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Questions tagged [greek]

Koiné (from κοινή, "common") Greek was the form of post-classical Greek spoken and written in Hellenistic and Roman antiquity. It is the language of the Septuagint (LXX), Christian New Testament, and most early Christian theological writings.

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Mark 6:54 - Who knew/recognized Jesus: the disciples or the crowds?

51 And he went up unto them into the ship; and the wind ceased: and they were sore amazed in themselves beyond measure, and wondered. 52 For they considered not the miracle of the loaves: for their ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
3 votes
3 answers
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How should αἱμάτων in John 1:13 be interpreted: “not of blood” or “not of bloods”?

John 1:13 NKJV says - who were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God. The plural is curious. [1] αἱμάτων haimatōn It's a Noun - Genitive Neuter Plural. ...
Jason_'s user avatar
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How is carousing different from drunkenness in Luke 21:34-36? How should they be interpreted literally and spiritually?

“Be careful, or your hearts will be weighed down with carousing, drunkenness and the anxieties of life, and that day will close on you suddenly like a trap. For it will come on all those who live on ...
Madeline C.'s user avatar
3 votes
5 answers
208 views

Should "in spirit and truth" be understood as a hendiadys?

The phrase ἓν διὰ δυοῖν one for two describes two things which become one. When combining both spirit and truth, there are three ways to describe the two. Use the article with each: τῷ πνεύματι καὶ ...
Revelation Lad's user avatar
3 votes
2 answers
36 views

What is the meaning of "you have a demon" and why did the audience claim that Jesus had one?

John 7:20 - The people answered and said, “You have a demon. Who is seeking to kill You?” This seems rather odd given the context. What is the meaning of "you have a demon"? Is it an ...
Jason_'s user avatar
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5 votes
3 answers
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Titus 1:2 and the Greek word αἰωνίων (aiōniōn)

I am having some trouble figuring this out, in Titus 1:2 the Greek word used for "eternal" in "eternal life" is: αἰωνίου (aiōniou) which means "perpetual" I think it can ...
Cork88's user avatar
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Is the Oath Formula "By the Life of Pharaoh" Attested Anywhere outside of Biblical Literature?

In Genesis 42:15-16, Joseph swears "by the life of Pharaoh." I have searched unsuccessfully for the occurrence of this oath formula elsewhere in the literature of the Ancient Near East. Can ...
Daniel Ockrin's user avatar
7 votes
9 answers
264 views

What does it mean to be a "new creation"?

In 2 Corinthians 5:17, Paul states that “if anyone is in Christ, he is a new creation; old things have passed away; behold, all things have become new.” How is this phrase understood? Are we to ...
Jason_'s user avatar
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2 answers
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Jewelry and adornment [closed]

I have been reading a lot of Church Fathers like Tertullian or Clement of Alexandria and they all condemn women adorning themselves in any way and wearing jewelry is strictly prohibited by them. It ...
user92067's user avatar
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Is Acts 21:8 indicating that Philip was (earlier) one of the seven or that he was (still) actively one of the seven, feeding widows?

On Paul's return from the third missionary journey he comes to Caesarea Maritima: 8 On the next day we departed and came to Caesarea, and we entered the house of Philip the evangelist, who was one of ...
Dan Moore's user avatar
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Does the Greek used in 1 Peter 3:7 properly translate as “weaker” and in what way might that be applied?

Authorised Version: Likewise, ye husbands, dwell with them according to knowledge, giving honour unto the wife, as unto the weaker vessel… New International Version: Husbands, in the same way be ...
Lesley's user avatar
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In John 16:13 τὸ πνεῦμα is neuter; why is ἐκεῖνος masculine?

