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Questions tagged [romans]

The epistle to the Romans was written by Paul to the Christians in Rome, in an effort to introduce them to his teaching.

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What is the difference in meaning between Romans 2:12 and 3:9 with regard to sin?

Paul speaks of ‘sinned’ as a verb, but also of sin in the singular, as a noun, so what is the important difference between Romans 2:12 and 3:9? Romans 2:12 – For as many as have sinned without law ...
Lesley's user avatar
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Since it's no longer Paul who sins, but rather sin living in him that does the sinning, should he feel any guilt or shame, any need to confess?

In Romans 7:17 and 20 Paul teaches us that it's no longer born again Paul who sins, but rather sin living in him that does the sinning. Therefore should born again believers ever feel any guilt or ...
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What does the word god really mean? [closed]

In John 1:1c, should the Greek word θεὸς be translated into English as “a god” or “God”? Comment to the link above: The Father and the Son are one in the Spirit. "Rom 8,11" But if the Spirit ...
Iwan Dobrev's user avatar
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What does "through" mean in "sin came into the world through one man," Romans 5:12?

Romans 5:12 ESV "Therefore, just as sin came into the world through one man, and death through sin, and so death spread to all men because all sinned-." My emphasis. [dia/through Adam] ...
C. Stroud's user avatar
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What does "much more shall we be saved" mean in Romans 5:9?

Romans 5:9 ESV "Since, therefore, we have been justified by his blood, much more shall we be saved by him from the wrath of God." [My emphasis]. In what way is this "shall ..be saved&...
C. Stroud's user avatar
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Romans 9:5 - Which version is the right one?

I am asking this question because it seems to me that Romans 9:5 as per its translation will assert that Christ is indeed God, but the problem I am faced with now is the fact that there seems to be a ...
How why e's user avatar
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Romans 9:5 Is this a scriptural evidence for Pauline Trinitarian Christology

I am asking this question because it seems to me that Romans 9:5 as per its translation will assert that Christ is indeed God, but the problem I am faced with now is the fact that there seems to be a ...
How why e's user avatar
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What does "has been manifested" mean in Romans 3:21?

Romans 3:21 ESV "But now the righteousness of God has been manifested apart from the law, although the Law and the Prophets bear witness to it-". [My emphasis] What has been manifested? ...
C. Stroud's user avatar
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How does "legei" compare with "lalei" in Romans 3:19?

Romans 3:19 ESV "Now we know that whatever the law says it speaks to those who are under the law, so that every mouth may be stopped, and the whole world may be held accountable to God." [...
C. Stroud's user avatar
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Using Romans 9:16 can you explain the fundamental differences between Mercy and Grace

Romans 9:16 (NIV) says: It does not, therefore, depend on human desire or effort, but on God’s mercy. According to my understanding, if its not of works or effort i.e. does not depend on one's ...
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What does "obey/peithomenois" mean in "but obey unrighteousness" Romans 2:8?

Romans 2:8 ESV "but for those who are self-seeking and do not obey the truth, but obey unrighteousness, there will be wrath and fury." My emphasis. [obey/peithomenois] Can one obey unless ...
C. Stroud's user avatar
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How should Romans 5:18-19 best be translated?

This is the verse in question and how David Bentley Hart translates it... Romans 5:18-19 Greek Ἄρα οὖν ὡς δι᾽ἑνὸς παραπτώματος εἰς πάντας ἀνθρώπους εἰς κατάκριμα, οὕτως καὶ δι᾽ ἑνὸς δικαιώματος εἰς ...
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Is there an implication of control/governance in Romans 8:6?

Romans 8:6 in the NIV: The mind governed by the flesh is death, but the mind governed by the Spirit is life and peace. The word translated here as "mind governed by" is the word "...
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What does "charisma/free gift" mean in Romans 5:16?

Romans 5:16 ESV "And the free gift[dorema] is not like the result of that one man's sin. For the judgement following one trespass brought condemnation, but the free gift[charisma] following ...
C. Stroud's user avatar
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How is heart to be understood in Rom. 10:10

The Old Testament makes a distinction at times, it seems between heart as center of thoughts (modern mind) and kidneys as center of emotions(also Revelation 2:23 makes the distinction). However, I’m ...
Dan's user avatar
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What’s the correct translation for Roman’s 4:3?

I’ve heard some say that "Logizomai" actually means to reason, not to credit. Also, the word "to" in the phrase, "to him as righteousness" is not in the Greek! It would ...
Thejesusdude's user avatar
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4 answers
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What does "protoimasen/prepared beforehand" mean in Romans 9:23?

