Questions tagged [greek]

Koiné (from κοινή, "common") Greek was the form of post-classical Greek spoken and written in Hellenistic and Roman antiquity. It is the language of the Septuagint (LXX), Christian New Testament, and most early Christian theological writings.

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About the Greek translation in Luke 2:2

I have heard it argued that the original text of Luke 2:2 was (almost certainly) written in an uncial hand without diacritical marks. In such a script, αὕτη (this) and αὐτή (itself) would be ...
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The 1000 Year Millennium [closed]

I'm curious about the period "1000 Year Millennium" after Lord Jesus Christ our Savior comes back to earth. In particular, I want to make sure whether unbelievers remain during that period. Are there ...
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What is a good resource for learning the structural basics of language translation? [closed]

I am looking for a clear, hopefully concise, resource that will explain the structural differences in Greek and Hebrew when compared to English. While I am currently learning Hebrew and hope to ...
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Rom 8:31 ?..Who can be against us? Is this a valid grammatical adjustment?

Rom 8:31 (NKJV)  What then shall we say to these things? If God is for us, who can be against us? Does the Greek text allow for this translation? What then shall we say to these things if God is for ...
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Is the wedding feast in the Matthew 22:2-14 parable remarkable because of its size?

The king made a wedding feast for his son; the food list is headed by "oxen," Greek "ταῦροί," which I believe is the plural form. Thus, more than one ox? (there were other fattened livestock, but I ...
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In Eph. 6:16 should τὰ βέλη be darts or arrows?

This is more of an English usage question than Greek, but even modern translations are split on this. In Eph. 6:16 should τὰ βέλη be darts or arrows? Development of weaponry (using modern English) ...
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Will Jesus Baptize us with the Holy Spirit or with holy wind in Mk 1:8, Mtt 3:11, Lk 3:16, and Jn 1:33?

In Mark 1:8, Matthew 3:11, Luke 3:16, and John 1:33, John the Baptist declares that Jesus will baptize people in the Holy Spirit. For example, Matthew 3:11 says, “I indeed baptize you with water ...
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Could Matthew 28:18-19 be translated in the Koine Greek to be an exhortation and not a commandment as some may think?

"Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit,” Could this mean, ”while you are going out and about or while you are on ...
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Is there a Greek or Aramaic word for “rope” that is similar to the word for “camel?”

I'm looking at Matthew 19 (New American Standard Bible), specifically at the interaction Jesus had with the young man who wanted to obtain eternal life (v. 16ff). In verse 24, Jesus tells the ...
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“Do not lead us into temptation” is a bad translation?

In a sermon by Randy Pope, he mentions that "do not lead us into temptation" is a "horrible" and "misleading" translation of Matthew 6:13 (around the 11:40 mark). καὶ μὴ εἰσενέγκῃς ἡμᾶς εἰς ...
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In the Shema, how should we understand “with all your strength” when the Hebrew word מְאֹ֑ד is rarely used this way?

In Deuteronomy 6:5, the Hebrew text reads "and with all your might"(ESV). Most English translations take this as "strength" or "might." The LXX uses a common word for power/strength/might and Mark's ...
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Should οἰκοδομέω be interpreted literally or metaphorically?

οἰκοδομέω (oikodomeō), with the lexical entry STRONG NT 3618, is the Greek verb for "edify." In the gospels it often has the normal meaning of building a physical structure. But in Acts and the rest ...
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Doing good and doing evil in John 5:29

John 5:29 (Interlinear) 29 καὶ (and) ἐκπορεύσονται (will come forth) — οἱ (those) τὰ (-) ἀγαθὰ (good) ποιήσαντες (having done), εἰς (to) ἀνάστασιν (the resurrection) ζωῆς (of life); οἱ (-) ‹δὲ› (...
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In the spirit or by the spirit

Galatians 5:25 AKJV If we live in the Spirit, let us also walk in the Spirit. ASV If we live by the Spirit, by the Spirit let us also walk. If we follow the Greek, which of them is more ...
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How does the grammar influence the meaning in «ἡ κατὰ θεὸν λύπη» and «ἡ τοῦ κόσμου λύπη» in 2 Corinthians 7:10?

The Greek text of 2 Corinthians 7:10 according to the Nestle-Aland 28th ed. states, Ιʹ ἡ γὰρ κατὰ θεὸν λύπη μετάνοιαν εἰς σωτηρίαν ἀμεταμέλητον ἐργάζεται· ἡ δὲ τοῦ κόσμου λύπη θάνατον κατεργάζεται. ...
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Did Jesus called the disciples brothers before the resurrection?

