Questions tagged [greek]

Koiné (from κοινή, "common") Greek was the form of post-classical Greek spoken and written in Hellenistic and Roman antiquity. It is the language of the Septuagint (LXX), Christian New Testament, and most early Christian theological writings.

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What does פִּיו mean in the modern Hebrew translation of διʼ αὐτοῦ in John 1:7?

What does פִּיו mean in the modern Hebrew translation of διʼ αὐτοῦ in John 1:7? The ha-Berit ha-ḥadashah translates ἵνα πάντες πιστεύσωσιν διʼ αὐτοῦ 1 as כְּדֵי שֶׁעַל–פִּיו יַאֲמִינוּ הַכֹּל . ...
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What is the literal translation of Proverbs 14:20?

φίλοι μισήσουσιν φίλους πτωχούς φίλοι δὲ πλουσίων πολλοί phíloi misḗsousin phílous ptōkhoús phíloi dè plousíōn polloí. people hate people poor people not rich many "The poor is disliked ...
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When should names (people and places) be translated versus transliterated?

When should names be translated or transliterated? For example, why do translations say "En-Gedi" instead "Spring of the Young Goat". The same could be said for "Adam" whose name literally means "Man"....
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What is the best understanding of the use of καί in the beginning verses of John's Prologue?

Many see John's Prologue arranged using a literary device1in which the first two verses are a single thought: In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. This ...
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What does Gen 4:7 mean in the Septuagint?

Most of the translations of Gen 4:7 read something like (LEB): If you do well will I not accept you? But if you do not do well, sin is crouching at the door. And its desire is for you, ...
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How should “gnorise” be translated in Romans 9:23?

In the N.K.J.V. "and that He might make known the riches of His glory on the vessels of mercy". In the E.S.V. "in order to make known the riches of his glory". As I understand it "gnorise" is a ...
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How should δὲ in Luke 24:44 be translated?

The Greek text of Luke 24:44 states: Εἶπεν δὲ πρὸς αὐτούς Οὗτοι οἱ λόγοι μου οὓς ἐλάλησα πρὸς ὑμᾶς ἔτι ὢν σὺν ὑμῖν, ὅτι δεῖ πληρωθῆναι πάντα τὰ γεγραμμένα ἐν τῷ νόμῳ Μωϋσέως καὶ τοῖς προφήταις ...
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The word, וּמִבַּלְעָדָיו, in the Hebrew translation of χωρὶς in John 1:3

Hoping I can ask about a modern Hebrew translation. I'm trying to understand the Hebrew word וּמִבַּלְעָדָיו [from ha-Berit ha-ḥadashah. (2000). (John 1:3). Israel: The Bible Society in Israel. ...
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A question about the mind of Christ in Corinthians and Philippians

For who hath known the mind of the Lord, that he may instruct him? But we have the mind of Christ. [1 Corinthians 2:16 KJV] Here, νοῦν, noun (mind) is accusative, masculine singular see Biblehub with ...
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How can we best interpret Matthew 24:5 in the Greek?

Full disclosure, I know very little Greek or Hebrew (apart from Strong's Concordance, etc.), but am a bit of a Bible nerd. I've added superscript letters in order to keep the person(s) clear in the ...
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What is the meaning of the Greek words “born of women” as they relate to John the Baptist and to Jesus Christ?

In Matthew 11:11 Jesus says: Among them that are born of women there hath not risen a greater than John the Baptist [KJV] I understand that the relevant Greek words here (and in Luke 7:28) are ‘...
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What is the meaning of the phrase “purge your conscience from dead works” in Hebrews 9:14?

What does "purge your conscience from dead works" mean in Hebrews 9:14 how much more shall the blood of Christ, who through the eternal Spirit offered himself without spot to God, purge your ...
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Can the definition of Word (logos) as used in John ever be divorced from the thought behind the Word?

Ancient Greek Lexicons appear to define two overarching categories of definition for λόγος (logos (word)) as in John's Gospel: In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the ...
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Does the Greek text allow the Pope to change the Lord’s prayer from “and lead us not into temptation” to “and do not let us fall into temptation?

This is Matthew 6:13 / Luke 11:4, the Lord’s prayer. I’m not sure exactly when the Pope came out with this but understand it might have been early June 2019. This previous related question -"Do ...
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Does Martin Smart’s Rule indicate that “Lord” and “God” have two referents at John 20:28?

In October 2000, "Smart's Rule," started as a parody of Sharp's Rule, was proposed on the B-GREEK mailing list by Martin Smart. The current paper is here. The rule states: In the proper native[a] ...
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Where can I find a .csv file of Strong's Greek Lexicon?

I'm looking for a csv or excel file that has at least the listing of every word in Strong's lexicon and it's corresponding Strong's number. Is anyone aware of such a resource?
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Why KJV translated “Χριστοῦ” as “God” in Ephesians 5:21?

