Questions tagged [greek]
Koiné (from κοινή, "common") Greek was the form of post-classical Greek spoken and written in Hellenistic and Roman antiquity. It is the language of the Septuagint (LXX), Christian New Testament, and most early Christian theological writings.
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“I am” in Greek Septuagint translation of Exodus 3:14 vs. John 8:58 - how do they compare?
Exodus 3:14 YLT
And God saith unto Moses, 'I AM THAT WHICH I AM;' He saith also, 'Thus dost thou say to the sons of Israel, I AM hath sent me unto you.
How does the translation of the Greek ...
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In John 16:28 shouldn't πάλιν go with πορεύομαι πρὸς τὸν πατέρα meaning “I'm returning to the Father.”
Note the more frequent use of πάλιν in the Septuagint (LXX) is to with translating the Hebrew verb meaning return. That is also a common meaning in the New Testament when used with a word meaning ...
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Does “asleep” in 1 Corinthians 15 mean that the dead are unconscious prior to the resurrection?
Inspired by discussion from this question
The New Testament regularly refers to the dead as "asleep". This occurs several times in 1 Corinthians 15, such as:
20 But now is Christ risen ...
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What is hell? sheol/hades/prison/lake of fire/outer darkness
This question looks at 5 contexts which refer to hell, how the word is used, and what it means.
1.
For thou wilt not leave my soul in hell; neither wilt thou suffer
thine Holy One to see corruption. ...
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Where to start with the Apostolic Fathers [closed]
I'm looking to start reading the Apostolic Fathers (in Koine), using Michael Holmes' The Apostolic Fathers. Which of the fathers' Greek is most accessible, or most similar to that of the New Testament?...
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What is Paul saying in Romans 1:4?
[Romans 1:4 MGNT] (4) τοῦ ὁρισθέντος υἱοῦ θεοῦ ἐν δυνάμει κατὰ πνεῦμα ἁγιωσύνης ἐξ ἀναστάσεως νεκρῶν Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ τοῦ κυρίου ἡμῶν
Here are a couple of English translations:
[Romans 1:4 NASB20] (4) ...
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What is the earnest of the Spirit?
The "earnest of the Spirit" is a phrase unique to Paul in the New Testament. The Greek word ἀρραβῶνα is also rendered as "pledge" or "guarantee" in some translations.
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Who emptied himself in Philippians 2 :6-7? What does empty mean? [duplicate]
Philippians 2:6-7 KJV says
6 who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal
with God:
7 But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a
servant, and was made in ...
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2answers
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Is a translation of John 1:10 with 'it' instead of 'he' and 'him' grammatically problematic?
John 1:10 is usually translated using 'he' and 'him', for example
"He was in the world, and though the world was made through Him, the
world did not recognize Him." (Berean Study Bible)
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With what writings was Apollos mighty?
Acts 18:24
And a certain Jew named Apollos, born at Alexandria, an eloquent man,
and mighty in the scriptures, came to Ephesus.
The word usually rendered here as "scriptures" is γραφαῖς (...
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Are there any non-NT examples, from the Koine Greek, of an author using the phrase “truly, truly?” [closed]
I've read different interpretations of the significance of Jesus' use of "truly, truly," in the Gospels. From the very pious and serious, to an argument that Jesus is basically cracking ...
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Luke 10:9-11 Ἤγγικεν ἐφʼ ὑμᾶς and Ἤγγικεν same or different?
Luke 10:9-11 reads:
9 καὶ θεραπεύετε τοὺς ἐν αὐτῇ ἀσθενεῖς, καὶ λέγετε αὐτοῖς· Ἤγγικεν
ἐφʼ ὑμᾶς ἡ βασιλεία τοῦ θεοῦ. 10 εἰς ἣν δʼ ἂν πόλιν εἰσέλθητε καὶ
μὴ δέχωνται ὑμᾶς, ἐξελθόντες εἰς τὰς ...
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Is 'foundation' the best translation for Gr. 'katabole'?
Matthew 25:34 – Then shall the King say unto them on his right hand, Come, ye blessed of my Father, inherit the kingdom prepared for you from the foundation of the world. (also Heb 4:3, Eph 1:4, 1Pet ...
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In John 1:14 what does ἐσκήνωσεν mean?
Καὶ ὁ λόγος σὰρξ ἐγένετο καὶ ἐσκήνωσεν ἐν ἡμῖν,* καὶ ἐθεασάμεθα τὴν δόξαν αὐτοῦ, δόξαν ὡς μονογενοῦς παρὰ πατρός, πλήρης χάριτος καὶ ἀληθείας.
(John 1:14, NA28)
Usually commentators point out that ...
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In John 1:6 why is ἀπεσταλμένος perfect tense?
Ἐγένετο ἄνθρωπος, ἀπεσταλμένος παρὰ* ⸀θεοῦ, ⸆ ὄνομα αὐτῷ Ἰωάννης·
(John 1:6, NA28)
The perfect passive particle ἀπεσταλμένος is as if John the Baptist were still active in his ministry when John ...
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Luke 24:38 hearts or minds?
