Questions tagged [romans]

The epistle to the Romans was written by Paul to the Christians in Rome, in an effort to introduce them to his teaching.

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How does "legei" compare with "lalei" in Romans 3:19?

Romans 3:19 ESV "Now we know that whatever the law says it speaks to those who are under the law, so that every mouth may be stopped, and the whole world may be held accountable to God." [...
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Using Romans 9:16 can you explain the fundamental differences between Mercy and Grace

Romans 9:16 (NIV) says: It does not, therefore, depend on human desire or effort, but on God’s mercy. According to my understanding, if its not of works or effort i.e. does not depend on one's ...
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What does "obey/peithomenois" mean in "but obey unrighteousness" Romans 2:8?

Romans 2:8 ESV "but for those who are self-seeking and do not obey the truth, but obey unrighteousness, there will be wrath and fury." My emphasis. [obey/peithomenois] Can one obey unless ...
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How should Romans 5:18-19 best be translated?

This is the verse in question and how David Bentley Hart translates it... Romans 5:18-19 Greek Ἄρα οὖν ὡς δι᾽ἑνὸς παραπτώματος εἰς πάντας ἀνθρώπους εἰς κατάκριμα, οὕτως καὶ δι᾽ ἑνὸς δικαιώματος εἰς ...
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Is there an implication of control/governance in Romans 8:6?

Romans 8:6 in the NIV: The mind governed by the flesh is death, but the mind governed by the Spirit is life and peace. The word translated here as "mind governed by" is the word "...
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What does "charisma/free gift" mean in Romans 5:16?

Romans 5:16 ESV "And the free gift[dorema] is not like the result of that one man's sin. For the judgement following one trespass brought condemnation, but the free gift[charisma] following ...
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How is heart to be understood in Rom. 10:10

The Old Testament makes a distinction at times, it seems between heart as center of thoughts (modern mind) and kidneys as center of emotions(also Revelation 2:23 makes the distinction). However, I’m ...
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What’s the correct translation for Roman’s 4:3?

I’ve heard some say that "Logizomai" actually means to reason, not to credit. Also, the word "to" in the phrase, "to him as righteousness" is not in the Greek! It would ...
Thejesusdude's user avatar
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What does "protoimasen/prepared beforehand" mean in Romans 9:23?

Romans 9:22-23 ESV 22 "What if God, desiring to show his wrath and to make known his power, has endured with much patience vessels of wrath prepared for destruction, 23 in order to make known ...
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What is meant by shame in Romans 10:11

‭‭Romans‬ ‭10‬:‭11‬ ‭NET For the scripture says, “Everyone who believes in him will not be put to shame.” ‬‬ What does shame mean here given that elsewhere in the book of Romans Paul mentions being ...
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How are we to view Romans 8:1,2, which speaks to a new "spirit of life" in Christ Jesus, in light of Jesus' command in Mark 12:30, to put God first?

If the greatest commandment is to: Love God with all heart; soul; mind; and strength, as directed by Christ Jesus, in answer to a scribe's question, then what are we to make of Paul's statement, which ...
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Have the end times prophesied in Matthew 24:14 been expected to happen immediately after Romans 1:8?

Matthew 24:14 New International Version And this gospel of the kingdom will be preached in the whole world as a testimony to all nations, and then the end will come. Romans 1:8 New International ...
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Is 'the law of faith' in Romans 3:27 the same as 'the law of the Spirit' in Romans 8:2?

There is no dispute as to the two texts in question correctly using "law", as that is the literal meaning of the word νόμος. In chapter 7 Paul speaks of two "laws" (flesh and ...
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Is God responsible for the Unbelief of the Unconverted Mankind, according to Romans 11:32?

(I found an earlier question on this but it is a word comparison between Rom 11:32 and Luke 5:6). Though as startling and controversial as it may sound, the Scripture seems to be emphatic: it is God ...
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Understanding the Paradox: God's Visibility and Invisibility in Romans 1:18-25 and Acts 17:22-31?

Romans 1:18-25 ESV 18 For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men, who by their unrighteousness suppress the truth. 19 For what can be known about ...
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Does the statement "all who are led by the Spirit of God are sons of God" apply to non-Christians? (Romans 8:14)

14 For all who are led by the Spirit of God are sons of God. 15 For you did not receive the spirit of slavery to fall back into fear, but you have received the spirit of sonship. When we cry, “Abba! ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
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Is the Paul of Philippians 3:20-21 the same author, or teaching the same kind of resurrection as described in 1 Corinthians 15:35-38?