Romans 9:22-23 ESV 22 "What if God, desiring to show his wrath and to make known his power, has endured with much patience vessels of wrath prepared for destruction, 23 in order to make known ...
C. Stroud's user avatar
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What is meant by shame in Romans 10:11

‭‭Romans‬ ‭10‬:‭11‬ ‭NET For the scripture says, “Everyone who believes in him will not be put to shame.” ‬‬ What does shame mean here given that elsewhere in the book of Romans Paul mentions being ...
Thejesusdude's user avatar
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How are we to view Romans 8:1,2, which speaks to a new "spirit of life" in Christ Jesus, in light of Jesus' command in Mark 12:30, to put God first?

If the greatest commandment is to: Love God with all heart; soul; mind; and strength, as directed by Christ Jesus, in answer to a scribe's question, then what are we to make of Paul's statement, which ...
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Have the end times prophesied in Matthew 24:14 been expected to happen immediately after Romans 1:8?

Matthew 24:14 New International Version And this gospel of the kingdom will be preached in the whole world as a testimony to all nations, and then the end will come. Romans 1:8 New International ...
Betho's's user avatar
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Is 'the law of faith' in Romans 3:27 the same as 'the law of the Spirit' in Romans 8:2?

There is no dispute as to the two texts in question correctly using "law", as that is the literal meaning of the word νόμος. In chapter 7 Paul speaks of two "laws" (flesh and ...
Anne's user avatar
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Is God responsible for the Unbelief of the Unconverted Mankind, according to Romans 11:32?

(I found an earlier question on this but it is a word comparison between Rom 11:32 and Luke 5:6). Though as startling and controversial as it may sound, the Scripture seems to be emphatic: it is God ...
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Understanding the Paradox: God's Visibility and Invisibility in Romans 1:18-25 and Acts 17:22-31?

Romans 1:18-25 ESV 18 For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men, who by their unrighteousness suppress the truth. 19 For what can be known about ...
Mark's user avatar
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Does the statement "all who are led by the Spirit of God are sons of God" apply to non-Christians? (Romans 8:14)

14 For all who are led by the Spirit of God are sons of God. 15 For you did not receive the spirit of slavery to fall back into fear, but you have received the spirit of sonship. When we cry, “Abba! ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
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Is the Paul of Philippians 3:20-21 the same author, or teaching the same kind of resurrection as described in 1 Corinthians 15:35-38?

Q. Is the Paul of Philippians 3:20-21 the same author, or teaching the same kind of resurrection as described in 1 Corinthians 15:35-38? [Phl 3:20-21 YLT] [20] For our citizenship is in the heavens, ...
Ruminator's user avatar
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Riddle: How is a Jew not a Jew, but a Gentile is a Jew?

Romans 2:28 For he is not a Jew, which is one outwardly; neither is that circumcision which is outward in the flesh. Revelation 3:9 Behold, I will make them of the synagogue of Satan, which say ...
RHPclass79's user avatar
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Does Paul mean what he says: God will grant "Immortality through perseverance in Good Works"? (Rom. 2:7)

Romans 2:5b-10 God, 6 ...will repay everyone according to his works: 7 eternal life to those who seek glory, honor, and immortality through perseverance in good works, 8 but wrath and fury to those ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
5 votes
3 answers
162 views

Does Romans' use of ἀπολύτρωσις (redemption) indicate something different from the LXX's use of λύτρωσις?

In Paul's preaching of the Gospel, he states believers have redemption: Romans 3:21-26 (ESV): 21 But now the righteousness of God has been manifested apart from the law, although the Law and the ...
Revelation Lad's user avatar
7 votes
2 answers
333 views

Why does "thelei/will" change to "boulemati/will" in Romans 9:19?

Romans 9:18-19 ESV "So then he has mercy on whomever he wills[thelei], and he hardens whomever he wills[thelei]. 19 You will say to me then, "Why does he still find fault? For who can ...
C. Stroud's user avatar
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Are there any reasonable non-traditional interpretations of Romans 13 and similar "submit to the authorities" passages?

I can't make any coherent sense of the submission to government passages in the Bible like Romans 13:1-7, 1 Peter 2:13-17, and Titus 3:1. I understand that there is a practical element to these ...
BringTheJubilee's user avatar
3 votes
2 answers
158 views

hilasterion as a mercy seat

Many have attempted to say that the hilasterion is a 'mercy seat' but the word ilios does not mean 'mercy'. That word is eleos. Strong 1656. What does this Ilios mean and how does it differ from ...
Christian Saucier's user avatar
5 votes
5 answers
1k views

What was Paul talking about when he wrote Romans 13:1-7?