Luke 24:38
New International Version
He said to them, "Why are you troubled, and why do doubts rise in your minds?
English Standard Version
And he said to them, “Why are you troubled, and why ...
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What does “raca” mean?
What does "raca" mean? I have seen people claim it means the stereotype of a "camp"/"effeminate" male. What would they back then even consider masculine, when they were ...
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Is it grammar or theology that causes translators to typically translate John 10:33 as “declare Yourself to be God” as opposed to “a god”?
John 10:33 is typically translated as something like
"“We are not stoning You for any good work,” said the Jews, “but for
blasphemy, because You, who are a man, declare Yourself to be God.”"...
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Greek: Jerusalem, why is this sometimes plural?
I'm trying to understand the use of the city name Jerusalem in the New Testament. In some places, it appears as a proper noun, singular, feminine (Strongs 2419), And then in other places, it appears ...
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Does the Greek verb for tithing indicate repeated action?
In Hebrews 7:6 several versions translate Melchizedek as “receiving tithes” in the plural (KVJ, NKJV, ESV, HCSB, ASV, and YLT) while many other versions have it in the singular “collected a tenth.” (...
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1answer
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Matthew 26:45 KJV sleep on now meaning
Here is the KJV translation of first part of Matthew 26:45:
45 Then cometh he to his disciples, and saith unto them, Sleep on now, and take your rest:
Compare to the ESV:
45 Then he came to the ...
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1answer
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Why is the subject of the verb “they” instead of “Herod” in Mark 6:14
I have a question regarding the translation of ἔλεγεν, in Mark 6:14:
Καὶ ἤκουσεν ὁ βασιλεὺς Ἡρῴδης, φανερὸν γὰρ ἐγένετο τὸ ὄνομα αὐτοῦ , καὶ ἔλεγεν ὅτι Ἰωάννης ὁ βαπτιζων ἐκ νεκρῶν ἠγέρθη
Translated ...
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1answer
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Why are the Hebrew and Greek of Job 22:21 so different?
In Hebrew (and most modern translations), Job 22:21 reads:
הַסְכֶּן־נָא עִמּוֹ וּשְׁלם בָּהֶם תְּֽבוֹאַתְךָ טוֹבָֽה׃
Agree with God, and be at peace; thereby good will come to you. (ESV)
The Vulgate ...
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What is the significance of the use of different pronouns in Romans 8:30?
28 And we know that all things are working-together for good for the ones loving God, the ones being called ones according to His purpose. 29 Because whom He foreknew, He also predestined to be ...
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What does μή μου ἅπτου mean in John 20:17?
Much depends on how you translate the present middle imperative verb ἅπτου. Robertson's interpretation is "stop clinging" because "don't touch" would be aorist middle imperative. ...
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The use of the word “exposed” in acts 7:19 and Hebrews 4:13
Is the use of the word “exposed” in Acts 7:19 the same as the one used in Hebrews 4:13, when referencing the word of God?
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When does γραφή refer to the Tanakh vs additional holy writ vs writings in general?
The word γραφή ("scripture, writing") is used to refer to a variety of written documents - I'd like to understand the similarity or difference in meaning across 4 passages.
It can refer to:
...
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Given the dynamics of the words πλησίον and רֵעַ, what did Jesus illustrate with the Good Samaritan?
But he, desiring to justify himself, said to Jesus, “And who is my neighbor?”
(Luke 10:29, ESV)
ὁ δὲ θέλων ⸀δικαιῶσαι ἑαυτὸν εἶπεν πρὸς τὸν Ἰησοῦν· καὶ τίς ἐστίν μου πλησίον;
(Luke 10:29, NA28)
...
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Does the Fourth Gospel identify ὁ ἦν καὶ ὁ ὢν καὶ ὁ ἐρχόμενος (Revelation 4:8) as the Christ?
In Revelation John describes the four living creatures who say:
And the four living creatures, each of them with six wings, are full of eyes all around and within, and day and night they never cease ...
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What is the meaning of the Greek word 'semeion' in Revelation
I was under the impression that the Greek word 'semeion' as used in Revelation, means "sign". However, I discover that this Greek word is interpreted as either 'event' (in the NLT), 'wonder'...
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Why might the KJV and YLT translations of James 2:1 ('Lord' of glory) differ?
This is a question about the KJV and the TR Greek text.
... του κυριου ημων ιησου χριστου της δοξης
[James 2:1 TR - Stephens, Beza, Elzevir, Scrivener - identical]
... our Lord Jesus Christ, the ...
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2answers
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Mark 2:25, range of possible translations for ἀνέγνωτε
Mark 2:25 has Jesus debating the Sabbath with the Pharisees:
καὶ λέγει αὐτοῖς· «Οὐδέποτε ἀνέγνωτε τί ἐποίησεν Δαυείδ, ὅτε χρείαν ἔσχεν καὶ ἐπείνασεν αὐτὸς καὶ οἱ μετ’ αὐτοῦ;
WEB:
He said to them, “...
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1answer
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Does the use of δέ (de, “but, and, now”) in 1 Corinthians 14:35 preclude it being a mere restatement of verse 34?