ὅταν δὲ ἔλθῃ ἐκεῖνος, τὸ πνεῦμα τῆς ἀληθείας, ... (from John 16:13, NA28) The traditional trinitarian answer is because the Holy Spirit is a person himself, not a thing. Can it be answered any other ...
Perry Webb's user avatar
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7 answers
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What is the spiritual difference between hungering and thirsting? (Matthew 5:6)

Matthew 5:6 - Blessed are those who hunger and thirst for righteousness, For they shall be filled. There are many more cases of this: John 6:35 - And Jesus said to them, “I am the bread of life. He ...
Jason_'s user avatar
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Do we need to be translating the Hebrew form and meaning of the word hate in Romans 9:13?

The Romans 9:13 passage is derived from the Malachai 1:2-3 scripture where hated is hebrew not greek so should we look at scripture in the new testament that is from the old testament in a Hebrews ...
Richard Howe's user avatar
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What was the reason for not personifying God's spirit in NABRE's translation of John 14:17?

Some languages, such as Spanish or French have gendered nouns, and so have words corresponding to "he" and "she", but not to "it". For instance, "the fork" and &...
Ray Butterworth's user avatar
2 votes
3 answers
62 views

What is the significance of the word Οὕτως (Houtōs) ‘so’ in John 3:16?

John 3:16 - For God so loved the world that He gave His only begotten Son, that whoever believes in Him should not perish but have everlasting life. I am trying to understand the scope and expression ...
Jason_'s user avatar
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Codex Vaticanus initial text

Could anyone tell me why the first few textual (scripture-containing) pages in the Codex Vaticanus online copy are in cursive? As far as I know, the Codex is dated to the 4th century, at which time ...
Tahir's user avatar
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Are there any passages in the OT where the grammar is simplified to help children learn to read and write? (and speak!)

This is about both the Ancient Hebrew and the Septuagint, across the widest area and the longest timespan. I'm terribly underpowered in anything to do with history, but I know that archaeology ...
FelixLXX's user avatar
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-2 votes
2 answers
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Hebrews 11:10. Possible scribe error caused a missing detail? [closed]

Can anybody find another Bible verse that contains the exact order of words την τους as Hebrews 11:10 does? If this was a common grammar technique in Greek at the time it should be found in other ...
ReturnOfRoamer's user avatar
0 votes
1 answer
42 views

Phonetically, does Ἐλωῒ Ἐλωῒ in Mark 15:34 resemble יְהִ֣י אֹ֑ור in Genesis 1:3?

My spoken dialect is swiftly moving toward having only one vowel (which I'll have you know isn't "woof!" [smile]) So I may be at some disadvantage with Ancient Hebrew. Certainly, once the ...
FelixLXX's user avatar
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1 vote
1 answer
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I would like to know if a hypothetical translation of James 2:18 is possible within the confines of the Greek language and the context of the passage

First, I saw some answers here to someone’s question about translating James 2:18 (How should James 2:18 be translated?), and I wished to comment there, rather than starting a new question altogether—-...
Nathan Galeotti's user avatar
1 vote
4 answers
128 views

Do the Hebrew and Aramaic language have an equivalent word for κατακεῖσθαι? Mark 2:15-18

The context of Mark 2 is about reclining down to eat and about fasting. Jesus is the midst of it is translated as talking about evil, righteousness, illness and medical physicians. So, if there is not ...
ReturnOfRoamer's user avatar
2 votes
2 answers
74 views

What does the word "katastolé" mean in contrast to the words "enduma" or "himatismos"

You might know the scripture 1 Timothy 2:9 - "Likewise, I want the women to adorn themselves with respectable apparel, with modesty, and with self-control, not with braided hair or gold or ...
DOC's user avatar
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Is ἐπιούσιον the only neologism in the gospel? And is there any p/d list of neologisms in the NT? And the LXX?

(neologisms are only a subset of hapax-legomena but it seemed the best tag) Apologies if I've misDuckDuckGo'd this, or should find out for myself with a Lexicon and a biro. ========================= ...
FelixLXX's user avatar
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1 vote
0 answers
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Gospel of Thomas Log.13 - three words in Coptic or Greek or something else?

