Questions tagged [1-corinthians]

Paul's first (preserved) letter to the church in Corinth.

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Does Paul contradict Jesus by saying not to eat with sinners?

In 1 Corinthians, Paul is writing to the church at Corinth after hearing reports over various matters. One of them is sexual immorality within the church at Corinth. Of this matter he says in 1 ...
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1 Cor. 2: 8- in the context of “if they had (known the glorious Lord)”, could “they” also refer to Roman political leaders?

Text: 1 Corinthians 2: 8 (ESV) "None of the rulers of this age understood this, for if they had, they would not have crucified the Lord of glory."
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Is singleness better than marriage? (Help understanding 1 Corinthians 7)

The Bible says we should only be concerned with the things of the Lord, that we should be totally devoted to worshiping him and pleasing him. Paul in 1 Corinthians 7 seems to be saying that marriage ...
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How is speaking in tongues an edifying practice for individuals themselves?

1 Corinthians 14:4 (NIV) reads: 4 Anyone who speaks in a tongue edifies themselves, but the one who prophesies edifies the church. How is speaking in tongues an activity that edifies the individual ...
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What did the apostle Paul use the gift of tongues for?

In 1 Corinthians 14:18-19 (NIV) Paul said: 18 I thank God that I speak in tongues more than all of you. 19 But in the church I would rather speak five intelligible words to instruct others than ten ...
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Does 'perished' in 1 Cor 15:18 indicate complete cessation of existence?

1 Corinthians 15:18 For if the dead are not raised, not even Christ has been raised; 17 and if Christ has not been raised, your faith is worthless; you are still in your sins. 18 Then those also who ...
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How to reconcile 1 Corinthians 10:13 & 2 Corinthians 1:8?

1 Corinthians 10:13 No temptation has overtaken you except what is common to mankind. And God is faithful; he will not let you be tempted beyond what you can bear. But when you are tempted, he will ...
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Was it ok to swear in 1 Corinthians 15:31?

Matthew 5:34 But I tell you, do not swear an oath at all: either by heaven, for it is God's throne; 1 Corinthians 15:31 For I swear, dear brothers and sisters, that I face death daily. This is as ...
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When did Paul write 1 Corinthians, before or after his 1st trial?

1 Corinthians 4:3 I care very little if I am judged by you or by any human court; indeed, I do not even judge myself. Did Paul write this before his first trial?
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1 Corinthians 14:13 - why pray to interpret your own message?

"So with yourselves, since you are eager for manifestations of the Spirit, strive to excel in building up the church. Therefore, one who speaks in a tongue should pray that he may interpret. For ...
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What does 1 Corinthians 14:36 mean?

What does 1 Corinthians 14:36 What? came the word of God out from you? or came it unto you only? mean?
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Why does Paul contradict Jesus regarding acceptance of women’s uncovered hair during worship?

Why does Jesus respect women’s uncovered hair during worship in Luke 7:44, but Paul rejects women’s uncovered hair during worship in 1 Corinthians 11:5-6? Luke 7:44 [NIV] - Jesus Respecting Women’s ...
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What is the difference between “Jesus Christ” and “Christ Jesus”? [duplicate]

In 1 Corinthians 1, the term "Jesus Christ" appears 6 times while the term "Christ Jesus" appears 4 times. Is there any significance in the difference in the way Paul uses these ...
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What is Paul saying in 1 Corinthians 7:5 concerning sexual intercourse and prayer?

NIV 1 Corinthians 7:1 Now for the matters you wrote about: “It is good for a man not to have sexual relations with a woman.” 2But since sexual immorality is occurring, each man should have sexual ...
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Why did KJB add the phrase “the author” in 1 Corinthians 14:33?

King James Bible, 1 Corinthians 14:33 For God is not the author of confusion, but of peace, as in all churches of the saints. Darby Bible Translation For God is not [a God] of disorder but of peace,...
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Where did this translation of 1 Corinthians 12:31 - 13:8 originate?

I was provided the translation at this link as a reading. The wording there is: Be ambitious for the higher gifts. And I am going to show you a way that is better than any of them. If I have all the ...
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What does the phrase 'being not without law to God,but under the law to Christ' mean in 1 Corinthians 9:21?

1 Corinthians 9:21 ASV 21 to them that are without law, as without law, not being without law to God, but under law to Christ, that I might gain them that are without law. The above phrase seems a ...
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Why did NASB translate μαλακος in 1 Cor 6:9 as “effeminate”?

Why did NASB translate μαλακος in 1 Cor 6:9 as "effeminate"? The NASB footnote for μαλακος says that the effeminacy refers specifically to "effeminate by perversion." What does &...
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Why is the phrase 'not being myself under the law' missing in 1 Corinthians 9:20 in the KJV?

