Koiné (from κοινή, "common") Greek was the form of post-classical Greek spoken and written in Hellenistic and Roman antiquity. It is the language of the Septuagint (LXX), Christian New Testament, and most early Christian theological writings.
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Is there a grammatical necessity for the feminine κοινωνία and masculine κοινωνός in First Corinthians?
κοινωνία a feminine noun is from κοινωνός a masculine noun. In the first letter to the Corinthians, Paul uses both words twice:
κοινωνία
God is faithful, by whom you were called into the ...
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In Revelation 3:20, is Jesus offering to have individual suppers or one collective meal?
Jesus makes this offer to the Laodiceans:
Behold— I stand at the door. And I am knocking. If anyone hears My voice and opens the door, I also will come-in to him. And I will have-dinner with him, ...
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How should Luke 2:2 be translated?
Luke 2:2 in the King James Version says,
(And this taxing was first made when Cyrenius was governor of Syria.)
However, the original Greek text says,
αὕτη ἡ ἀπογραφὴ πρώτη ἐγένετο ἡγεμονεύοντος ...
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In Mark 12:35, who is teaching in the temple?
In Mark 12:35-37 Jesus poses a question to a crowd, concerning the title that the scribes at Jerusalem (Gk. grammateiswhich could also mean scholars) had for the Anointed One, that being 'the son of ...
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What is the force of the optative ἔχοι in Acts 17:11?
In the Greek, Acts 17:11 reads:
οὗτοι δὲ ἦσαν εὐγενέστεροι τῶν ἐν Θεσσαλονίκῃ, οἵτινες ἐδέξαντο τὸν
λόγον μετὰ πάσης προθυμίας, τὸ καθ’ ἡμέραν ἀνακρίνοντες τὰς γραφὰς εἰ
ἔχοι ταῦτα οὕτως.
The ...
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What Does the Last Word in Luke 21:32 Mean with the Aorist Tense?
http://biblehub.com/interlinear/luke/21-32.htm I was having an argument with my friend about this verse and he is saying the aorist tense in Greek means that the last word in this verse does not ...
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In 1 Corinthians 7:11-15 does Paul consider “separation” an alternative to divorce?
Does Paul write in 1 Corinthians 7:11-15 about divorce OR separation? The original (Greek) text seems to be here quite clear, but church' interpretation still doesn't see difference:
KJV 1Co 7:11 ...
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Difference between οἴδασιν in John 15:21 and γνόντες in Romans 1:21
I apologise if this is not best place to ask the question, please redirect me if need be.
I have quoted John 15:21 and Romans 1:21 from the ESV.
But all these things they will do to you on account ...
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Is ἱεράτευμα (hierateuma) intrinsically male?
In 1 Peter 2:5 and 2:9 we find the word ἱεράτευμα (hierateuma), translated "priesthood," which Strong's Concordance defines as "the act or office of priesthood." The word's root appears to be ἱερεύς (...
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Is 1 Cor. 6:11 singular or plural?
I don't know Greek at all.
1 Cor. 6:11 says this in the SBL Greek New Testament: 11 καὶ ταῦτά τινες ἦτε· ἀλλὰ ἀπελούσασθε, ἀλλὰ ἡγιάσθητε, ἀλλὰ ἐδικαιώθητε ἐν τῷ ὀνόματι τοῦ κυρίου Ἰησοῦ καὶ ἐν τῷ ...
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Is translating οὕτως in John 3:16 as “so much” valid?
Is translating οὕτως (the adverbial form of the word meaning "this") in John 3:16 as "so much" valid, or is this based on a misreading of the KJV? In the KJV, it is translated "so," ""For God so ...
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What does “as” mean in Matthew 6:10?
In Mat 6:10 "as" could be "because", alternatively it could be "in the same way". Your will be done on earth because it is done in heaven, or, your will be done in the same way/as it is in heaven? ...
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In Romans 1:24 what does Paul mean by παρέδωκεν (“gave them over”)?