[John 20:17] Jesus saith to her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended unto the Father: but go unto my brethren, and say to them, I ascend unto my Father and your Father, and my God and your God. ...
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Why has μετανοήσατε been translated as “repent” in Acts 2:38?

So far as I can tell, this Greek word means something like a change of mind, or a change of heart. Then the Vulgate says "pœnitentiam agite" which seems to mean do penance, something like a punitive ...
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Should ἡ ἀγάπη τοῦ θεοῦ (“the love of God”) in 1 John 3:17 be interpreted as a subjective or objective genitive?

I see that different translations translate the Greek phrase ἡ ἀγάπη τοῦ θεοῦ (“the love of God”) as either “God’s love” or “love of God.” There seems to be a big difference between the two. It seems ...
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Imperfect Indicative Active in John 1:1-4

John 1:1 (ESV) 1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2 He was in the beginning with God. 3 All things were made through him, and without him was not any ...
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What is the difference in meaning between “fellowship” in 1 Corinthians 1:9 & “communion” in 2 Corinthians 13:14?

What is the difference in meaning between “fellowship” in 1 Corinthians 1:9 & “communion” in 2 Corinthians 13:14? 1 Corinthians 1:9 9 God is faithful, by whom ye were called unto the ...
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Origin of Pleonastic Phrasology in the Bible

I noticed a phraseology in the King James Version of the bible that is strange to a modern English speaker. It involves two forms of the same word in close proximity in a sentence. Before posting this ...
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What is the “good conscience” mentioned in 1 Timothy 1:5,19

What is the "good conscience" mentioned in 1 Timothy 1:5,19 ? 1 Timothy 1:5 Now the end of the commandment is charity out of a pure heart, and of a good conscience, and of faith unfeigned: 1 ...
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What is the proper translation of the verb “pisteuo” in 1 Thessalonians 4:14?

In 1 Thes. 4:14, why is the word pisteuo translated as “we believe?” Could it be translated as “they believe,” where “they” refers to those who sleep? 1Th 4:14 For if we believe that Jesus ...
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Does σπέρματος (descendants/seed) refer to Abraham's direct descendants or the nations in Hebrews 2:16?

Hebrews 2:16-18 New International Version (NIV) 16 For surely it is not angels he helps, but Abraham’s descendants 16 Οὐ γὰρ δή‿ που ἀγγέλων ἐπιλαμβάνεται ἀλλὰ σπέρματος Ἀβραὰμ ἐπιλαμβάνεται ...
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What is the power of Christ (2 Cor 12:9)

“And he said unto me, My grace is sufficient for thee: for my strength is made perfect in weakness. Most gladly therefore will I rather glory in my infirmities, that the power of Christ may rest upon ...
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Faulty “covenant” or “ministry” in Hebrews 8:7?

Hebrews 8:7 refers to something with 'fault', and the referent is almost invariably indicated to be the first 'covenant' in English translations. Some of the more literal translations miss the word ...
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What are the “these things” referred to in 1 Timothy 4:15?

What are the "these things" referred to in 1 Timothy 4:15 Meditate upon these things; give thyself wholly to them; that thy profiting may appear to all. ? Is this the same word used in ...
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What is the difference between “knowledge” in Ephesians 3:19 & “wisdom ” in 1 Corinthians 1:30?

What is the difference between "knowledge" in Ephesians 3:19 and to know the love of Christ, which passeth knowledge, that ye might be filled with all the fulness of God. ( AKJV ) & "...
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Is 'begun' a better translation than 'made' in John 1:3?

παντα δι αυτου εγενετο και χωρις αυτου εγενετο ουδε εν ο γεγονεν [TR] John1:3 All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made. [KJV] All things through him ...
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In Philemon 11, is Paul making a pun from Onesimus' name?

Given the name Onesimus means "profitable or useful" and Paul writes in vrs 11: [Onesimus,] who once was unprofitable to thee, but now is profitable to thee and to me: Is Paul making a pun with ...
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How were Paleo-Hebrew words in the Greek Septuagint fragments treated?

In certain old fragments of the Greek Septuagint the name of YHWH alone is written in paleo-Hebrew letters. I’m a novice at Greek, but isn’t it necessary for all proper nouns and names to be written ...
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What was Jesus’ πατρίδι (hometown/homeland) in John 4:44?

What was Jesus’ πατρίδι (hometown/homeland) in John 4:44? I had always assumed that this referred to Nazareth and Galilee, where Jesus grew up. However, Eli Lizorkin-Eyzenberg in The Jewish ...
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In Galatians 2:11 what does Paul mean when he says that Peter “stood condemned”?

