Questions tagged [1-corinthians]
Paul's first (preserved) letter to the church in Corinth.
332
questions
2
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1answer
19 views
Does the use of δέ (de, “but, and, now”) in 1 Corinthians 14:35 preclude it being a mere restatement of verse 34?
Some interpretations I've heard of 1 Corinthians 14:34-35 argue that because verse 35 is merely restating what is said in verse 34, and since verse 35 discusses women asking questions, therefore verse ...
1
vote
1answer
40 views
What are the alternatives to marriage in 1 Cor 7:9?
1 Cor 7:8-9 (NRSV)
To the unmarried and the widows I say that it is well for them to remain unmarried as I am.
But if they are not practicing self-control, they should marry. For it is better to ...
4
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2answers
67 views
Does 1 Corinthians 15:49 show we are not currently in God’s image?
We know from Genesis that we are created in God's image.
Genesis 1:26: Then God said, “Let Us make mankind in Our image, according to Our likeness"
Genesis 1:27: So God created mankind in his ...
2
votes
2answers
31 views
Does 1 Corinthians 10:8 allude to Numbers 25:8?
1 Corinthians 10:8 We should not commit sexual immorality, as some of them did—and in one day twenty-three thousand of them died.
Does this allude to the following:
Numbers 25:6 Just then an Israelite ...
5
votes
2answers
273 views
Is the Son second in authority under God the Father? 1 Corinthians 15:24-28
1 Corinthians 15:24-28 (NRSV):
24 Then comes the end, when he hands over the kingdom to God the Father, after he has destroyed every ruler and every authority and power. 25 For he must reign until he ...
5
votes
2answers
195 views
In 1 Corinthians 15:42, is what's sown in corruption the same thing that's raised in incorruption per implied pronouns?
I've made an argument from the pronouns in 1 Corinthians 15:42 that the thing that's sown in corruption (i.e., our body) is the same thing that's later raised in incorruption because both are called &...
3
votes
2answers
64 views
What can we learn about the relationship between “God” and “the Spirit of God” ontologically from 1 Corinthians 2:6-16?
1 Corinthians 2:6-16 (NRSV):
6 Yet among the mature we do speak wisdom, though it is not a wisdom of this age or of the rulers of this age, who are doomed to perish. 7 But we speak God’s wisdom, ...
3
votes
1answer
32 views
What is the gift of faith?
1 Corinthians 12:7 Now to each one the manifestation of the Spirit is given for the common good. 8To one there is given through the Spirit a message of wisdom, to another a message of knowledge by ...
4
votes
3answers
333 views
Literal translation of Hosea 13:14?
In the septuagint, Hosea 13:14 has
ἐκ χειρὸς ᾅδου ῥύσομαι αὐτοὺς καὶ ἐκ θανάτου λυτρώσομαι αὐτούς ποῦ ἡ δίκη σου θάνατε ποῦ τὸ κέντρον σου ᾅδη παράκλησις κέκρυπται ἀπὸ ὀφθαλμῶν μου
So we would have ...
10
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6answers
548 views
1 Corinthians 3:15 What does “escaping through the flames” convey?
1 Corinthians 3
12 If anyone builds on this foundation using gold, silver, costly stones, wood, hay or straw,
13 their work will be shown for what it is, because the Day will bring it to light. It ...
3
votes
2answers
25 views
In 1 Corinthians 15:26, what is the significance of καταργεῖται (“abolish”) being a present indicative instead of a future?
[1Co 15:26 NASB] (26) The last enemy that will be abolished is death.
[1Co 15:26 MGNT] (26) ἔσχατος ἐχθρὸς καταργεῖται ὁ θάνατος
The context of 1 Corinthians 15 is a little difficult to sort out, ...
4
votes
3answers
226 views
Are the mysteries in the Spirit (that no-one understands) uttered in a language that can be interpreted via the gift of interpretation of tongues?
1 Corinthians 14:2 (ESV) says:
2 For one who speaks in a tongue speaks not to men but to God; for no one understands him, but he utters mysteries in the Spirit.
However, later verses say:
5 Now I ...
0
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0answers
20 views
24k or 23k died in the plague? [duplicate]
Did 23 000 or 24 000 died in the plague?
Numbers 25:9. And those that died in the plague were twenty and four
thousand.
1 Corinthians 10:8. Neither let us commit fornication, as some of them
...
2
votes
4answers
303 views
In 1 Corinthians 7:8, is Paul intentionally undoing Genesis 2:18?
1 Corinthians 7:8 (NIV): Now to the unmarried and the widows I say: It is good for them to stay unmarried, as I do.
Genesis 2:18 (NIV): The Lord God said, “It is not good for the man to be alone. I ...
4
votes
5answers
134 views
Are “praying in a tongue”, “praying with one's spirit” and “praying in the (Holy) Spirit” interchangeable expressions?
Jude 1:20 (NIV):
20 But you, dear friends, by building yourselves up in your most holy faith and praying in the Holy Spirit,
Ephesians 6:18 (NIV):
18 And pray in the Spirit on all occasions with ...
3
votes
2answers
79 views
What does it mean to “sing with one's spirit”?
