Questions tagged [greek]
Koiné (from κοινή, "common") Greek was the form of post-classical Greek spoken and written in Hellenistic and Roman antiquity. It is the language of the Septuagint (LXX), Christian New Testament, and most early Christian theological writings.
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Does Aorist Subjunctive "might make known" in Romans 9:23 refer to the past?
I have read answers to the question posed on this site "How should "gnorise" be translated in Romans 9:23?"
I would appreciate a little more insight into this Aorist Subjunctive ...
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3answers
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Meaning of כָּמ֑וֹךָ in Hebrew / ὡς in Greek ("love thy neighbor *as* thyself")
What is the correct interpretation of the Hebrew "כָּמ֑וֹךָ" in Leviticus 19:18, or the Greek "ὡς" in Luke 10:27 (which is quoting the Leviticus verse)?
I have a theory that "...
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What is the case for “what” in Jesus’s comments Jn 4:22?
For John 4:22 I counted at least 15 responsible English translations that render the object in Jesus’s response impersonal: ie “what” or “which” “we worship”.
The simple Greek “ho” is as often ...
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2answers
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The ‘he’ in 2 Thessalonians 2:7
2:7 τὸ γὰρ μυστήριον ἤδη ἐνεργεῖται τῆς ἀνομίας· μόνον ὁ κατέχων ἄρτι ἕως ἐκ μέσου γένηται
2 THESSALONIANS 2:7 For the mystery of lawlessness is already at work; only He who now restrains will do so ...
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Does the Greek word "καί" in James 1:27 create a Distinction ("God [and] the Father", KJV) or Surname ("God the Father", ESV)?
Different Translations of James 1:27 ( KJV | ESV ) present alternative concepts of "God" in relationship to the Father:
KJV presents θεός as the observant servant of the Father
[James 1:27,...
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How to humble yourself like a little child?
Matthew 18:4
Whosoever therefore shall humble himself as this little child, the same is greatest in the kingdom of heaven.
Children are not particularly humble. What does Jesus mean by this?
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4answers
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Meaning and significance of the greek word "ἅπτομαι" (haptomai \ haptou) in John 20:17 [duplicate]
I have always been struck by the "oddness" and also variation in the translation of Jesus statement in John 20:17 to Mary magdeline after his resurrection. It is rendered in various english ...
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Why does John's Gospel use 'believe' frequently, but never 'faith'?
John gave the purpose for his Gospel as:
30 Now Jesus did many other signs in the presence of the disciples, which are not written in this book; 31 but these are written so that you may believe that ...
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1answer
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Why is λόγος accusative singular in John 19:8 and genitive plural in John 19:13?
Why is λόγος accusative singular in John 19:8 and genitive plural in John 19:13? In both cases λόγος is the object of the verb ἀκούω (hear). There seems to be three possibilities.
In v8 Pilate ...
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Is this translation of John 19:32–34 grammatically possible?
Then came the soldiers, and brake the legs of the first, and of the other which was crucified with him.
But when they came to Jesus, and saw that he was dead already, they brake not his legs:
But one ...
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1 Timothy 2:15 - How specifically should "τῆς τεκνογονίας" be translated? Did the translators make the right choice?
1 Timothy 2:15
15 Yet she will be saved through childbearing [τῆς τεκνογονίας]—if they continue in faith and love and holiness, with self-control.
Ok,
Checking out Biblehub.com, translators, in ...
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II Timothy 3:5 Dunamis
In II Timothy 3, Paul cautions Timothy that in the last days men will come:
Having a form of godliness but denying its power. And from such people turn away!
II Timothy 3:5 (NKJV)
The Greek word '...
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4answers
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What does προσκυνέω (translated *worship*) mean in Matt. 2:2?
There are many similar questions, and you will think it is a repeat unless you read the rest of the body. The magi seeking to worship a king seems strange. Even stranger is Herod's claim to want to ...
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How should the singular "mind" in Luke 24:45 be understood?
44 Then he said to them, “These are my words that I spoke to you while I was still with you, that everything written about me in the Law of Moses and the Prophets and the Psalms must be fulfilled.” 45 ...
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Should translations pay more attention to the antithetical parallelism of Prov. 3:34?
אִם־לַלֵּצִ֥ים
הֽוּא־יָלִ֑יץ
וְ֝לַעֲנָיִ֗ים
יִתֶּן־חֵֽן׃
(Prov. 3:34, MT)
Does it better fit the antithetical parallelism of the poetry of this verse to translate the verse:
Although He will turn ...
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4answers
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Should πνευματικα (pneumatika) in 1 Corinthians 14:1 be translated as "spiritualities" or "spiritual things" instead of "spiritual gifts"?
My question is motivated by an answer to a related question I asked on C.SE in regards to 1 Corinthians 14:1. Specifically, the linked answer argues that the Greek word πνευματικα (pneumatika) should ...