Q. Is the Paul of Philippians 3:20-21 the same author, or teaching the same kind of resurrection as described in 1 Corinthians 15:35-38? [Phl 3:20-21 YLT] [20] For our citizenship is in the heavens, ...
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Riddle: How is a Jew not a Jew, but a Gentile is a Jew?

Romans 2:28 For he is not a Jew, which is one outwardly; neither is that circumcision which is outward in the flesh. Revelation 3:9 Behold, I will make them of the synagogue of Satan, which say ...
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Does Paul mean what he says: God will grant "Immortality through perseverance in Good Works"? (Rom. 2:7)

Romans 2:5b-10 God, 6 ...will repay everyone according to his works: 7 eternal life to those who seek glory, honor, and immortality through perseverance in good works, 8 but wrath and fury to those ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
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Does Romans' use of ἀπολύτρωσις (redemption) indicate something different from the LXX's use of λύτρωσις?

In Paul's preaching of the Gospel, he states believers have redemption: Romans 3:21-26 (ESV): 21 But now the righteousness of God has been manifested apart from the law, although the Law and the ...
Revelation Lad's user avatar
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Why does "thelei/will" change to "boulemati/will" in Romans 9:19?

Romans 9:18-19 ESV "So then he has mercy on whomever he wills[thelei], and he hardens whomever he wills[thelei]. 19 You will say to me then, "Why does he still find fault? For who can ...
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Are there any reasonable non-traditional interpretations of Romans 13 and similar "submit to the authorities" passages?

I can't make any coherent sense of the submission to government passages in the Bible like Romans 13:1-7, 1 Peter 2:13-17, and Titus 3:1. I understand that there is a practical element to these ...
BringTheJubilee's user avatar
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hilasterion as a mercy seat

Many have attempted to say that the hilasterion is a 'mercy seat' but the word ilios does not mean 'mercy'. That word is eleos. Strong 1656. What does this Ilios mean and how does it differ from ...
Christian Saucier's user avatar
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What was Paul talking about when he wrote Romans 13:1-7?

Romans 13:1-7 NET 1 Let every person be subject to the governing authorities. For there is no authority except by God’s appointment, and the authorities that exist have been instituted by God. 2 So ...
Stephen Collings's user avatar
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Romans 10:13 - How long does it take to get saved when someone calls on the name of the Lord? (aorist, middle, subjunctive)

Romans 10:13 NIV 84 For everyone who calls on the name of the Lord will be saved. πᾶς γὰρ ὃς ἂν ἐπικαλέσηται τὸ ὄνομα κυρίου σωθήσεται. [GNT] ἐπικαλέσηται This question is about the aorist tense of ...
Gregory Norton's user avatar
2 votes
6 answers
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Who are then therefore truly Jews according to Romans 2:28,29

Under the Old Covenant (or Old Testament, same difference) one had to be of a certain bloodline from Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, Judah and/or Benjamin (and possibly Levi) to fall under the category Jew, ...
Nihil Sine Deo's user avatar
2 votes
4 answers
761 views

Who is Paul referencing in Romans 1:18-32?

Romans 1:18-32 KJV 18 For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men, who hold the truth in unrighteousness; 19 Because that which may be known of God ...
moron's user avatar
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How does "image" in Romans 8:29 compare with "image" in Genesis 1:26?

Romans 8:29 ESV "For those whom he foreknew he also predestined to be conformed to the image of his Son, in order that he might be the firstborn among many brothers." [image/eikonos] My ...
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Does Romans 1:23 forbid depictions of anthropomorphized animals?

Does Romans 1:23 mean that anthropomorphic animal characters are problematic? and exchanged the glory of the immortal God for images of mortal man and birds and animals and reptiles.
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3 votes
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What is meant by Wordless Groans of the Spirit?

We see St Paul writing in Romans 8:26-28 (NIV) that the Spirit intercedes for us through ' wordless groans ' . One is intrigued by the said usage of St Paul who always stood for clarity and simplicity ...
Kadalikatt Joseph Sibichan's user avatar
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Does Romans 13:1-7 allow civil disobedience?

Romans 13:1-7 NIV 1 Let everyone be subject to the governing authorities, for there is no authority except that which God has established. The authorities that exist have been established by God. 2 ...
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What does "purpose/prothesin" mean in Romans 8:28?

