 Jesus answered, “Truly, truly, I say to you, unless
one is born of water and the Spirit, he cannot enter the
kingdom of God.
?
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1answer
34 views
What does “justified in the Spirit” refer to in 1 Timothy 3:16?
What does justified in the Spirit refer to in
1 Timothy 3:16 And without controversy great is the mystery of
godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit,
seen of angels, ...
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1answer
29 views
Is there any significance to the use and placement of the definite article in the phrase “last days”?
The New Testament has the phrase "last days" 5 times. Sometimes it is written with a definite article and sometimes without. Once the article is placed before "last days" and twice between "last days."...
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What does “even as” mean in Ephesians 1:4?
Ephesians 1:3-4 Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus
Christ, who has blessed us in Christ with every spiritual blessing in
the heavenly places, 4 even as he chose us in him before the
...
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2answers
312 views
MT “will strike” & LXX “will watch carefully” (Gen 3:15)?
I haven't seen this question asked at all in the threads I've searched, so this shouldn't be a duplicate.
I've been looking for answers about God's curse over the serpent in Gen 3:15. The question I ...
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When does this fire actually do the testing? 1 Corinthians 3:13
This passage describes the testing of works with fire.
The question regarding the fire is what day does it take place on? At the point of trials here on earth in the fleshly body or on a specific ...
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How should πῶς οὗτος γράμματα οἶδεν μὴ μεμαθηκώς; (NA27) be translated in John 7:15?
How should πῶς οὗτος γράμματα οἶδεν μὴ μεμαθηκώς; (NA27) be translated in John 7:15?
While a similar question was asked at Does John 7:15 mean Jesus was untaught?, the answers to that question did ...
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2answers
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What does “bewitch” mean in Galatians 3:1?
What does bewitch mean in Galatians 3:1?
Galatians 3:1 O foolish Galatians! Who has bewitched you? It
was before your eyes that Jesus Christ was publicly portrayed as
crucified.
From the ...
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In Romans 11:22 what does Paul mean by “continue in his goodness”?
[Rom 11:22 KJV] (22) Behold therefore the goodness and severity of God: on them which fell, severity; but toward thee, goodness, if thou continue in his goodness: otherwise thou also shalt be cut off.
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What did John mean by “second sign” (δεύτερον σημεῖον) in John 4:54?
What did John mean by “second sign” (δεύτερον σημεῖον) in John 4:54?
This was now the second sign that Jesus did when he had come from Judea to Galilee. (John 4:54, ESV)
Τοῦτο [δὲ] πάλιν ...
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5answers
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What is the difference between “putting on Christ” in Galatians 3:27 and “becoming God's righteousness” in 2 Corinthians 5:21?
What is the difference between putting on Christ in
Galatians 3:27 For as many of you as were baptized into Christ
have put on Christ
and becoming God's righteousness in
2 Corinthians 5:21 ...
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1answer
26 views
What are the “fruits of your righteousness” mentioned in 2 Corinthians 9:10?
What are the fruits of your righteousness mentioned in
2 Corinthians 9:10 Now he that ministereth seed to the sower both
minister bread for your food, and multiply your seed sown, and
increase ...
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3answers
75 views
To whom does the “Lord” refer in 2 Corinthians 3:17?
Reading through
2 Corinthians 3:14-17 English Standard Version (ESV) 14 But their
minds were hardened. For to this day, when they read the old covenant,
that same veil remains unlifted, because ...
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In Romans 1:7 KJV, why is κλητοῖς ἁγίοις translated as “called to be saints”?
[Rom 1:7 KJV] (7) To all that be in Rome, beloved of God, called to be saints: Grace to you and peace from God our Father, and the Lord Jesus Christ.
[Rom 1:7 MGNT] (7) πᾶσιν τοῖς οὖσιν ἐν ...
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How should Hebrews 10:13a be translated and understood?
There are several English renderings and they vary a lot. Taken very literally it seems to say "In remainder, ". Some have something along the lines of "From that time forward". NLT has "There he ...
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2answers
261 views
What did “the good wine” (τὸν καλὸν οἶνον) mean in John 2:10?
What did “the good wine” (τὸν καλὸν οἶνον) mean in John 2:10?
and said to him, “Everyone serves the good wine first, and when people have drunk freely, then the poor wine. But you have kept the ...
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3answers
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Why did Jesus say “we” in John 3:11?
Why did Jesus say “we” in John 3:11? Did Nicodemus understand what “we” meant?
Truly, truly, I say to you, we speak of what we know, and bear witness to what we have seen, but you do not receive ...
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What is the “same veil” mentioned in 2 Corinthians 3:14
2 Corinthians 3:13-14 New King James Version (NKJV)
13 unlike Moses, who put a veil over his face so that the children of
Israel could not look steadily at the end of what was passing away. 14
...
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2answers
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What does “obey the truth” mean in Romans 2:8?
What does obey the truth mean in this verse?
Romans 2:8
but for those who are self-seeking and do not obey
the truth, but obey unrighteousness, there will be wrath and fury.
What is the truth ...
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When John wrote the other disciple whom Jesus loved (John 20:2), does this single him out from the other disciples?
When John wrote the other disciple whom Jesus loved (John 20:2), does this single him out from the other disciples?
… to Simon Peter and the other disciple, the one whom Jesus loved,… (John 20:2, ...
