Questions tagged [greek]
Koiné (from κοινή, "common") Greek was the form of post-classical Greek spoken and written in Hellenistic and Roman antiquity. It is the language of the Septuagint (LXX), Christian New Testament, and most early Christian theological writings.
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James 1:8 - Is δίψυχος the ancient equivalent of bipolar mood disorder?
James 1:8 (ESV),
he is a double-minded man, unstable in all his ways.
Here "double-minded" is a translation of δίψυχος, a compound of δίς, meaning "twice" (from δύο, the number "2") and ψυχή, ...
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Can “God” in John refer anywhere to a Godhead, or is this a foreign concept to John? (Cp. John 17:3)
Note: See addendum below for a treatment of the word "only."
I am no longer replying directly to comments to this question.
Note that this question is entirely based on grammar, syntax and lexical ...
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Can the term “one God” in Paul apply to anyone but the Father? (Eph 4:6)
Paul uses the term “one God” three times. In two of them he explicitly identifies the Father as the one God [1] and in one the Father can be identified contextually. [2,3]. There are no OT or NT ...
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Since Dan Wallace shows that Jewish Literature personified “winds” more than the NT does Holy Spirit, does grieving it prove personhood at Eph 4:30?
Many see personal terms used of the Holy Spirit as proof it is a person, such as:
Eph 4:30 “And grieve not the Holy Spirit of God, in whom ye were sealed unto the day of redemption.” (ASV)
Greek ...
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Is the Greek word Protoktistos used anywhere in the Bible?
Arguing against the teaching that Jesus is a created being, some point out that calling him the firstborn of all creation (Colossians 1:15)does not mean the first created.
The trinitarian will often ...
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Do Ps 89:2 and Pr 8:25 in the LXX dispel the notion that creation and being begotten are substantially different?
At Psalms 89:2 in the LXX it is said that the mountains were born. (πρὸ τοῦ ὄρη γενηθῆναι)
At Pr 8:22 in the LXX the speaker is created but in verse 25 he is begotten with γεννά με.
The Complete ...
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What are the differences and similarities in the meanings of “light” in 2 Corinthians 4:6 and “brightness” in Hebrews 1:3?
What are the differences and similarities in the meanings of light ( φωτισμός, οῦ, ὁ ) in
2 Corinthians 4:6 For God, who commanded the light to shine out of
darkness, hath shined in our hearts, ...
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Does John 1:4+5:26 support whether or not the Word received life from God as BDAG suggests?
https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=John+1%3A3-4&version=NRSV
John 1:3-4 New Revised Standard Version (NRSV)
3 All things came into being through him, and without him not one thing came ...
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When Jesus said he lives because of the living Father, what do “because of” and “living Father” mean at John 6:57?
When Jesus said he lives because [1] of the living Father what do because(δια) and living Father mean at John 6:57?
57 As the living Father (ὁ ζῶν πατὴρ) sent me, and I live because of the Father (...
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How does the meaning of Mark 10:18 confirm the Shema as per BDAG? [closed]
Bauer-Danker-Arndt-Gingrich Greek lexicon cites Mark 10:18 to show that Jesus did not equate himself with the Lord God the Father of the Shema. [1]
So, How does the meaning of Mark 10:18 confirm the ...
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Is there ANY linguistic support that the phrase “beginning of creation” at Rev 3:14 means Christ is the first-cause using a Biblical Hermeneutic?
In 1979 the 2nd edition Bauer-Arndt-Gingrich-Danker Greek lexicon (BAGD) said of “the beginning of creation” used of Christ at Rev 3:14 that “the mng. beginning=‘first created’ is linguistically ...
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Does Paul's use of Greek represent the Son as Creator or Maker?
When the role of the Son is spoken of by Paul in Creation it is always as the intermediate agent (δια) or instrument (εν) used by God and not as source as in Creator Ex Nihilo.
BDAG on the agency of ...
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Did Jesus speak pidgin or ungrammatically at John 8:58?
This question is entirely grammatical. Please don't insert theology into answers or comments.
Every native speaker can intuitively tell that "Before Abraham was born, I am" is not grammatical ...
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Is the article in 2 Peter 1:2 (του θεου) anaphoric to θεός in 1:1?
Anaphora (Greek, ‘to bring back, to bring up’) is a word or phrase which depends upon another for identification.
For example, “Pronouns are anaphors.” When one says, “They refer back to a noun,” ...
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In 2 Cor. 12:4 does ἄρρητα and οὐκ ἐξὸν refer to what was not permitted to say or was it what was impossible to put into words?
In 2 Cor. 12:4 does ἄρρητα and οὐκ ἐξὸν refer to what Paul was not permitted but capable of saying or was it what was impossible for Paul to put into words?
Looking at the lexicons both meanings are ...
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Can “proginosko” plausibly mean “know in former times”?
The Greek dictionaries I've seen so far consistently give "proginosko" as having the basic meaning "know in advance" or "get to know in advance"; here, the prefix "pro-" has the sense "beforehand", i....