Romans 8:28 "And we know that for those who love God all things work together for good, for those who are called according to his purpose." ESV. My emphasis. [purpose/prothesin]. What is ...
C. Stroud's user avatar
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The use of ἀπό in Romans 5:14

Can ἀπό in the sense of Romans 5:14 indicate that before this point, the opposite was true? For example, could this verse be used to make this claim: Before Adam, death did not reign
Galladite's user avatar
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Divorce and adultery is no longer as the law is dead by Christ risen? This is my question [closed]

From these scriptures bellow I’m asking for understanding of their meaning. I think that the reference to husband is metaphor to the law. Or is this just about divorce? Romans 7:1-6 1 Or do you not ...
Troy Idler's user avatar
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Who is "righteous" in Romans? [duplicate]

Therefore no one will be declared righteous in his sight by observing the law; rather, through the law we become conscious of sin. (Romans 3:20) For it is not those who hear the law who are righteous ...
another theory's user avatar
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3 answers
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Does Paul have the holy spirit? [closed]

Yes Romans 9:1 I speak the truth in Christ—I am not lying, my conscience confirms it through the Holy Spirit Acts 13:9 Then Saul, who was also called Paul, filled with the Holy Spirit, looked ...
another theory's user avatar
7 votes
5 answers
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What is the reconciliation of Romans 3:31 and Ephesians 2:15?

Is it maybe a different meaning of "abolish (katargeo)" or a different meaning of "law?" Because they seem somewhat contradictory. Do we then make void [καταργοῦμεν] the law ...
user56539's user avatar
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To what does Paul refer when he said "Higher Powers" in Romans 13:1?

Would Paul's comment include all tyrannical governments without the people rising up against them? Rom 13:1 (BLB) Let every soul be subject to the authorities being above him. For there is no ...
ray grant's user avatar
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How best to understand the NLT translation of νόμος in Romans 8:2?

Romans 8:2 NLT For the power of the life-giving Spirit has freed you through Christ Jesus from the power of sin that leads to death. KJV Romans 8 : 2 For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ ...
collen ndhlovu's user avatar
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3 answers
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In Romans 8:18, how is the aorist ἀποκαλυφθῆναι translated as a future tense?

ἀποκαλυφθῆναι Is the aorist and would be translated as “was revealed” Does μέλλουσαν (present tense) “is about to be” somehow change the aorist ἀποκαλυφθῆναι to the future tense? Can someone explain ...
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Does Mark 14:12 indicate it being sunset?

“On the first day of Unleavened Bread, when the Passover lamb was being sacrificed, His disciples *said to Him, “Where do You want us to go and prepare for You to eat the Passover?”” ‭‭Mark‬ ‭14‬:‭12‬ ...
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In Romans 5:18, what leads to righteousness?

Romans 5:18 reads as follows in the ESV: Therefore, as one trespass led to condemnation for all men, so one act of righteousness leads to justification and life for all men. There are footnotes that ...
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What is "the work of God" in Romans 14:20?

Romans 14:20 "Do not, for the sake of food, destroy the work of God. Everything is indeed clean, but it is wrong for anyone to make another stumble by what he eats." ESV. My emphasis. What ...
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How do we translate the Greek word ἐλογίσθη (elogisthē)?

Rom 4:3 BLB For what does the Scripture say? “And Abraham believed God, and it was reckoned to him for righteousness.” Rom 4:3 YLT for what doth the writing say? 'And Abraham did believe God, and ...
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When was the love of God shed abroad in our hearts in Romans 5:5?

Romans 5:5 “And hope maketh not ashamed [present tense]; because the love of God is shed abroad [perfect tense] in our hearts by the Holy Ghost which is given unto us.” This appears to say the ...
Gary Sears's user avatar
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3 answers
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Romans 1:32 (who knowing the righteous judgment of God?

In Romans 1:28-32 is verse 32 saying that the people that were given over to a debased mind know they are deserving of death? 28 Furthermore, since they did not see fit to acknowledge God, He gave ...
Joshua 's user avatar
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6 answers
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Why did God impute righteousness to Abraham? Does Paul conflate Genesis 15 and Genesis 17 in Romans 4?

Paul states in Romans 4:22 that there was a reason that righteousness was imputed to Abraham ('therefore'). The reason (or reasons) are stated in 4:16-21: He believed God (who quickens the dead and ...
Gary Sears's user avatar
1 vote
2 answers
121 views

What translation issues surround "we have an obligation" in Romans 8:12?

Here are 3 versions of Romans 8:12 with a comment of mine after each one: Berean Standard Bible "Therefore, brothers, we have an obligation, but it is not to the flesh, to live according to it&...
C. Stroud's user avatar
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What issues surround "me/not" in Romans 9:20?

Romans 9:20 ESV "But who are you, O man, to answer back to God? Will what is molded say to its molder, "Why have you made me like this?" [me to plasma erei-will what is molded say]. A....
C. Stroud's user avatar
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Alternative interpretation of Romans 1:20

The King James Version translates Romans 1:20 as follows: ‘For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his ...
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