Referring to the (non-canonical/tertiary) Gospel of Thomas Log 13.6 (or 83.8):- He spoke three words to him. (Brill, 1959). https://www.gospel-thomas.net/keywords/Lnn_all.htm#L013 The word for words ...
FelixLXX's user avatar
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1 answer
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Is there legal metaphor in the Lord's Prayer (Matthew 6:11-13)? [closed]

I'd be grateful for some feedback on a subtext I sense in Matthew 6:11-13, at the end of the Lord's Prayer. My question is from a literary/linguistics perspective and isn't seeking help with "...
FelixLXX's user avatar
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1 vote
2 answers
47 views

Using "We" or "They" in 1 Thess 4:14

Is there any gramatical reason for using the word "We" instead of the word "They"? Why would the beliefs of the living be compared to the resurrection of the dead, in the same ...
brmicke's user avatar
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4 votes
2 answers
217 views

Does Acts quote a mistranslation of the Hebrew bible in support of a doctrine?

Acts 15 quotes Amos 9 in order to settle a debate about preaching the Christian gospel to non-Jews: I will rebuild the dwelling of David, which has fallen; from its ruins I will rebuild it, and I ...
Avi Avraham's user avatar
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2 votes
3 answers
76 views

What does Rev 17:10 "a short while" mean?

I understand that this passage can be interpreted many ways, but I am asking specifically for those who interpret the heads as kingdoms. If the 7th head is Roman, Caliphate, or another kingdom, how ...
StudiousMom's user avatar
4 votes
5 answers
101 views

If righteousness is once stated as a gift in Romans 5:17, is it sound to consider the appearance of the word as always a gift if not stated otherwise

My question relates to the treatment of the word “righteousness” in Romans 5:17, whereby it is called a “gift”, and whether one can always consider it as that, if it isn’t specified to be one’s own ...
Matt's user avatar
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5 answers
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Is the “If” in Romans 4:24 present in the original Greek. If not, why is that included in some translations?

Romans 4:24(KJV) reads: “But for us also, to whom it shall be imputed, if we believe on him that raised up Jesus our Lord from the dead;” The Young’s Literal Translation of this verse reads : ...
Matt's user avatar
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2 votes
1 answer
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Is the "you" in "you may be perfect and complete" (James 1:4) meant as a group or as an individual?

When editing this question I just realized that the OP understood the "you" in James 1:2-4 (ESV) Count it all joy, my brothers, when you meet trials of various kinds, for you know that the ...
GratefulDisciple's user avatar
0 votes
1 answer
57 views

Can anyone provide refutation to this claim with the correct greek pronunciation [closed]

I would like your help in refuting a Christian claim as this has been bugging me for a while now Is the epsilon truly more fitting of the first letter of the word "Allah" (as pronounced in ...
Tahir's user avatar
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1 vote
2 answers
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translating ethnos to gens in John 11:50

Given that the Greek ethnos typically mean ethnic groups of people, why did the Vulgate translate it to gens in this verse? If I am reading the verse correctly (this is a big assumption) should it say ...
Ted Brown's user avatar
2 votes
1 answer
148 views

Is The Lord God Almighty the Temple and the Lamb in Revelation 21:22?

I was looking at Revelation 21:22 - (KJV) And I saw no temple therein: for the Lord God Almighty and the Lamb are the temple of it. (NIV) I did not see a temple in the city, because the Lord God ...
Albert L.'s user avatar
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2 votes
1 answer
310 views

Why did the New Testament writers, when quoting the Old Testament, refrain from using the Tetragrammaton (YHWH)?

The New Testament writers often quote the Old Testament. When quoting the Old Testament passages that contain the Name (i.e., the Tetragrammaton), they use the substitution Greek word typically found ...
Chris M's user avatar
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3 votes
2 answers
41 views

Are “your hearts” poetically portrayed as musical instruments in Ephesians 5:19?

Paul states the following in Ephesians 5:18–19 (NKJV, emphasis added): And do not be drunk with wine, in which is dissipation; but be filled with the Spirit, speaking to one another in psalms and ...
The Editor's user avatar
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2 votes
3 answers
63 views

Ephesians 6:12, can palé mean to sway?

