Questions tagged [greek]
Koiné (from κοινή, "common") Greek was the form of post-classical Greek spoken and written in Hellenistic and Roman antiquity. It is the language of the Septuagint (LXX), Christian New Testament, and most early Christian theological writings.
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Double negative in John 11:26
The double negative in the Greek text of John 11:26 is translated to a negative in English, which opposes the previous verse. It seems to me that it should be translated to something like, "And ...
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Does Romans 13:1-17 teach that it is a sin to disobey any of the laws of the land in which someone is living?
What does the expression “let every one be subject...) from Romans 13:1 mean? Is it used interchangeable with the Law of God?
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In Matthew 5:3 what kind of dative is “τῷ πνεύματι”?
Disclaimer: I have no formal education in Koine.
NASB/GNT Matthew 5:
3 “Blessed are the poor in spirit, for the kingdom of heaven belongs
to them.
3 Μακάριοι οἱ πτωχοὶ τῷ πνεύματι, ὅτι ...
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Why do the NASB translators of 1 Cor. 14:1 add the word “earnestly” before “desire spiritual gifts”?
1 Cor. 14:1 in the NASB reads:
"Pursue love, and earnestly desire the spiritual gifts, especially that you may prophesy."
The Greek word used here for "desire" is "Διώκετε," a present - active - ...
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Genesis 2:24 - is the joining / clinging between man and wife in the active or passive tense?
Some translations of Genesis 2:24 (eg NKJV) say:
Therefore a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and they shall become one flesh.
While others (eg KJV) use the active ...
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Is Jesus’ response to worship in John 9:38 only consistent with him being God?
ὁ δὲ ἔφη· πιστεύω, κύριε· καὶ προσεκύνησεν αὐτῷ.(John 9:38, NA27)
He said, “Lord, I believe,” and he worshiped him. (John 9:38, ESV).
The apostle Peter in Acts (10:26-27), similar incident with ...
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Can Luke's use of κράτιστε be taken as his way of acknowledging someone who held the office of High Priest?
1 Inasmuch as many have undertaken to compile an account of the things accomplished among us, 2 just as they were handed down to us by those who from the beginning were eyewitnesses and servants of ...
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In Romans 12:3 what is the μέτρον that God has allotted to each believer and how is one to use it to “think soberly” about one's gift?
Disclaimer: I have no formal education in Greek.
Setup (If you are familiar with Romans 12 you can skip to "The question" below)
Throughout the Roman empire (and in all the world) both Jews and ...
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31 views
How does “hermeneutics SE” handle prophecy questions? Appropriate forum?
I asked a couple of questions on the Christianity SE site in the past. I quickly learned that questions asked were often put on hold and/or migrated to meta site by SE members for being considered by ...
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Can Romans 1:26-27 'unnatural use' be understood as temple prostitution? Also, is lesbianism condemned here?
NOTE 1: I see people showing me their resoning that homosexuality deserves condemnation, I know that and fully endorse, the question is about meaning of these verses, not judgement of homosexuals, as ...
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Does the article get dropped off when translating the latter part of psalm 77:3 [LXX]?
A simple question: Does οἱ not get translated?
Psalm 77:3 in Rahlfs' LXX: "καὶ οἱ πατέρες ἡμῶν διηγήσαντο ἡμῖν,"
Literal, wooden translation: "and ___ fathers our told us,"
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In Luke 21:28 what does “redemption” (ἀπολύτρωσις) mean and to what does it refer?
ESV Luke 21:28 Now when these things begin to take place, straighten
up and raise your heads, because your redemption (ἀπολύτρωσις) is
drawing near.”
What was drawing near?
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In Luke 2:38 what does “redemption” (λύτρωσις) mean and to what does it refer?
NIV Luke 2:38 Coming up to them at that very moment, she gave thanks
to God and spoke about the child to all who were looking forward to
the redemption of Jerusalem.
What were they expecting ...