NIV Romans 1:24 Therefore God gave them over in the sinful desires
of their hearts to sexual impurity for the degrading of their bodies
with one another.
What, in this context does παρέδωκεν ("...
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How do you translate οἱ καθ’ ἕνα? (Ephesians 5:33)
I'm having some problems understanding and translating Ephesians 5:33.
33 πλὴν καὶ ὑμεῖς οἱ καθ’ ἕνα, ἕκαστος τὴν ἑαυτοῦ γυναῖκα οὕτως ἀγαπάτω ὡς ἑαυτόν, ἡ δὲ γυνὴ ἵνα φοβῆται τὸν ἄνδρα.
33 ...
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What does “ἐν ῥήματι” mean in Ephesians 5:26?
I'm trying to understand Ephesians 5:25-6 and here is my rough translation below.
25 Οἱ ἄνδρες, ἀγαπᾶτε τὰς γυναῖκας, καθὼς καὶ ὁ Χριστὸς ἠγάπησεν τὴν
ἐκκλησίαν καὶ ἑαυτὸν παρέδωκεν ὑπὲρ αὐτῆς,
...
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Does απολελυμενον refer to release from prison in Hebrews 13:23?
Bible in Basic English
13:23 Our brother Timothy has been let out of prison; and if he comes here in a short time, he and I will come to you together.
American Standard Version
13:23 Know ye ...
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Does μετανοίας(repentance) refer to Esau or Isaac in Hebrews 12:17?
Westcott and Hort / [NA27 variants]
ἴστε γὰρ ὅτι καὶ μετέπειτα θέλων κληρονομῆσαι τὴν εὐλογίαν ἀπεδοκιμάσθη, μετανοίας γὰρ τόπον οὐχ εὗρεν, καίπερ μετὰ δακρύων ἐκζητήσας αὐτήν.
Hebrews 12:17 (KJV)
...
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In John 1:3 to what does πᾶς refer?
In John 3:20 pas are people.
In John 14:26 panta are words and memories.
In John 1:3 is πᾶς referring to the tangible objects made in Genesis 1 or also to abstractions and the things men seem to do ...
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141 views
Based on the Greek word ‘prōtotokos’ in Colossians 1:13, does “firstborn” mean “first created”? [duplicate]
If Jesus was the first created, as some people claim, surely the Greek word ‘protoktistos’ would have been used instead – or is my information incorrect? I do not pretend to understand Greek and so I ...
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62 views
If the sinners in Luke 15:2 are the Pharisee's am haarets, how does this affect applying Ezra and Nehemiah to Christians? [closed]
Here is a reference to relating the use of the term ἁμαρτωλοὺς (sinners) by the Pharisees to mean עַמֵּ֖י הָאֲרָצ֑וֹת translated (peoples of the land by the ESV):
Some take “sinners” here to mean ...
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63 views
Why is the word 'anti' used in Ephesians 5:31 instead of 'heneka' when quoting Genesis 2:24?
Both Ephesians 5:31 and Matthew 19:5 quote Genesis 2:24:
'For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined
to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh.'
However in ...
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64 views
Is 1 Timothy 6:15-16 about God or about Jesus?
YLT 1Ti 6:13 I charge thee, before God, who is making all things alive,
and of Christ Jesus, who did testify before Pontius Pilate the right
profession, 1Ti 6:14 that thou keep the command ...
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How should Revelation 11:15 be translated (so the implied pronoun and expressed referent agree)?
Westcott and Hort / [NA27 variants] Rev 11:15 Καὶ ὁ ἕβδομος ἄγγελος
ἐσάλπισεν· καὶ ἐγένοντο φωναὶ μεγάλαι ἐν τῷ οὐρανῷ, λέγοντες Ἐγένετο ἡ
βασιλεία τοῦ κόσμου τοῦ κυρίου ἡμῶν καὶ τοῦ χριστοῦ αὐτοῦ,...
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Galatians 2:9: What is the Christian meaning behind the expression “the right hand of fellowship”?