I've been listening to Pete Cabrera, Jr. specifically MASTERCLASS: The full guide to divine healing & training in the spirit # 5. He says that we are not to be swayed by the powers. Is that a ...
Virmundi's user avatar
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4 votes
3 answers
292 views

What is the correct translation of the ending of 2 Peter 3:17?

It seems the Greek word used in Peter is only used once in the New Testament for the ending of 2 Peter 3:17 - στηριγμός “Therefore, dear friends, since you have been forewarned, be on your guard so ...
Jesus Saves's user avatar
0 votes
0 answers
33 views

In Matthew 25:10, why does the Greek use the plural word for “γάμους” (wedding)? [duplicate]

In the Parable of the Ten Virgins, the Greek uses a plural word for “wedding” or “marriage.” Is there any reason why this is so?
user avatar
1 vote
2 answers
84 views

Is obeying this one law entirely sufficient for repentance?

Galatians 5:14 NRSV For the whole law is summed up in a single commandment, ‘You shall love your neighbour as yourself.’ It seems that this verse is translated the same way across every translation. ...
polcott's user avatar
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7 votes
3 answers
451 views

Is anything implied by the author using the (Greek) phrase translated "work with your hands" in 1 Thessalonians 4:11?

“Work with your hands” Does Paul mean anything more than "work" (as opposed to "idleness") when he uses the phrase "work with your (own) hands" in 1 Th 4:11 1 ...
mojo's user avatar
  • 777
4 votes
6 answers
303 views

Does God actually send delusions?

2 Thessalonians 2:11 KJV: And for this cause God shall send them strong delusion, that they should believe a lie: It seems that this verse is translated the same way across every translation. https://...
polcott's user avatar
  • 195
10 votes
2 answers
482 views

what is the difference between prayer (προσευχῇ) and prayer also translated as supplication (δέησις) in Philippians 4:6?

As I was reading Philippians 4:6 (ESV), I came across the phrase, “prayer and supplication” being curious I began studying what the word supplication meant and began going down a rabbit hole of the ...
Sophia's user avatar
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1 vote
1 answer
311 views

Word order of 1 Corinthians 1:24

I saw that the greek of the latter half of 1 Corinthians 1:24 is: "Χριστὸν Θεοῦ δύναμιν καὶ Θεοῦ σοφίαν." The direct word for word translation would be "Christ God power and God wisdom&...
User2280's user avatar
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3 votes
5 answers
194 views

Is it correct that the strong brother rather than the weak brother is the one condemned in Romans 14:23?

I first saw this interpretation from the following source where he talked about the greek work diakrino and its usages in the New Testament: David DeGraaf "Some Doubts About Doubt..." ...
Tyler's user avatar
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1 vote
1 answer
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πάντες (pantes) translated as many/most?

In Romans3:23 “for all have sinned and fallen short of the glory of God" the Greek word πάντες (pantes) is used and translated to all. Has the Greek word πάντες (pantes) (All in English) ever ...
Jon's user avatar
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5 votes
5 answers
89 views

What’s going on with ουρανος?

This is a messy question, and I’m not even sure how to articulate it well. Bear with me in this attempt to delineate something I don’t understand well. I am no Greek scholar, but have been dabbling ...
Philosophos's user avatar
8 votes
4 answers
4k views

Why is “selling a birthright (πρωτοτόκια)” so bad? -- Hebrews 12:16

The NASB20 (other translation are similar) has: that there be no sexually immoral or godless person like Esau, who sold his own birthright for a single meal. My interlinear rendering: ...
Mike Sangrey's user avatar
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9 votes
4 answers
483 views

In John 1:12, what is the grammatical significance of the tense of the four verbs in understanding the relationship between faith and salvation?

Texts: John 1:12 (YLT) But as many as did receive (ἔλαβον - Aorist Indicative Active) him to them he gave (ἔδωκεν -Aorist Ind. Act.) authority to become (γενέσθαι -Aorist Infinitive Middle) sons of ...
Sam's user avatar
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