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In 1 John 2:3, is εν τούτῳ (“by this”) an instrumental dative or locative dative?
Now by this we know that we know Him, if we keep His commandments. - 1 John 2:3 (NKJV)
I am new to Greek and I am not sure how to parse exactly the word this (Gk τούτῳ) whether it is locative dative ...
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What is the most accurate way to translate “ἐκ” in 1 Cor 11:28?
I have made an effort to translate the following text.
1Cor 11:28 Δοκιμαζέτω(let - prove or examine) δὲ(but) ἄνθρωπος(a
man) ἑαυτόν(himself), καὶ(and) οὕτως(in-this-way) ἐκ(out) τοῦ(of
...
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Why did St. John change from αἰτεῖν to ἐρωτᾷν in his appeal? (1 John 5:14-16)
14 And this is the confidence that we have toward him, that if we ask anything according to his will he hears us. 15 And if we know that he hears us in whatever we ask, we know that we have the ...
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In 1 Timothy 3:15 what is the function of a “στύλος καὶ ἑδραίωμα τῆς ἀληθείας”?
NIV 1 Timothy 3:15 if I am delayed, you will know how people ought to
conduct themselves in God's household, which is the church of the
living God, the pillar and foundation of the truth.
WH ...
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52 views
In Luke 1:55, what is Mary saying is forever (εἰς τὸν αἰῶνα)?
In Luke 1:55, the end of Mary's speech, she finishes with:
εἰς τὸν αἰῶνα
In this context:
Lu 1:54,5 ASV 54 He hath given help to Israel his servant, That he might remember mercy 55 (As he spake ...
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In 1 Timothy 3:6 is it a “new convert” or a “new arrival”?
NIV 1 Timothy 3:
1Here is a trustworthy saying: Whoever aspires to be an overseer
desires a noble task. 2Now the overseer is to be above reproach,
faithful to his wife, temperate, self-...
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In Romans 1:11 why does Paul seem to fudge about his agenda by saying “some spiritual gift”?
NIV Romans 1:
11I long to see you so that I may impart to you some spiritual gift
to make you strong— 12that is, that you and I may be mutually
encouraged by each other’s faith.
It sounds ...
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In Mat.11:12 “…the kindom of heaven suffereth violence…” what does “suffereth” mean?
In Mat.11:12
... the kingdom of heaven suffereth violence ... (KJV)
What was meant by suffereth in current day use? Please.
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Can εἰ μή (ei me) be translated 'such as' instead of 'except' in Matthew 19:9?
And I say to you: whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another, commits adultery.
We know, that adultery is not the only cause to divorce (Deuteronomy 24:1-4 and ...
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Paul was not sent to baptize?
1 Corinthians 1:17 King James Bible For Christ sent me not to baptize,
but to preach the gospel: not with wisdom of words, lest the cross of
Christ should be made of none effect.
In the Thayer's ...
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3answers
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In Acts 3:15 is Jesus called the “Author” or the “Prince” of life?
Acts 3:15 KJV/SBLGNT
15 And killed the Prince of life, whom God hath raised from the dead; whereof we are witnesses.
The Greek word archegos can be either 'prince' or 'author' according to ...
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2answers
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What is the meaning of “course of nature” (wheel of birth) in James 3:6 (KJV)?
6 And the tongue is a fire, a world of iniquity: so is the tongue
among our members, that it defileth the whole body, and setteth on
fire the course of nature; and it is set on fire of hell.- KJV
...
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Why did Jesus say to call someone a fool puts you in danger of hell?
But I say unto you, That whosoever is angry with his brother without a cause shall be in danger of the judgment: and whosoever shall say to his brother, Raca, shall be in danger of the council: but ...
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Is it significant that Zacchaeus who wrongfully accused(συκοφαντέω) others climbed a sycamore tree(συκομορέα)?