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Jehovah in the New Testament
Among the reasons the Watchtower society gives for inserting the name Jehovah in the New Testament is the following:
"In Greek, is the definite article missing from before Kyʹri·os (Lord), where it ...
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Did Jesus ask once or repeatedly? Mark 5:8
The text translated says something to the effect
“For he was saying to him, "Come out of the man, you unclean spirit!"”
Mark 5:8
Which would cause one to assume Jesus said it once only
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Luke 8:36 δαιμονισθεις demonized or demon-possessed?
What is the correct way and not necessarily the most popular way to translate the Greek δαιμονισθεις (daimonizomai), to be “demonized” or demon-possessed?
“And those who had seen it told them how ...
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Jesus Christ was concealed in Old Testament why? [closed]
Jesus in the Old Testament was concealed for a reason, but then the New Testament makes him known.
Please explain to me, with scriptural backing, why GOD could only bring forth the manifested Christ ...
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Psalm 96 (95) Why does the LXX translate אלילים as δαιμόνια?
Psalm 96 (95) v. 5
(Westminister Leningrad Codex) כִּ֤י ׀ כָּל־אֱלֹהֵ֣י הָעַמִּ֣ים אֱלִילִ֑ים וַֽ֝יהוָ֗ה שָׁמַ֥יִם עָשָֽׂה׃
(LXX) ὅτι πάντες οἱ θεοὶ τῶν ἐθνῶν δαιμόνια, ὁ δὲ κύριος τοὺς ...
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Rom 8:31 ?..Who can be against us? Is this a valid grammatical adjustment?
Rom 8:31 (NKJV) What then shall we say to these things? If God is for us, who can be against us?
Does the Greek text allow for this translation?
What then shall we say to these things if God is for ...
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Is the wedding feast in the Matthew 22:2-14 parable remarkable because of its size?
The king made a wedding feast for his son; the food list is headed by "oxen," Greek "ταῦροί," which I believe is the plural form. Thus, more than one ox? (there were other fattened livestock, but I ...
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In Eph. 6:16 should τὰ βέλη be darts or arrows?
This is more of an English usage question than Greek, but even modern translations are split on this. In Eph. 6:16 should τὰ βέλη be darts or arrows? Development of weaponry (using modern English) ...
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Will Jesus Baptize us with the Holy Spirit or with holy wind in Mk 1:8, Mtt 3:11, Lk 3:16, and Jn 1:33?
In Mark 1:8, Matthew 3:11, Luke 3:16, and John 1:33, John the Baptist declares that Jesus will baptize people in the Holy Spirit.
For example, Matthew 3:11 says,
“I indeed baptize you with water ...
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Could Matthew 28:18-19 be translated in the Koine Greek to be an exhortation and not a commandment as some may think?
"Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit,”
Could this mean, ”while you are going out and about or while you are on ...
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Is there a Greek or Aramaic word for “rope” that is similar to the word for “camel?”
I'm looking at Matthew 19 (New American Standard Bible), specifically at the interaction Jesus had with the young man who wanted to obtain eternal life (v. 16ff).
In verse 24, Jesus tells the ...
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“Do not lead us into temptation” is a bad translation?
In a sermon by Randy Pope, he mentions that "do not lead us into temptation" is a "horrible" and "misleading" translation of Matthew 6:13 (around the 11:40 mark).
καὶ μὴ εἰσενέγκῃς ἡμᾶς εἰς ...
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In the Shema, how should we understand “with all your strength” when the Hebrew word מְאֹ֑ד is rarely used this way?
In Deuteronomy 6:5, the Hebrew text reads "and with all your might"(ESV). Most English translations take this as "strength" or "might." The LXX uses a common word for power/strength/might and Mark's ...
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Should οἰκοδομέω be interpreted literally or metaphorically?
οἰκοδομέω (oikodomeō), with the lexical entry STRONG NT 3618, is the Greek verb for "edify." In the gospels it often has the normal meaning of building a physical structure.
But in Acts and the rest ...
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Doing good and doing evil in John 5:29
John 5:29 (Interlinear)
29 καὶ (and) ἐκπορεύσονται (will come forth) — οἱ (those) τὰ (-) ἀγαθὰ (good) ποιήσαντες (having done), εἰς (to) ἀνάστασιν (the resurrection) ζωῆς (of life); οἱ (-) ‹δὲ› (...
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In the spirit or by the spirit
Galatians 5:25
AKJV If we live in the Spirit, let us also walk in the Spirit.
ASV If we live by the Spirit, by the Spirit let us also walk.
If we follow the Greek, which of them is more ...
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How does the grammar influence the meaning in «ἡ κατὰ θεὸν λύπη» and «ἡ τοῦ κόσμου λύπη» in 2 Corinthians 7:10?
The Greek text of 2 Corinthians 7:10 according to the Nestle-Aland 28th ed. states,
Ιʹ ἡ γὰρ κατὰ θεὸν λύπη μετάνοιαν εἰς σωτηρίαν ἀμεταμέλητον ἐργάζεται· ἡ δὲ τοῦ κόσμου λύπη θάνατον κατεργάζεται. ...