1 Corinthians 9:20 KJV 20 And unto the Jews I became as a Jew, that I might gain the Jews; to them that are under the law, as under the law, that I might gain them that are under the law; 1 ...
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1 Corinthians 4:14 — “I do not write these things to shame you” versus 1 Corinthians 6:5 and 15:34 — “I speak to your shame”

In 1 Corinthians 4:14, the apostle Paul wrote to the Corinthians, I do not write these things to shame you, but I warn [you] as my beloved children. Οὐκ ἐντρέπων ὑμᾶς γράφω ταῦτα ἀλλ᾽ ὡς τέκνα μου ...
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What is the connection between “because of the angels” 1 Corinthians 11:10 and Psalm 8:5? [closed]

1 Corinthians 11:1-16 mentions - mankind, glory, honour, angels just as Psalm 8:5 does.
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In which versions of Latin Vulgate this phrase “as I also am of Christ” present?

1 Corinthians 4:16, (DRB): Wherefore I beseech you, be ye followers of me, as I also am of Christ. This phrase "as I also am of Christ" present in Douay-Rheims Bible, I looked a version of ...
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How is food connected to sexually immorality in 1 Corianthians 6:13-18?

.1 Corinthians 6:13 NASB 13 Food is for the [g]stomach and the [h]stomach is for food, but God will do away with both [i]of them. Yet the body is not for immorality, but for the Lord, and the Lord is ...
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1 Corinthians 1:25, who is God?

1 Corinthians 1:25, (DRB): For the foolishness of God is wiser than men; and the weakness of God is stronger than men. The question is so simple: Who is meant by God in the verse? God the father, or ...
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(1 Corinthians 13:7) Love bears, hopes, endures ALL things? really?

1 Corinthians 13:7, "It [love, agape, ἀγάπη] bears all things, believes all things, hopes all things, endures all things. The greek "πάντα/panta" means all/every. What does it mean to "hope all?". ...
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‭Translation of the word διακρίνων in 1 Corinthians‬ ‭11:29

“For those who eat and drink without discerning the body of Christ eat and drink judgment on themselves.” 1 Corinthians‬ ‭11:29‬ ‭ The word interpreted discerning here what does the original mean and ...
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In 1 Corinthians 3:9, does “You are God's field” refer only to the Body of Christ, and if so, what does it mean?

In the gospels, Jesus referred to the "field" as "the world": [Mat 13:38 NKJV] (38) "The field is the world, the good seeds are the sons of the kingdom, but the tares are the ...
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If “God is not the author of confusion” (1 Corinthians 14:33), how is Genesis 11:7 to be understood?

1 Corinthians 14:33 God is not the author of confusion. Genesis 11:7 Come, let us go down and confuse their language. Deuteronomy 28:20 The LORD will send on you curses, confusion and rebuke in ...
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1 Corinthians 10:13, was the temptation of Jesus human or superhuman?

1 Corinthians 10:13 DRB: Let no temptation take hold on you, but such as is human. And God is faithful, who will not suffer you to be tempted above that which you are able: but will make also with ...
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Was an additional purpose of the first-century church's Sunday worship service to evangelize visitors?

I have always wondered about a preacher who proclaims the Gospel during weekly services, where 90 percent or more of the audience already consists of church members, instead of going out and looking ...
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How do scholarly Greek lexicons inform our view of the translation of the Greek phrase “σῶμα ψυχικόν” at 1 Corinthians 15:44?

1 Corinthians 15:44 (GNT): σπείρεται σῶμα ψυχικόν, ἐγείρεται σῶμα πνευματικόν. ἔστι σῶμα ψυχικόν, καὶ ἔστι σῶμα πνευματικόν. 1 Corinthians 15:44 Latin Vulgate: seminatur ...
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Who is the one lord in 1 Corinthians 8:6?

I Corinthians 8:6 of the American Standard Version of the bible says, yet to us there is one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we unto him; and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all ...
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What does 1 Corinthians 1:27 mean?

What does is it mean that God used the foolish in the world to shame the wise?
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A question about the mind of Christ in Corinthians and Philippians

For who hath known the mind of the Lord, that he may instruct him? But we have the mind of Christ. [1 Corinthians 2:16 KJV] Here, νοῦν, noun (mind) is accusative, masculine singular see Biblehub with ...
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How to understand 1 Corinthians 12:3 in the light of Matthew 7:21-23?