Vines cites συκοφαντέω to mean showing the fig or fig-shower, meaning someone who accused another of illegaly exporting figs. And the sycamore that Zacchaeus climbed is of the fig family.
It it a ...
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Is there a grammatical necessity for the feminine κοινωνία and masculine κοινωνός in First Corinthians?
κοινωνία a feminine noun is from κοινωνός a masculine noun. In the first letter to the Corinthians, Paul uses both words twice:
κοινωνία
God is faithful, by whom you were called into the ...
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In Revelation 3:20, is Jesus offering to have individual suppers or one collective meal?
Jesus makes this offer to the Laodiceans:
Behold— I stand at the door. And I am knocking. If anyone hears My voice and opens the door, I also will come-in to him. And I will have-dinner with him, ...
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How should Luke 2:2 be translated?
Luke 2:2 in the King James Version says,
(And this taxing was first made when Cyrenius was governor of Syria.)
However, the original Greek text says,
αὕτη ἡ ἀπογραφὴ πρώτη ἐγένετο ἡγεμονεύοντος ...
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In Mark 12:35, who is teaching in the temple?
In Mark 12:35-37 Jesus poses a question to a crowd, concerning the title that the scribes at Jerusalem (Gk. grammateiswhich could also mean scholars) had for the Anointed One, that being 'the son of ...
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What is the force of the optative ἔχοι in Acts 17:11?
In the Greek, Acts 17:11 reads:
οὗτοι δὲ ἦσαν εὐγενέστεροι τῶν ἐν Θεσσαλονίκῃ, οἵτινες ἐδέξαντο τὸν
λόγον μετὰ πάσης προθυμίας, τὸ καθ’ ἡμέραν ἀνακρίνοντες τὰς γραφὰς εἰ
ἔχοι ταῦτα οὕτως.
The ...
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What Does the Last Word in Luke 21:32 Mean with the Aorist Tense?
http://biblehub.com/interlinear/luke/21-32.htm I was having an argument with my friend about this verse and he is saying the aorist tense in Greek means that the last word in this verse does not ...
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In 1 Corinthians 7:11-15 does Paul consider “separation” an alternative to divorce?
Does Paul write in 1 Corinthians 7:11-15 about divorce OR separation? The original (Greek) text seems to be here quite clear, but church' interpretation still doesn't see difference:
KJV 1Co 7:11 ...
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Difference between οἴδασιν in John 15:21 and γνόντες in Romans 1:21
I apologise if this is not best place to ask the question, please redirect me if need be.
I have quoted John 15:21 and Romans 1:21 from the ESV.
But all these things they will do to you on account ...
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Is ἱεράτευμα (hierateuma) intrinsically male?
In 1 Peter 2:5 and 2:9 we find the word ἱεράτευμα (hierateuma), translated "priesthood," which Strong's Concordance defines as "the act or office of priesthood." The word's root appears to be ἱερεύς (...
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Is 1 Cor. 6:11 singular or plural?
I don't know Greek at all.
1 Cor. 6:11 says this in the SBL Greek New Testament: 11 καὶ ταῦτά τινες ἦτε· ἀλλὰ ἀπελούσασθε, ἀλλὰ ἡγιάσθητε, ἀλλὰ ἐδικαιώθητε ἐν τῷ ὀνόματι τοῦ κυρίου Ἰησοῦ καὶ ἐν τῷ ...
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Is translating οὕτως in John 3:16 as “so much” valid?
Is translating οὕτως (the adverbial form of the word meaning "this") in John 3:16 as "so much" valid, or is this based on a misreading of the KJV? In the KJV, it is translated "so," ""For God so ...
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3answers
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What does “as” mean in Matthew 6:10?
In Mat 6:10 "as" could be "because", alternatively it could be "in the same way". Your will be done on earth because it is done in heaven, or, your will be done in the same way/as it is in heaven? ...
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In Romans 1:24 what does Paul mean by παρέδωκεν (“gave them over”)?