“James, Cephas and John, those esteemed as pillars, gave me and Barnabas the right hand of fellowship when they recognized the grace given to me. They agreed that we should go to the Gentiles, and ...
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51 views
Possible Word Inversion in Romans 9:5?
I couldn't help but notice, while pondering on another question, that inverting the current word order of the Greek text of Romans 9:4-5 by replacing the final o on from the middle of verse 5 with on ...
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In Ephesian 5:27 what does Christ “present to himself”?
I was struck with the oddness of a groom "presenting" one's bride "to himself" as it doesn't match our culture where the father of the bride "gives away" his daughter. As I looked at this familiar ...
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45 views
In Daniel 7:22 is judgment “committed to” the saints or “rendered in favor of” them?
The KJV seems to suggest that judgment was committed to the saints so that they became the judges:
KJV Daniel 7:22 Until the Ancient of days came, and judgment was
given to the saints of the most ...
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67 views
In John 4:51 why a son (παῖς) and not a son (υἱός)?
υἱός is most common way to call a child a son. In John, this word is used 57 times. However, there is one instance where παῖς is used:
As he was going down, his servants met him and told him that ...
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Who is the “we” (ἐσμέν) who are “of all people most to be pitied” in 1 Corinthians 15:19?
Who is the "we" in ἐσμέν in 1 Corinthians 15:19?
ESV 1 Cor 15:19 If in Christ we have hope in this life only, we are of all people most to be pitied.
In particular, who are the ones pitied ...
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91 views
Hebrews 12:2 “for the joy” or “instead of the joy”?
Hbr 12:1-2 keeping our eyes fixed on Jesus, the pioneer and perfecter
of our faith. For the joy set out for him he endured the cross,
disregarding its shame, and has taken his seat at the right ...
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How large were flasks of oil like those mentioned in the Parable of the Ten Bridesmaids?
In Matthew 25:3-4, in the Parable of the Ten Bridesmaids, Jesus explains, "For when the foolish took their lamps, they took no oil with them, but the wise took flasks of oil with their lamps." (ESV ...
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21 views
In Philippians 2:11 are “God” and “the Father” used in apposition?
Apposition is a grammatical construction in which two elements,
normally noun phrases, are placed side by side, with one element
serving to identify the other in a different way; the two elements ...
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3answers
62 views
In Ephesians 3:17 are the saints becoming rooted and established or already rooted and established in love?
Regarding Ephesians 3:17, "And I pray that you, being rooted and established in love":
1) Was Paul saying that the Ephesians were already rooted and established in love, or was he praying that they ...
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Should Philippians 2:11b read “to the glory of God” or “[is] in the glory of God”?
The Vulgate version of Philippians 2:11 reads:
VUL et omnis lingua confiteátur, quia Dóminus Jesus Christus in glória est Dei Patris.
Translation and every tongue confess that the Lord Jesus ...
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31 views
In Romans 11:11 who is made jealous of whom?
YLT Rom 11:11 I say, then, Did they stumble that they might fall? let
it not be! but by their fall the salvation is to the nations, to
arouse them to jealousy;
Do the fallen Jews make the ...
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Why does the ASV translate πᾶσα γραφὴ θεόπνευστος in 2 Timothy 3:16 as “every scripture inspired of God”?
The ASV's translation of 2 Tim 3:16 reads:
Every scripture inspired of God is also profitable for teaching, for
reproof, for correction, for instruction which is in righteousness.
What arguments ...
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Is δέ in Eph. 5:32 an adversative or copulative particle?
Eph. 5:32:
This is a great sacrament; but [autem / δὲ] I speak in Christ and in the church.
Some English translations say "and" instead of "but". Translating "δὲ" as "but" would seem to exclude ...
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2answers
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Does the grammar of Romans 5:9 suggest from whose wrath “we will be saved”?
Romans 5:9 ends with the phrase σωθησόμεθα δι’ αὐτοῦ ἀπὸ τῆς ὀργῆς -- "we will be saved by him from the wrath".
Most, though not all, English translations add "of God" to qualify "wrath".