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2answers
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Ephesians 2:8 What is the meaning of by grace through faith? [closed]
Ephesians 2:8
For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God:
Does this verse answer the question, "Can we lose grace after receiving it?"
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5answers
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How does passing food through the body make all foods clean, as per Mark 7:19 in the modern versions?
The modern translations present a real conundrum with Mark 7:19. The traditional KJV has it as:
Because it entereth not into his heart, but into the belly, and goeth
out into the draught, purging ...
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1answer
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Acts 18:24 Ἀπολλῶς Rev 9:11 Ἀπολλύων
And a certain Jew named Apollos (Ἀπολλῶς G625), born at
Alexandria, an eloquent man, and mighty in the scriptures, came to
Ephesus. (Acts 18:24 - KJV)
And they had a king over them, which is the ...
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What is the best translation of the participles in the Great Commission, Matt. 28:19-20?
All the verbs in the Great Commission are participles except for μαθητεύσατε ("make disciples). For example, πορευθέντες (going) is often translated as an imperative although it is a participle. ...
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Can the participle ὑπάρχων in Phil. 2:6 mean "because he was?"
A Greek scholar at Dallas Seminary says this participle can be understood as "because" which gives a whole deeper level of understanding of humility, beginning with God.
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Luke 11:41 What is clean by giving alms?
But rather give alms of such things as ye have; and, behold, all
things are clean unto you. (Luke 11:41 - KJV)
But give as alms those things that are within, and behold, everything
is clean for you. (...
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What is the difference between arcing, phrasing and diagramming?
I am trying to improve my exegesis of biblical text and am attempting to get better with hermeneutical methods as they are focussed on understanding the meaning of the text in the context of the ...
6
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2answers
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Why in Matthew 22:8-9 does "wedding feast/ho gamos" change to "wedding feast/tous gamous"?
Matthew 22:8-9
8 Then he said to his servants, "The wedding feast [ho gamos] is ready, but those invited were not worthy. 9 Go therefore to the main roads and invite to the wedding feast [tous ...
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2answers
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What is the difference between Acts 10:44 - "the Holy Spirit," and v 45 - "the Holy Spirit?"
The interlinear Grk. feature to my Bible software helps with interpretation, digging deeper for original meaning. The syntax is helpful though I have no formal training here!
In verse 44, the ...
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Is there any justification in translating the Greek word ‘ekklesia’ in Matthew 16:18 as "church"? [duplicate]
“Thou art Peter, and upon this rock I will build my church (ekklesia).”
I understand the Greek word ‘ekklesia’ is translated as “church” in English, together with the Scottish word “kirk”. I have ...
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2answers
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Why does the translation of the pronoun for light change within John 1?
The pronoun (αὐτὸ) in John 1:5 which refers to the light (φῶς) is translated as “it”. But in John 1:10 and thereafter, pronouns which refer to the light are translated as “he/him/his”. Why?
This is ...
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1answer
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Who first interpretated John 8:58 ego eimi as Yahweh claim?
What is the oldest record of the interpretation that the "I am" ego eimi in John 8:58 claim is Yahweh claim of Exodus 3:14?
Jesus said to them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham ...
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What's the difference between ἱεροῦ hieron & ναὸν naos?
What's the difference between ἱεροῦ hieron & ναὸν naos?
5 Or have ye not read in the law, how that on the sabbath days the
priests in the temple (ἱεροῦ hieron, G2411) profane the sabbath, and are ...
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2answers
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Rom 5:10 Saved Luke 1:69 Salvation
What's the difference of being saved and salvation?
Romans 5:10 (KJV) For if, when we were enemies, we were reconciled to God by
the death of his Son, much more, being reconciled, we shall be saved
...
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480 views
Was "ὅστις" in Revelation 1:7 meant to be singular, since John 19:34 says only one of the soldiers pierced Ἰησοῦς?
Revelation 1:7 uses the pronoun "ὅστις" :
[Revelation 1:7, KJV] "Behold, he cometh with clouds; and every eye shall see him, and they also which pierced him: and all kindreds of the ...
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5answers
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How to get at the textual meaning of John 17:11 with regard to ‘name’ when the two following translations say very different things?
The KJV translates John 17:11 as: "Holy Father, keep through thine own name those whom thou hast given me, that they may be one, as we are."
The NWT translates John 17:11 as: "Holy ...
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Help on getting a Greek new testament and a Hebrew Bible [closed]
Can I receive some help? I'm currently learning biblical Languages and don't have any physical copies of the critical NA28 text and the BHS. I'm in a country with no access to physical copies of these ...
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Is it grammatically possible to translate σαββάτω as Sunday or week?