KJV and NKJV, both versions translated "Χριστοῦ" as "God" in Ephesians 5:21. While many other translations translated it as "Christ". The Arabic version سميث/ڤانديك translated it as "الله", meaning "...
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In Mark 4:40, what is the accurate translation of “οὕτω”?

When I was looking Mark 4:40 I was little confused for the word "οὕτω" translation and meaning. For it was translated in many English translations as "so", "So" in English may means: Thus, like this. ...
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In Revelation 21:8, is “Fear” or “Cowardice” a Sin necessitates punishment?

A word aroused my attention when I was reading Revelation 21:8, this word is "δειλοῖς" which has the following translations in Arabic and English versions of the Bible: الخائفون. الجبناء. Fearful. ...
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What is the accurate translation of “οὗτος” in John 1:2?

In John 1:2, what is the accurate translation of "οὗτος"? I looked about 10 translations: Arabic and English translations. Translations were as follow: هذا. هو. This. He. The same. I don't ...
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James 1:8 - Is δίψυχος the ancient equivalent of bipolar mood disorder?

James 1:8 (ESV), he is a double-minded man, unstable in all his ways. Here "double-minded" is a translation of δίψυχος, a compound of δίς, meaning "twice" (from δύο, the number "2") and ψυχή, ...
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Is the Greek word Protoktistos used anywhere in the Bible?

Arguing against the teaching that Jesus is a created being, some point out that calling him the firstborn of all creation (Colossians 1:15)does not mean the first created. The trinitarian will often ...
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What are the differences and similarities in the meanings of “light” in 2 Corinthians 4:6 and “brightness” in Hebrews 1:3?

What are the differences and similarities in the meanings of light ( φωτισμός, οῦ, ὁ ) in 2 Corinthians 4:6 For God, who commanded the light to shine out of darkness, hath shined in our hearts, ...
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Since the Word received life in John 1:3-4 per the USB Greek text, can the prologue also support the Word was eternal?

The problem: The grammar of John 1:1-4, especially in our critical editions of the Greek text give substantial reason to view the Word as having received his very life in the beginning. However ...
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When Jesus said he lives because of the living Father, what do “because of” and “living Father” mean at John 6:57?

When Jesus said he lives because [1] of the living Father what do because(δια) and living Father mean at John 6:57? 57 As the living Father (ὁ ζῶν πατὴρ) sent me, and I live because of the Father (...
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What does the "beginning of creation” at Rev 3:14 mean using a Biblical Hermeneutic?

In 1979 the 2nd edition Bauer-Arndt-Gingrich-Danker Greek lexicon (BAGD) said of “the beginning of creation” used of Christ at Rev 3:14 that “the mng. beginning=‘first created’ is linguistically ...
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Does Paul's use of Greek represent the Son as Creator or Maker?

When the role of the Son is spoken of by Paul in Creation it is always as the intermediate agent (δια) or instrument (εν) used by God and not as source as in Creator Ex Nihilo. BDAG on the agency of ...
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Did Jesus speak pidgin or ungrammatically at John 8:58?

Every native speaker can intuitively tell that "Before Abraham was born, I am" is not grammatical English. To take "I am" as a title of God is equivalent to "Before Abraham was born, Fred." That's ...
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Is the article in 2 Peter 1:2 (του θεου) anaphoric to θεός in 1:1?

Anaphora (Greek, ‘to bring back, to bring up’) is a word or phrase which depends upon another for identification. For example, “Pronouns are anaphors.” When one says, “They refer back to a noun,” ...
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In 2 Cor. 12:4 does ἄρρητα and οὐκ ἐξὸν refer to what was not permitted to say or was it what was impossible to put into words?

In 2 Cor. 12:4 does ἄρρητα and οὐκ ἐξὸν refer to what Paul was not permitted but capable of saying or was it what was impossible for Paul to put into words? Looking at the lexicons both meanings are ...
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Can “proginosko” plausibly mean “know in former times”?

The Greek dictionaries I've seen so far consistently give "proginosko" as having the basic meaning "know in advance" or "get to know in advance"; here, the prefix "pro-" has the sense "beforehand", i....
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Jehovah in the New Testament

Among the reasons the Watchtower society gives for inserting the name Jehovah in the New Testament is the following: "In Greek, is the definite article missing from before Kyʹri·os (Lord), where it ...
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Did Jesus ask once or repeatedly? Mark 5:8

The text translated says something to the effect “For he was saying to him, "Come out of the man, you unclean spirit!"” ‭‭Mark‬ ‭5:8‬ ‭ Which would cause one to assume Jesus said it once only ...
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Luke 8:36 δαιμονισθεις demonized or demon-possessed?

What is the correct way and not necessarily the most popular way to translate the Greek δαιμονισθεις (daimonizomai), to be “demonized” or demon-possessed? “And those who had seen it told them how ...
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Jesus Christ was concealed in Old Testament why? [closed]

Jesus in the Old Testament was concealed for a reason, but then the New Testament makes him known. Please explain to me, with scriptural backing, why GOD could only bring forth the manifested Christ ...
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Psalm 96 (95) Why does the LXX translate אלילים as δαιμόνια?