NIV Romans 1:24 Therefore God gave them over in the sinful desires
of their hearts to sexual impurity for the degrading of their bodies
with one another.
What, in this context does παρέδωκεν ("...
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How do you translate οἱ καθ’ ἕνα? (Ephesians 5:33)
I'm having some problems understanding and translating Ephesians 5:33.
33 πλὴν καὶ ὑμεῖς οἱ καθ’ ἕνα, ἕκαστος τὴν ἑαυτοῦ γυναῖκα οὕτως ἀγαπάτω ὡς ἑαυτόν, ἡ δὲ γυνὴ ἵνα φοβῆται τὸν ἄνδρα.
33 ...
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What does “ἐν ῥήματι” mean in Ephesians 5:26?
I'm trying to understand Ephesians 5:25-6 and here is my rough translation below.
25 Οἱ ἄνδρες, ἀγαπᾶτε τὰς γυναῖκας, καθὼς καὶ ὁ Χριστὸς ἠγάπησεν τὴν
ἐκκλησίαν καὶ ἑαυτὸν παρέδωκεν ὑπὲρ αὐτῆς,
...
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Does απολελυμενον refer to release from prison in Hebrews 13:23?
Bible in Basic English
13:23 Our brother Timothy has been let out of prison; and if he comes here in a short time, he and I will come to you together.
American Standard Version
13:23 Know ye ...
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Does μετανοίας(repentance) refer to Esau or Isaac in Hebrews 12:17?
Westcott and Hort / [NA27 variants]
ἴστε γὰρ ὅτι καὶ μετέπειτα θέλων κληρονομῆσαι τὴν εὐλογίαν ἀπεδοκιμάσθη, μετανοίας γὰρ τόπον οὐχ εὗρεν, καίπερ μετὰ δακρύων ἐκζητήσας αὐτήν.
Hebrews 12:17 (KJV)
...
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In John 1:3 to what does πᾶς refer?
In John 3:20 pas are people.
In John 14:26 panta are words and memories.
In John 1:3 is πᾶς referring to the tangible objects made in Genesis 1 or also to abstractions and the things men seem to do ...
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238 views
Based on the Greek word ‘prōtotokos’ in Colossians 1:13, does “firstborn” mean “first created”? [duplicate]
If Jesus was the first created, as some people claim, surely the Greek word ‘protoktistos’ would have been used instead – or is my information incorrect? I do not pretend to understand Greek and so I ...
0
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1answer
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If the sinners in Luke 15:2 are the Pharisee's am haarets, how does this affect applying Ezra and Nehemiah to Christians? [closed]
Here is a reference to relating the use of the term ἁμαρτωλοὺς (sinners) by the Pharisees to mean עַמֵּ֖י הָאֲרָצ֑וֹת translated (peoples of the land by the ESV):
Some take “sinners” here to mean ...
4
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3answers
65 views
Why is the word 'anti' used in Ephesians 5:31 instead of 'heneka' when quoting Genesis 2:24?
Both Ephesians 5:31 and Matthew 19:5 quote Genesis 2:24:
'For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined
to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh.'
However in ...
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2answers
67 views
Is 1 Timothy 6:15-16 about God or about Jesus?
YLT 1Ti 6:13 I charge thee, before God, who is making all things alive,
and of Christ Jesus, who did testify before Pontius Pilate the right
profession, 1Ti 6:14 that thou keep the command ...
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2answers
153 views
How should Revelation 11:15 be translated (so the implied pronoun and expressed referent agree)?
Westcott and Hort / [NA27 variants] Rev 11:15 Καὶ ὁ ἕβδομος ἄγγελος
ἐσάλπισεν· καὶ ἐγένοντο φωναὶ μεγάλαι ἐν τῷ οὐρανῷ, λέγοντες Ἐγένετο ἡ
βασιλεία τοῦ κόσμου τοῦ κυρίου ἡμῶν καὶ τοῦ χριστοῦ αὐτοῦ,...