What ...
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What are the implications of Paul's use of the present tense of the verb δικαιόω (to justify) in Romans 3:24, 26, 28, and 4:5?
In four verses (Romans 3:24, 3:26, 3:28, and 4:5) the apostle Paul used present tense verbs when describing justification. What makes this harder is all four are either infinitives or participles, ...
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What does “polluted” (ἀλισγημάτων) mean in Acts 15:20?
In Acts 15:19-20, James renders his judgment on the matter of the Gentiles that Peter has brought before the Jerusalem council:
It is my judgment, therefore, that we should not make it difficult ...
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John 10:33 — Nominative vs. Accusative Nuance (θεος / θεον)
John 10:33 in the Greek reads (NA28):
ἀπεκρίθησαν αὐτῷ οἱ Ἰουδαῖοι· περὶ καλοῦ ἔργου οὐ λιθάζομέν σε ἀλλὰ περὶ βλασφημίας, καὶ ὅτι σὺ ἄνθρωπος ὢν ποιεῖς σεαυτὸν θεόν.
There is nothing special or ...
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Why does the Greek use different words for “like” in Revelation 13:11?
Westcott & Hort 1881
Καὶ εἶδον ἄλλο θηρίον ἀναβαῖνον ἐκ τῆς γῆς, καὶ εἶχεν κέρατα δύο ὅμοια ἀρνίῳ, καὶ ἐλάλει ὡς δράκων.
Revelation 13:11-18 English Standard Version (ESV)
The Second Beast
...
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47 views
What significance the text variant has for interpreting Revelation 13:1?
Revelation 13:1 (KJV)
1 And I stood upon the sand of the sea, and saw a beast rise up out of the sea, having seven heads and ten horns, and upon his horns ten crowns, and upon his heads the name of ...
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530 views
Why did Jesus call His mother “Woman”?
In John 19:26 it says,
"When Jesus therefore saw his mother, and the disciple standing by,
whom he loved, he saith unto his mother, Woman, behold thy son!"
This isn't the 1st time Jesus uses ...
2
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1answer
29 views
Why doesn't the ASV translate the accusative με in John 14:14?
In the Greek, John 14:14 reads:
ἐάν τι αἰτήσητέ με ἐν τῷ ὀνόματί μου ἐγὼ ποιήσω. (SBL)
Most English translations render the accusative με as "me" or "of me"' for example, the ESV reads:
If you ...
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25 views
Why does the Apostle Paul use the verb παρακαλέω twice in Phillipians 4?
KJV Philippians 4
2 I beseech Euodias, and beseech Syntyche, that they be of the same mind in the Lord.
Why does the Apostle Paul use the verb παρακαλέω twice in the above text.
Could it be a ...
6
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3answers
140 views
What did Jesus mean in John 4:22, ὑμεῖς προσκυνεῖτε ὃ οὐκ οἴδατε?
What did Jesus mean in John 4:22, ὑμεῖς προσκυνεῖτε ὃ οὐκ οἴδατε (You worship what you do not know; ESV)? Why is the neuter relative pronoun used in both statements: ὑμεῖς προσκυνεῖτε ὃ οὐκ οἴδατε· ...
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1answer
39 views
Romans 12:1 NASB
Rom 12:1 NASB
Therefore I urge you, brethren, by the mercies of God, to present your bodies a living and holy sacrifice, acceptable to God, which is your spiritual service of worship.
The last 2 ...
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Should it be be ἐν or ἐστιν in Galatians 5:22 & Ephesians 5:9?
The Apostle Paul uses the verb ἐστιν when expressing the "Fruit of the Spirit" in Galatians
22 But the fruit of the Spirit is love, joy, peace, longsuffering, gentleness, goodness, faith,
...
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1answer
47 views
What's the difference between σπέρματί σπέρμα σπέρματός
I am looking at the Septuagint and trying to figure out the differences in the word "seed" that God promised Abraham. I thought that
the Greek word σπέρμα means "thy seed" in the plural and that ...