Some interpretations I've heard of 1 Corinthians 14:34-35 argue that because verse 35 is merely restating what is said in verse 34, and since verse 35 discusses women asking questions, therefore verse ...
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Is Moffat's translation of John 1:1 representative of the original?
The James Moffatt translation renders John 1:1 as:
THE Logos existed in the very beginning, the Logos was with God, the Logos was divine.
Acknowledging that the original autographs of Scripture are ...
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What is the best way to translate Τεκνία in 1 John 2:1 and the other five times?
Τεκνία is the plural diminutive of τέκνον (child).
diminutive adjective
(14th century)
1 : indicating small size and sometimes the state or quality of being familiarly known, lovable, pitiable, or ...
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Do the New Testament “sin no more” and “your sins are forgiven” have likely Hebrew models that restrict their interpretation?
The Egerton papyrus has a version of Jesus's healing of the leper that adds further information at the beginning and end:
Egerton 1 recto (35) -- And behold, a leper came, saying, “Rabbi
Jesus, I ...
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2answers
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Matt 25:40. Can Jesus' brethren be understood to be the righteous of verse 37?
I am looking for an answer based on the structure of the original Greek.
I observe in my reading of Matthew 25:31-46 that the term " my brethren " occurs only in the first passage of Jesus' ...
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2answers
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In Philippians 4:5, what does Paul mean when he states, “Let your moderation be known unto all men”?
While analyzing this particular verse, the word used for moderation in the Koine Greek is "epieikies" meaning equitable, fair, and/or fitting. How does that translate to moderation or in ...
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Anarthrous “Son of God” in Mark 1:1 and 15:39
Mark 1:1 (ESV),
1 The beginning of the gospel of Jesus Christ, the Son of God...
Mark 15:39 (ESV),
39 And when the centurion, who stood facing him, saw that in this way he breathed his last, he said, “...
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2answers
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Does Revelation 1:6 have an example of Sharp's Rule?
Sharp's Rule states a writer indicates two substantives attributed to a single person by beginning a phrase placing the article before the first substantive connecting the second with καὶ while ...
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3answers
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What is the meaning of tetheatai “has seen” [God] in 1 John 4:12?
This question is based on discussion in the comments on two separate questions here and here
No man hath seen God at any time. If we love one another, God dwelleth
in us, and his love is perfected in ...
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Why does the NIV translates 1 John 2:15: love 'for' the father instead of 'of'
Most translations (KJV, ESV, NASB...) translates of.
ESV:
Do not love the world or the things in the world. If anyone loves the
world, the love of the Father is not in him.
The NIV translates for.
...
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1answer
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In 2 Kings 17:11 LXX, what are “κοινωνοὺς καὶ ἐχάραξαν”?
The YLT, based on the Hebrew has:
2 Kings 17:11
YLT(i) 11 and make perfume there in all high places, like the nations that Jehovah removed from their presence, and do evil things to provoke Jehovah,
...
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1answer
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In Leviticus 6:2 LXX, what is the meaning of κοινωνίας?
The NLT version of Leviticus 6:2, based on the Hebrew, has this:
[Lev 6:2 NLT] (2) "Suppose one of you sins against your associate and is unfaithful to the LORD. Suppose you cheat in a deal ...
3
votes
1answer
49 views
In Philippians 1:5, what does Paul mean by κοινωνίᾳ?
[Phl 1:5 YLT] (5) for your contribution to the good news from the first day till now,
[Phl 1:5 NIV] (5) because of your partnership in the gospel from the first day until now,
[Phl 1:5 NKJV] (5) for ...
5
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1answer
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μέν … δέ with trailling καὶ
In English, it is idiomatic to have the word 'and' before the last item in a list, such as "I like coffee, tea, and beer" (with or without the last comma!).
In Ephesians 4:11, there is a &...
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1answer
49 views
What are the words at the bottom of this codex leaf from the Gospel of Thomas?
This is the last page of the Nag Hammadi Codex II of the Gospel of Thomas:
The last two lines look like (with mixed cases)
π*γα***ςιον
πκαταθωμάς
The second of these is "according to Thomas" ...
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2answers
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In 1 Corinthians 15:42, is what's sown in corruption the same thing that's raised in incorruption per implied pronouns?
I've made an argument from the pronouns in 1 Corinthians 15:42 that the thing that's sown in corruption (i.e., our body) is the same thing that's later raised in incorruption because both are called &...
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1answer
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Does the use of ἦν in John 1:10 mean the pre-incarnate Word was in the world from the beginning of creation?
Does the use of ἦν in John 1:10 mean the pre-incarnate Word was in the world from the beginning of creation?
He was in the world (ἐν τῳ κοσμῳ ἠν [en tōi kosmōi ēn]). Imperfect tense of continuous ...
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4answers
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Does the Latin Vulgate propagate a translation error in Genesis 3:15?
There are a few translation of Genesis 3:15 which reference the one who will crush the serpent's head using the feminine pronoun 'she'. For example, the Douay-Rheims Bible renders the verse as:
“I ...