In 1 Corinthians 14:13-17 (NIV), Paul is initially addressing the gift of tongues, but in V15 he suddenly introduces the concepts of "praying with one's spirit" and, in particular, "...
4
votes
1answer
41 views
Where are we to speak in tongues when no interpreter is around?
1 Corinthians 14:26-28 (NIV) says:
26 What then shall we say, brothers and sisters? When you come together, each of you has a hymn, or a word of instruction, a revelation, a tongue or an ...
3
votes
2answers
291 views
Is praying in tongues to God in a private setting scripturally supported by 1 Corinthians 14:2?
1 Corinthians 14:2 (NIV):
For anyone who speaks in a tongue does not speak to people but to God. Indeed, no one understands them; they utter mysteries by the Spirit.
If someone does not speak to ...
4
votes
4answers
142 views
Does the Holy Spirit's distribution of spiritual gifts depend in any way on how eagerly we desire them?
In 1 Corinthians 12:4-11 (NIV), Paul explains that the distribution of the spiritual gifts is a sovereign decision of the Holy Spirit, who distributes the spiritual gifts as He sees fit:
4 There are ...
4
votes
3answers
361 views
What did Paul mean when he said “with a demonstration of the Spirit’s power” in 1 Corinthians 2:4?
1 Corinthians 2:4-5 (NIV):
4 My message and my preaching were not with wise and persuasive words, but with a demonstration of the Spirit’s power, 5 so that your faith might not rest on human wisdom, ...
3
votes
2answers
85 views
Difference between wisdom, knowledge and prophecy?
1 Corinthians 12:7-11 (NIV):
7 Now to each one the manifestation of the Spirit is given for the common good. 8 To one there is given through the Spirit a message of wisdom, to another a message of ...
4
votes
3answers
96 views
What is the spiritual relationship between faith, hope and love when perfection comes and the imperfect disappears?
1 Corinthians chapter 13 suggests that whereas some gifts of the Spirit will end, the gifts of faith, hope, and love will endure, and that love is the greatest gift of all:
And now these three remain:...
0
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0answers
26 views
What does 'for' mean in 1 Corinthians 15:3?
1 Corinthians 15:3
...that Christ died for our sins in accordance with the Scriptures (ESV)
Some possibilities I can think of:
'directly because of': we sinned by putting him to death.
'indirectly ...
1
vote
0answers
53 views
Is the resurrected body of Jesus fleshly?
“Hereby know ye the Spirit of God: Every spirit that confesseth that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is of God:”
1 John 4:2 KJV
Not addressing whether this is translated correctly in the ...
4
votes
2answers
81 views
How should one understand 1 Cor. 15:28 in view of Jesus being God?
The local context of 1 Cor. 15:28 extends from v20 to v28. With that in mind, what would be the answers for the specific questions connected with each of the following phrases in 1 Cor. 15:28 ...
6
votes
6answers
172 views
Should we interpret 1 Corinthians 12:3 literally?
1 Corinthians 12:3 A Faithful Version
Therefore, I am letting you know that no one speaking by the Spirit of God calls Jesus accursed; and no one can say [G2036] that Jesus is Lord, except by the ...
1
vote
1answer
120 views
Is “dead” in 1 Corinthians 15:42 singular or plural?
Here's the verse in question (NKJV):
So also [is] the resurrection of the dead. [The body] is sown in corruption, it is raised in incorruption.
In the original Greek, is "dead" singular or ...
1
vote
1answer
33 views
1 Corinthians 7:5 - Satan's Temptation and Lack of Self-Control
1 Corinthians 7:5 (ESV),
5 Do not deprive one another, except perhaps by agreement for a limited time, that you may devote yourselves to prayer; but then come together again, so that Satan may not ...
6
votes
5answers
901 views
How to understand John 4 in light of Exodus 17 and Numbers 20?
When Christ met the woman of Samaria he promised her that she will never thirst if she partook of the waters that he will give her.
John 4:10-14 NIV
10 Jesus answered her, “If you knew the gift of God ...
3
votes
5answers
634 views
Does Paul contradict Jesus by saying not to eat with sinners?
In 1 Corinthians, Paul is writing to the church at Corinth after hearing reports over various matters. One of them is sexual immorality within the church at Corinth. Of this matter he says in 1 ...
2
votes
2answers
22 views
1 Cor. 2: 8- in the context of “if they had (known the glorious Lord)”, could “they” also refer to Roman political leaders?
Text: 1 Corinthians 2: 8 (ESV)
"None of the rulers of this age understood this, for if they had, they would not have crucified the Lord of glory."
-1
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1answer
54 views
Is singleness better than marriage? (Help understanding 1 Corinthians 7)
The Bible says we should only be concerned with the things of the Lord, that we should be totally devoted to worshiping him and pleasing him. Paul in 1 Corinthians 7 seems to be saying that marriage ...
6
votes
4answers
1k views
How is speaking in tongues an edifying practice for individuals themselves?
1 Corinthians 14:4 (NIV) reads:
4 Anyone who speaks in a tongue edifies themselves, but the one who prophesies edifies the church.
How is speaking in tongues an activity that edifies the individual ...