Psalm 96 (95) v. 5 (Westminister Leningrad Codex) כִּ֤י ׀ כָּל־אֱלֹהֵ֣י הָעַמִּ֣ים אֱלִילִ֑ים וַֽ֝יהוָ֗ה שָׁמַ֥יִם עָשָֽׂה׃ (LXX) ὅτι πάντες οἱ θεοὶ τῶν ἐθνῶν δαιμόνια, ὁ δὲ κύριος τοὺς ...
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Rom 8:31 ?..Who can be against us? Is this a valid grammatical adjustment?

Rom 8:31 (NKJV)  What then shall we say to these things? If God is for us, who can be against us? Does the Greek text allow for this translation? What then shall we say to these things if God is for ...
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Is the wedding feast in the Matthew 22:2-14 parable remarkable because of its size?

The king made a wedding feast for his son; the food list is headed by "oxen," Greek "ταῦροί," which I believe is the plural form. Thus, more than one ox? (there were other fattened livestock, but I ...
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In Eph. 6:16 should τὰ βέλη be darts or arrows?

This is more of an English usage question than Greek, but even modern translations are split on this. In Eph. 6:16 should τὰ βέλη be darts or arrows? Development of weaponry (using modern English) ...
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Will Jesus Baptize us with the Holy Spirit or with holy wind in Mk 1:8, Mtt 3:11, Lk 3:16, and Jn 1:33?

In Mark 1:8, Matthew 3:11, Luke 3:16, and John 1:33, John the Baptist declares that Jesus will baptize people in the Holy Spirit. For example, Matthew 3:11 says, “I indeed baptize you with water ...
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Could Matthew 28:18-19 be translated in the Koine Greek to be an exhortation and not a commandment as some may think?

"Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit,” Could this mean, ”while you are going out and about or while you are on ...
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Is there a Greek or Aramaic word for “rope” that is similar to the word for “camel?”

I'm looking at Matthew 19 (New American Standard Bible), specifically at the interaction Jesus had with the young man who wanted to obtain eternal life (v. 16ff). In verse 24, Jesus tells the ...
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“Do not lead us into temptation” is a bad translation?

In a sermon by Randy Pope, he mentions that "do not lead us into temptation" is a "horrible" and "misleading" translation of Matthew 6:13 (around the 11:40 mark). καὶ μὴ εἰσενέγκῃς ἡμᾶς εἰς ...
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In the Shema, how should we understand “with all your strength” when the Hebrew word מְאֹ֑ד is rarely used this way?

In Deuteronomy 6:5, the Hebrew text reads "and with all your might"(ESV). Most English translations take this as "strength" or "might." The LXX uses a common word for power/strength/might and Mark's ...
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Should οἰκοδομέω be interpreted literally or metaphorically?

οἰκοδομέω (oikodomeō), with the lexical entry STRONG NT 3618, is the Greek verb for "edify." In the gospels it often has the normal meaning of building a physical structure. But in Acts and the rest ...
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Doing good and doing evil in John 5:29

John 5:29 (Interlinear) 29 καὶ (and) ἐκπορεύσονται (will come forth) — οἱ (those) τὰ (-) ἀγαθὰ (good) ποιήσαντες (having done), εἰς (to) ἀνάστασιν (the resurrection) ζωῆς (of life); οἱ (-) ‹δὲ› (...
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In the spirit or by the spirit

Galatians 5:25 AKJV If we live in the Spirit, let us also walk in the Spirit. ASV If we live by the Spirit, by the Spirit let us also walk. If we follow the Greek, which of them is more ...
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How does the grammar influence the meaning in «ἡ κατὰ θεὸν λύπη» and «ἡ τοῦ κόσμου λύπη» in 2 Corinthians 7:10?

The Greek text of 2 Corinthians 7:10 according to the Nestle-Aland 28th ed. states, Ιʹ ἡ γὰρ κατὰ θεὸν λύπη μετάνοιαν εἰς σωτηρίαν ἀμεταμέλητον ἐργάζεται· ἡ δὲ τοῦ κόσμου λύπη θάνατον κατεργάζεται. ...
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Why has μετανοήσατε been translated as “repent” in Acts 2:38?

So far as I can tell, this Greek word means something like a change of mind, or a change of heart. Then the Vulgate says "pœnitentiam agite" which seems to mean do penance, something like a punitive ...
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Should ἡ ἀγάπη τοῦ θεοῦ (“the love of God”) in 1 John 3:17 be interpreted as a subjective or objective genitive?

I see that different translations translate the Greek phrase ἡ ἀγάπη τοῦ θεοῦ (“the love of God”) as either “God’s love” or “love of God.” There seems to be a big difference between the two. It seems ...

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