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In Luke 12:8-9 what do “confesses me before men” and “deny” mean?
[Luke 12:8 YLT]
'And I say to you, Every one -- whoever may confess with me before men, the Son of Man also shall confess with him before the messengers of God,
12:8 λέγω δὲ ὑμῖν πᾶς ὃς ἂν ...
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In 1 Corinthians 2:12 what is the “spirit of the world”?
[1 Corinthians 2:12 KJV]
Now we have received, not the spirit of the world, but the spirit which is of God; that we might know the things that are freely given to us of God.
[1 Cor 2:12 ...
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In Ephesians 2:2 is Paul speaking of “mighty works” by “Satan”?
Eph 2:2 KJV - 2 Wherein in time past ye walked according to the course of this world, according to the prince of the power of the air, the spirit that now worketh in the children of disobedience:
...
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3answers
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In 1 John 1:1 should it read “the word of life” or “the living message”?
Note: I am double-posting this from my own question on B-Greek for whomever would like to follow along or participate there.
mGNT 1 John 1:1-3
1 ὃ ἦν ἀπ’ ἀρχῆς ὃ ἀκηκόαμεν ὃ ἑωράκαμεν τοῖς ...
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In Romans 11:15, whose “loss” is it and whose “bounty”?
In working on a related question I realized that there it was unclear to me who was the subject and who was the object in this verse:
Rom 11:15 KJV - 15 For if the casting away of them be the ...
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What does “take away sin/sins” mean in John 1:29 & Hebrews 10:11?
What does takes away the sin mean in
John 1:29 The next day he saw Jesus coming toward him, and said,
“Behold, the Lamb of God, who takes away the sin of the world!
and take away sins in
...
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1answer
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What is the difference between “old man” in Romans 6:6 and “flesh” in Romans 8:1?
What is the difference between "old man" in
Romans 6:6 Knowing this, that our old man is crucified with him,
that the body of sin might be destroyed, that henceforth we should not
serve sin.
...
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2answers
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What is the difference between adultery, fornication, uncleanness & lasciviousness in Galatians 5:19
Galatians 5:19 Now the works of the flesh are manifest, which are
these; Adultery, fornication, uncleanness, lasciviousness,
What is the difference between adultery, fornication, uncleanness & ...
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Sins or Faults - James 5:16
“Confess your faults one to another, and pray one for another, that ye may be healed. The effectual fervent prayer of a righteous man availeth much.”
James 5:16 KJV
This seems to be the ...
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2answers
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What's the meaning of brother in 1 John 2.9-11?
In 1 John 2.9-11, John uses adelphos, or brother. Researching that, I came across The Outline of Biblical Usage by Larry Pierce which says adelphos is sometimes used to mean countryman and co-...
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What does μὴ ἐγκακεῖν mean in Luke 18:1?
What does μὴ ἐγκακεῖν mean in Luke 18:1? (Greek text from NA27)
Note ἐγκακέω is the preposition ἔν combined with the verb κακέω. In BAG “ἐγκακέω is defined as 1. become weary, tired w. ptc. foll. … ...
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How often should we visit those in distress according to James 1:27?
In James 1:27 it says
Pure and undefiled religion in the sight of our God and Father is this: to visit orphans and widows in their distress, and to keep oneself unstained by the world. - James 1:27 ...
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Matthew 3:11: “With water” or “In water”?
I wonder how most translations ended up chosing "with" for ἐν, rather than "in", in verses like Matthew 3:11, Mark 1:8, Luke 3:16, John 1:26;31;33, Acts 1:5 and 11:16. "Immerse in water" sounds like a ...
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Does the Septuagint more accurately translate Genesis 15:6 than English translations?
Genesis 15:6 :
... and he counted it to him for righteousness. KJV.
... and He reckoneth it to him -- righteousness. Young's Literal.
... And He counted it to him for righteousness. Green'...
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3answers
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In Matthew 24:3 how should Συντέλεια be translated?
The ancient text of Matthew 24:3 reads:
“Καθημένου δὲ αὐτοῦ ἐπὶ τοῦ ὄρους τῶν ἐλαιῶν προσῆλθον αὐτῷ οἱ μαθηταὶ κατ᾽ ἰδίαν λέγοντες· εἰπὲ ἡμῖν, πότε ταῦτα ἔσται καὶ τί τὸ σημεῖον τῆς σῆς παρουσίας ...
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What does πάντα (all things) mean in John 13:3?
What does πάντα (all things) mean in John 13:3?
εἰδὼς ὅτι πάντα ἔδωκεν αὐτῷ ὁ πατὴρ εἰς τὰς χεῖρας (NA27)
knowing that the Father had given all things into his hands (John 13:3 ESV)
While the ...
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3answers
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Strange use of tenses in Mark 11:24
In Mark 11:20-26 Jesus addresses Peter and the other disciples about the fig tree that he caused to wither earlier in Mark 11:13-14.
Seeing at a distance a fig tree in leaf, He went to see if ...
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1answer
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Why the missing “Kai” in translations Colossians 1:29
Col 1:29 εις ο και κοπιω αγωνιζομενος κατα την ενεργειαν αυτου την
ενεργουμενην εν εμοι εν δυναμει
Is there any good reason why the 'kai' is ommitted in so many modern English translations? For ...