Regarding Matthew 28:1, transcribed below ipsis litteris:
ὀψὲ δὲ σαββάτων τῇ ἐπιφωσκούσῃ εἰς μίαν σαββάτων ἦλθεν Μαριὰμ ἡ Μαγδαληνὴ καὶ ἡ ἄλλη Μαρία θεωρῆσαι τὸν τάφον
I'm looking for an answer that ...
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3answers
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What does "another/hetero" mean in 1 Corinthians 12:9?
1 Corinthians 12:8-9: "...and to another the utterance of knowledge according to the same Spirit, to another faith by the same Spirit, to another gifts of healing by the one Spirit," ESV.
...
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Does Colossians 1:18 refer to Mortals or Corpses as the Dead "nekron" (νεκρῶν)?
If Jesus is "Firstborn" (πρωτότοκος) "out from the Dead" (ἐκ τῶν νεκρῶν) as stated by Paul & Timothy in [Colossians 1:18], and not conceived from "a man" | ἄνδρα (...
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What is the specific translation of "δωρεὰν" ("dorean") in Gal 2:21? Did righteousness used to come by the law?
In Galatians 2:21 it reads:
"εἰ γὰρ διὰ νόμου δικαιοσύνη, ἄρα Χριστὸς δωρεὰν ἀπέθανεν"
Some translations are:
Latin Vulgate: "si enim per legem iustitia ergo Christus **...
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3answers
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(John 19:28) All things but scripture complete?
I'm looking at John 19:28 where Jesus, on the cross, knew that "ηδη παντα τετελεσται" = "All things are complete/finished/perfect." But then it immediately says, "so that to ...
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John 4:25 Verbatim or scribe added text
The woman said to him, “I know that Messiah [#G3323] is coming (he who is
called Christ) [#G5547]. When he comes, he will tell us all things.” (John
4:25) ESV.
λεγει αυτω η γυνη οιδα οτι μεσσιας ...
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3answers
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Is Judas cursed to eternal damnation? (John 17:12)
I'm curious what John means in verse 12 where he says
"While I was with them, I was keeping them in Your name, which You have given Me; and I guarded them, and not one of them perished except the ...
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4answers
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Verbs in Lord’s Prayer
“Thy Kingdom come” in Lord’s Prayer:
Thy kingdom come. Thy will be done in earth, as it is in heaven.
(Matthew 6:10 KJV)
Q1. Does this mean:
A1. We hope and pray that your kingdom will come. Or A2. ...
3
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3answers
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Did translators of bible bowdlerized the word methiosin in Cana wedding story?
Jesus turns water into wines.
The word methiosin in Koine Greek means being drunk.
However, very few major biblical translate methiosin as drunk.
Most translate that as something that may refer to ...
2
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2answers
50 views
(John 14:5-9) Greek Article with Name "Jesus" (ὁ Ἰησοῦς)
I am trying to understand something about the Greek that I didn't learn in my intro class. As I understand in Hebrew, proper names never have the article (e.g. David, not "The David", ...
2
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5answers
125 views
(Psalm 33:6) LXX Duality to Logos?
I've been chasing the concept of Logos around the text and was drawn into Psalm 33:6 where we have:
Psalm 33:6 (NRSV), By the word of the Lord the heavens were made, and all their host by the breath ...
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0answers
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What is the “logos” in Hebrews 4:12? [duplicate]
What is the “logos” in Hebrews 4:12?
I know this question has been asked here before but I dont understand. Would you help me?
In the original Greek the verse says:
Zon gar o logos tou theou kai ...
2
votes
2answers
31 views
What does "whereby" in 2 Peter 1:4 refer to?
"Whereby are given unto us exceeding great and precious promises: that
by these ye might be partakers of the divine nature, having escaped
the corruption that is in the world through lust." (...
2
votes
1answer
28 views
Does ὅταν with subjunctive mean not sure action (Rev. 11:7)
In Rev. 11:7 ὅταν is used with subjunctive tense.
Does it mean that we can't conclude from this verse that Rev. 11:7 does not state that two witnesses will necessarily finish witnessing and will ...
3
votes
1answer
32 views
1 Peter 3:15 - Collective Plurals or Distributive Plurals?
But sanctify the Lord God in your hearts: and be ready always to give an answer to every man that asketh you a reason of the hope that is in you with meekness and fear: [1 Peter 3:15 KJV]
In 1 Peter ...
3
votes
4answers
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Who is 'us', that Yahweh said to 'behold' men has become like us
During the creation account it only says that אלהים created the heavens and the earth, it is not until Genesis 2:4 that it is stated that it was יהוה, the אלהים who did it.
ברא' 2:4: "אֵ֣לֶּה ...
2
votes
4answers
78 views
To what do sophia and phronēsei refer to in Ephesians 1:8?
In the ESV, Ephesians 1:8 (with some of verse 7 for context) is:
according to the riches of his grace, which he lavished upon us, in all wisdom and insight
thus connecting "wisdom and insight&...