1
vote
2answers
139 views
What did the apostle Paul use the gift of tongues for?
In 1 Corinthians 14:18-19 (NIV) Paul said:
18 I thank God that I speak in tongues more than all of you. 19 But in the church I would rather speak five intelligible words to instruct others than ten ...
1
vote
3answers
51 views
Does 'perished' in 1 Cor 15:18 indicate complete cessation of existence?
1 Corinthians 15:18
For if the dead are not raised, not even Christ has been raised; 17 and if Christ has not been raised, your faith is worthless; you are still in your sins. 18 Then those also who ...
2
votes
2answers
81 views
How to reconcile 1 Corinthians 10:13 & 2 Corinthians 1:8?
1 Corinthians 10:13
No temptation has overtaken you except what is common to mankind. And God is faithful; he will not let you be tempted beyond what you can bear. But when you are tempted, he will ...
1
vote
1answer
35 views
Was it ok to swear in 1 Corinthians 15:31?
Matthew 5:34
But I tell you, do not swear an oath at all: either by heaven, for it is God's throne;
1 Corinthians 15:31
For I swear, dear brothers and sisters, that I face death daily. This is as ...
0
votes
1answer
27 views
When did Paul write 1 Corinthians, before or after his 1st trial?
1 Corinthians 4:3
I care very little if I am judged by you or by any human court; indeed, I do not even judge myself.
Did Paul write this before his first trial?
4
votes
2answers
80 views
1 Corinthians 14:13 - why pray to interpret your own message?
"So with yourselves, since you are eager for manifestations of the Spirit, strive to excel in building up the church. Therefore, one who speaks in a tongue should pray that he may interpret. For ...
2
votes
1answer
52 views
What does 1 Corinthians 14:36 mean?
What does
1 Corinthians 14:36 What? came the word of God out from you? or came
it unto you only?
mean?
2
votes
4answers
138 views
Why does Paul contradict Jesus regarding acceptance of women’s uncovered hair during worship?
Why does Jesus respect women’s uncovered hair during worship in Luke 7:44, but Paul rejects women’s uncovered hair during worship in 1 Corinthians 11:5-6?
Luke 7:44 [NIV] - Jesus Respecting Women’s ...
0
votes
1answer
40 views
What is the difference between “Jesus Christ” and “Christ Jesus”? [duplicate]
In 1 Corinthians 1, the term "Jesus Christ" appears 6 times while the term "Christ Jesus" appears 4 times. Is there any significance in the difference in the way Paul uses these ...
3
votes
2answers
83 views
What is Paul saying in 1 Corinthians 7:5 concerning sexual intercourse and prayer?
NIV 1 Corinthians 7:1 Now for the matters you wrote about: “It is good for a man not to have sexual relations with a woman.” 2But since sexual immorality is occurring, each man should have sexual ...
4
votes
2answers
53 views
Why did KJB add the phrase “the author” in 1 Corinthians 14:33?
King James Bible, 1 Corinthians 14:33
For God is not the author of confusion, but of peace, as in all churches of the saints.
Darby Bible Translation
For God is not [a God] of disorder but of peace,...
2
votes
0answers
33 views
Where did this translation of 1 Corinthians 12:31 - 13:8 originate?
I was provided the translation at this link as a reading. The wording there is:
Be ambitious for the higher gifts. And I am going to show you a way
that is better than any of them. If I have all the ...
2
votes
2answers
179 views
What does the phrase 'being not without law to God,but under the law to Christ' mean in 1 Corinthians 9:21?
1 Corinthians 9:21 ASV
21 to them that are without law, as without law, not being without law to God, but under law to Christ, that I might gain them that are without law.
The above phrase seems a ...
2
votes
2answers
203 views
Why did NASB translate μαλακος in 1 Cor 6:9 as “effeminate”?
Why did NASB translate μαλακος in 1 Cor 6:9 as "effeminate"?
The NASB footnote for μαλακος says that the effeminacy refers specifically to "effeminate by perversion." What does &...
7
votes
2answers
1k views
Why is the phrase 'not being myself under the law' missing in 1 Corinthians 9:20 in the KJV?
1 Corinthians 9:20 KJV
20 And unto the Jews I became as a Jew, that I might gain the Jews; to them that are under the law, as under the law, that I might gain them that are under the law;
1 ...
4
votes
2answers
74 views
1 Corinthians 4:14 — “I do not write these things to shame you” versus 1 Corinthians 6:5 and 15:34 — “I speak to your shame”
In 1 Corinthians 4:14, the apostle Paul wrote to the Corinthians,
I do not write these things to shame you, but I warn [you] as my beloved children.
Οὐκ ἐντρέπων ὑμᾶς γράφω ταῦτα ἀλλ᾽ ὡς τέκνα μου ...
1
vote
2answers
53 views
What is the connection between “because of the angels” 1 Corinthians 11:10 and Psalm 8:5? [closed]
1 Corinthians 11:1-16 mentions - mankind, glory, honour, angels just as Psalm 8:5 does.