[Gal 2:11 NASB] (11) But when Cephas came to Antioch, I opposed him to his face, because he stood condemned. [Gal 2:11 MGNT] (11) ὅτε δὲ ἦλθεν Κηφᾶς εἰς Ἀντιόχειαν κατὰ πρόσωπον αὐτῷ ...
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What does the anointing with power mean in Acts 10:38?

δύναμις (from 1410 /dýnamai, "able, having ability") – properly, "ability to perform" (source). In the New Testament, Jesus is shown to have His own divine power (δύναμις) (2 Peter 1:2-3, 16, ...
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In Acts 15:17 are the “remnant of men” and the “gentiles who are called by name” identical?

In the CSB it appears that they are: [Act 15:17 CSB] (17) "so the rest of humanity may seek the Lord -- even all the Gentiles who are called by my name -- declares the Lord who makes these things ...
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δόλος = deceit in John 1:47

On the account of Jesus' encounter with Nathanael, this is written: Joh 1:47  Jesus saw Nathanael coming toward him and said of him, “Behold, an Israelite indeed, in whom there is no deceit!” (ESV) ...
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How should we understand λαμβάνω in John 5:34?

How should we understand λαμβάνω in John 5:34? ἐγὼ δὲ οὐ παρὰ ἀνθρώπου τὴν μαρτυρίαν λαμβάνω, ἀλλὰ ταῦτα λέγω ἵνα ὑμεῖς σωθῆτε. (John 5:34, NA27) While many more literal translations translate ...
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Why does St. Jerome translate αληθείας as caritatis in 1 Pet. 1:22?

Why does St. Jerome translate αληθείας as caritatis in 1 Pet. 1:22? obedientia [υπακοή] caritatis [αληθείας = "of the truth"] He uses "non obedire veritati" for "αληθεία μη πείθεσθαι" in Gal. 3:1.
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How should the Greek word translated into English as 'established' in Romans 13:1 be understood?

Romans 13:1 is translated into English as "there is no authority except that which God has established. The authorities that exist have been established by God." According to my NIV Greek Interlinear,...
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In Deuteronomy 8:3 why is “live” a future verb?

[Deu 8:3 ASV] (3) And he humbled thee, and suffered thee to hunger, and fed thee with manna, which thou knewest not, neither did thy fathers know; that he might make thee know that man doth not live ...
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In the context of Matthew 11:25 is “thank” the best translation of ἐξομολογοῦμαί?

[Mat 11:25 NLT] (25) At that time Jesus prayed this prayer: "O Father, Lord of heaven and earth, thank you for hiding these things from those who think themselves wise and clever, and for revealing ...
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What are the “elements” in “the elements will melt with fervent heat”? NKJV. 2 Peter 3:10

Here are 3 possibilities: c.2000 years ago in Greek culture the elements were fire, earth, water, metal and wood. To the modern scientific mind, as when the N.K.J.V. was written, elements may ...
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In 2 Corinthians 10:8 what is meant by “put to shame”?

2Co 10:7-9 ASV(7) Ye look at the things that are before your face. If any man trusteth in himself that he is Christ's, let him consider this again with himself, that, even as he is Christ's, so also ...
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Is the word “begotten” in John 3:16 of Authorized Version a problem that creates confusion when establishing the Deity of Christ?

The Authorized Version has the word "begotten" in John 3:16 For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have ...
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Did Jesus add to the words of Moses from Deuteronomy 6:5?

I'm not sure if this is to do with Hebrew being translated to Greek, but when looking at "The greatest commandment" Deuteronomy 6:5 says: "And thou shalt love the LORD thy God with all thy heart, ...
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Why is it that in John 3:3 the ESV translates “be born from above” to “is born again”?

I was told that ESV uses the oldest Greek manuscripts to translate the scripture literally from Greek into English. So why is it that in John 3:3 the ESV translates "be born from above" to "is born ...
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What do the words “meek & lowly” in Matthew 11:29 mean and how to achieve it?

What do the words "meek & lowly" in Matthew 11:29 Take my yoke upon you, and learn of me; for I am meek and lowly in heart: and ye shall find rest unto your souls.( KJV ). mean? Is any of ...
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What is Hebrews 3:14 saying to do with “our confidence”?

[Heb 3:14 ASV] for we are become partakers of Christ, if we hold fast the beginning of our confidence firm unto the end: What is he saying about "hold fast the beginning of our confidence firm unto ...
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Is Mark 12:30 explicitly saying all WILL love God?

Sorry if this question is not appropriate for this site or a'bit stupid, I don't know Greek myself, just looked at the translations on biblehub and I was wondering wether what is often translated as '...
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Should “from the father” be translated instead as “beside a father” in John 1:14?

A typical translation of John 1:14-18 usually reads about like this: (John 1:14–18, ESV) And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we have seen his glory, glory as of the only Son from ...