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Why has μετανοήσατε been translated as “repent” in Acts 2:38?
So far as I can tell, this Greek word means something like a change of mind, or a change of heart.
Then the Vulgate says "pœnitentiam agite" which seems to mean do penance, something like a punitive ...
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Should ἡ ἀγάπη τοῦ θεοῦ (“the love of God”) in 1 John 3:17 be interpreted as a subjective or objective genitive?
I see that different translations translate the Greek phrase ἡ ἀγάπη τοῦ θεοῦ (“the love of God”) as either “God’s love” or “love of God.” There seems to be a big difference between the two. It seems ...
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Imperfect Indicative Active in John 1:1-4
John 1:1 (ESV)
1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2 He was in the beginning with God. 3 All things were made through him, and without him was not any ...
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What is the difference in meaning between “fellowship” in 1 Corinthians 1:9 & “communion” in 2 Corinthians 13:14?
What is the difference in meaning between “fellowship” in 1 Corinthians 1:9 & “communion” in 2 Corinthians 13:14?
1 Corinthians 1:9
9 God is faithful, by whom ye were called unto the ...
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Origin of Pleonastic Phrasology in the Bible
I noticed a phraseology in the King James Version of the bible that is strange to a modern English speaker. It involves two forms of the same word in close proximity in a sentence. Before posting this ...
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What is the “good conscience” mentioned in 1 Timothy 1:5,19
What is the "good conscience" mentioned in 1 Timothy 1:5,19 ?
1 Timothy 1:5 Now the end of the commandment is charity out of a pure
heart, and of a good conscience, and of faith unfeigned:
1 ...
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What is the proper translation of the verb “pisteuo” in 1 Thessalonians 4:14?
In 1 Thes. 4:14, why is the word pisteuo translated as “we believe?” Could it be translated as “they believe,” where “they” refers to those who sleep?
1Th 4:14 For if we believe that Jesus ...
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Does σπέρματος (descendants/seed) refer to Abraham's direct descendants or the nations in Hebrews 2:16?
Hebrews 2:16-18 New International Version (NIV)
16 For surely it is not angels he helps, but Abraham’s descendants
16 Οὐ γὰρ δή‿ που ἀγγέλων ἐπιλαμβάνεται ἀλλὰ σπέρματος Ἀβραὰμ ἐπιλαμβάνεται
...
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What is the power of Christ (2 Cor 12:9)
“And he said unto me, My grace is sufficient for thee: for my strength is made perfect in weakness. Most gladly therefore will I rather glory in my infirmities, that the power of Christ may rest upon ...
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Faulty “covenant” or “ministry” in Hebrews 8:7?
Hebrews 8:7 refers to something with 'fault', and the referent is almost invariably indicated to be the first 'covenant' in English translations.
Some of the more literal translations miss the word ...
asked Sep 6 '19 at 19:27
Jack says try topanswers.xyz
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What are the “these things” referred to in 1 Timothy 4:15?
What are the "these things" referred to in
1 Timothy 4:15 Meditate upon these things; give thyself wholly to
them; that thy profiting may appear to all.
?
Is this the same word used in
...
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What is the difference between “knowledge” in Ephesians 3:19 & “wisdom ” in 1 Corinthians 1:30?
What is the difference between "knowledge" in
Ephesians 3:19 and to know the love of Christ, which passeth
knowledge, that ye might be filled with all the fulness of God. ( AKJV
)
& "...
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Is 'begun' a better translation than 'made' in John 1:3?
παντα δι αυτου εγενετο και χωρις αυτου εγενετο ουδε εν ο γεγονεν [TR] John1:3
All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made. [KJV]
All things through him ...
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In Philemon 11, is Paul making a pun from Onesimus' name?
Given the name Onesimus means "profitable or useful" and Paul writes in vrs 11:
[Onesimus,] who once was unprofitable to thee, but now is profitable to thee and to me:
Is Paul making a pun with ...
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How were Paleo-Hebrew words in the Greek Septuagint fragments treated?
In certain old fragments of the Greek Septuagint the name of YHWH alone is written in paleo-Hebrew letters.
I’m a novice at Greek, but isn’t it necessary for all proper nouns and names to be written ...
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What was Jesus’ πατρίδι (hometown/homeland) in John 4:44?
What was Jesus’ πατρίδι (hometown/homeland) in John 4:44?
I had always assumed that this referred to Nazareth and Galilee, where Jesus grew up. However, Eli Lizorkin-Eyzenberg in The Jewish ...
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In Galatians 2:11 what does Paul mean when he says that Peter “stood condemned”?
[Gal 2:11 NASB] (11) But when Cephas came to Antioch, I opposed him to his face, because he stood condemned.
[Gal 2:11 MGNT] (11) ὅτε δὲ ἦλθεν Κηφᾶς εἰς Ἀντιόχειαν κατὰ πρόσωπον αὐτῷ ...