Paul clearly says that no one can say Jesus is Lord except by the Holy Spirit 1 Corianthians 12:3 NASB 3 Therefore I make known to you that no one speaking [a]by the Spirit of God says, “Jesus is [...
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Who is the “possessor of heaven and earth” in Genesis 14:19. Abraham or God?

Who is the "possessor of heaven and earth" in Genesis 14:19 And he blessed him, and said, Blessed be Abram of the most high God, possessor of heaven and earth: 20 and blessed be the most high ...
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Are the term 'one God' and 'one Lord' in 1 Corinthians 8:6 equally divine designations?

ΠΡΟΣ ΚΟΡΙΝΘΙΟΥΣ Α΄ 8:6 Greek NT: Westcott and Hort / [NA27 and UBS4 variants] ἀλλ' ἡμῖν εἷς θεὸς ὁ πατήρ, ἐξ οὗ τὰ πάντα καὶ ἡμεῖς εἰς αὐτόν, καὶ εἷς κύριος Ἰησοῦς Χριστός, δι' οὗ τὰ πάντα καὶ ...
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What is the accurate translation of “ψυχικὸς δὲ ἄνθρωπος” in 1 Corinthians 2:14?

1 Corinthians 2:14 (DRB): 14 But the sensual man perceiveth not these things that are of the Spirit of God; for it is foolishness to him, and he cannot understand, because it is spiritually ...
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Mark 13:32 - Why doesn't the Holy Spirit know?

Mark 13:32 (ASV): But of that day or that hour knoweth no one, not even the angels in heaven, neither the Son, but the Father. At Mark 13:32, Jesus teaches that in the entire range of heavenly beings,...
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Does Genesis 2:24 speak exclusively to male-female copulation?

This answer to another question makes a strong case that Genesis 2:24 refers to conception as the thing that makes two into "one flesh". If so, then it seems same-sex activities would not result in "...
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Why does Paul make general resurrection conditional Christ's resurrection in 1 Cor 15:14-18?

Paul argues: 1 Cor 15:13 If there is no resurrection of the dead, Christ has not been raised either. [LEB] I take this to mean Christ could not have been raised if no one can be raised. So far this ...
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The spiritual person judges all things?

The spiritual person judges all things, but is himself to be judged by no one. 1 Corinthians 2:15 ESV In 1 Cor 2, Paul says the "natural person" can not understand God's truth, because it requires ...
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What is the difference in meaning between “fellowship” in 1 Corinthians 1:9 & “communion” in 2 Corinthians 13:14?

What is the difference in meaning between “fellowship” in 1 Corinthians 1:9 & “communion” in 2 Corinthians 13:14? 1 Corinthians 1:9 9 God is faithful, by whom ye were called unto the fellowship ...
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In the culture of Corinth in Paul's time, what does being “engaged” mean?

1 Corinthians 7:36-38, NIV: "36 If anyone is worried that he might not be acting honorably toward the virgin he is engaged to, and if his passions are too strong and he feels he ought to marry, ...
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Does 1 Corinthians 15:44 refer to Dualist Anthropology?

Does 1 Corinthians 15:44 refer to Dualist Anthropology? Dualist Anthropology is the view of the body-soul relation as dualistic, the body and the soul being different as the soul that inhabits the ...
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What is significant about “only in the Lord” with regards to widows remarrying? 1 Corinthians 7:39

The verse is clearly about widows but I am most concerned with the hermeneutics of the phrase “only in the Lord”; considering Apostle Paul did not say for instance, only with another believer or ...
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What is the difference between “knowledge” in Ephesians 3:19 & “wisdom ” in 1 Corinthians 1:30?

What is the difference between "knowledge" in Ephesians 3:19 and to know the love of Christ, which passeth knowledge, that ye might be filled with all the fulness of God. ( AKJV ) & "...
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Why does the kjv include the phrase 'for the earth is the Lord's and the fullness thereof' in1 Corinthians 10:28

It seems this phrase is wanting in some other texts 1 Corinthians 10:28 KJV 28 But if any man say unto you, This is offered in sacrifice unto idols, eat not for his sake that showed it, and for ...
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Are all angels awaiting judgment fallen? 1 Corinthians 6:3

In light of this verse “Do you not know that we are to judge angels? How much more, then, matters pertaining to this life!” ‭‭1 Corinthians‬ ‭6:3‬ ‭ And taking into account that aggelos is a ...
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In 1 Corinthians 10:5 how should we understand “not well pleased” and “overthrown”?

[1Co 10:5 ASV] (5) Howbeit with most of them God was not well pleased: for they were overthrown in the wilderness. [Num 14:16 KJV] (16) Because the LORD was not able to bring this people into the ...

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