Romans 13:1-7 NET 1 Let every person be subject to the governing authorities. For there is no authority except by God’s appointment, and the authorities that exist have been instituted by God. 2 So ...
Stephen Collings's user avatar
3 votes
4 answers
680 views

Romans 10:13 - How long does it take to get saved when someone calls on the name of the Lord? (aorist, middle, subjunctive)

Romans 10:13 NIV 84 For everyone who calls on the name of the Lord will be saved. πᾶς γὰρ ὃς ἂν ἐπικαλέσηται τὸ ὄνομα κυρίου σωθήσεται. [GNT] ἐπικαλέσηται This question is about the aorist tense of ...
Gregory Norton's user avatar
2 votes
6 answers
2k views

Who are then therefore truly Jews according to Romans 2:28,29

Under the Old Covenant (or Old Testament, same difference) one had to be of a certain bloodline from Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, Judah and/or Benjamin (and possibly Levi) to fall under the category Jew, ...
Nihil Sine Deo's user avatar
2 votes
4 answers
1k views

Who is Paul referencing in Romans 1:18-32?

Romans 1:18-32 KJV 18 For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men, who hold the truth in unrighteousness; 19 Because that which may be known of God ...
moron's user avatar
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7 votes
7 answers
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How does "image" in Romans 8:29 compare with "image" in Genesis 1:26?

Romans 8:29 ESV "For those whom he foreknew he also predestined to be conformed to the image of his Son, in order that he might be the firstborn among many brothers." [image/eikonos] My ...
C. Stroud's user avatar
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0 votes
2 answers
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Does Romans 1:23 forbid depictions of anthropomorphized animals?

Does Romans 1:23 mean that anthropomorphic animal characters are problematic? and exchanged the glory of the immortal God for images of mortal man and birds and animals and reptiles.
user58424's user avatar
3 votes
2 answers
1k views

What is meant by Wordless Groans of the Spirit?

We see St Paul writing in Romans 8:26-28 (NIV) that the Spirit intercedes for us through ' wordless groans ' . One is intrigued by the said usage of St Paul who always stood for clarity and simplicity ...
Kadalikatt Joseph Sibichan's user avatar
2 votes
2 answers
168 views

Does Romans 13:1-7 allow civil disobedience?

Romans 13:1-7 NIV 1 Let everyone be subject to the governing authorities, for there is no authority except that which God has established. The authorities that exist have been established by God. 2 ...
Jabre7's user avatar
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6 votes
6 answers
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What does "purpose/prothesin" mean in Romans 8:28?

Romans 8:28 "And we know that for those who love God all things work together for good, for those who are called according to his purpose." ESV. My emphasis. [purpose/prothesin]. What is ...
C. Stroud's user avatar
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1 vote
1 answer
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The use of ἀπό in Romans 5:14

Can ἀπό in the sense of Romans 5:14 indicate that before this point, the opposite was true? For example, could this verse be used to make this claim: Before Adam, death did not reign
Galladite's user avatar
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2 answers
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Divorce and adultery is no longer as the law is dead by Christ risen? This is my question [closed]

From these scriptures bellow I’m asking for understanding of their meaning. I think that the reference to husband is metaphor to the law. Or is this just about divorce? Romans 7:1-6 1 Or do you not ...
Troy Idler's user avatar
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2 answers
148 views

Who is "righteous" in Romans? [duplicate]

Therefore no one will be declared righteous in his sight by observing the law; rather, through the law we become conscious of sin. (Romans 3:20) For it is not those who hear the law who are righteous ...
another theory's user avatar
0 votes
3 answers
166 views

Does Paul have the holy spirit? [closed]

Yes Romans 9:1 I speak the truth in Christ—I am not lying, my conscience confirms it through the Holy Spirit Acts 13:9 Then Saul, who was also called Paul, filled with the Holy Spirit, looked ...
another theory's user avatar
7 votes
5 answers
288 views

What is the reconciliation of Romans 3:31 and Ephesians 2:15?

Is it maybe a different meaning of "abolish (katargeo)" or a different meaning of "law?" Because they seem somewhat contradictory. Do we then make void [καταργοῦμεν] the law ...
user56539's user avatar
3 votes
2 answers
782 views

To what does Paul refer when he said "Higher Powers" in Romans 13:1?

Would Paul's comment include all tyrannical governments without the people rising up against them? Rom 13:1 (BLB) Let every soul be subject to the authorities being above him. For there is no ...
ray grant's user avatar
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4 votes
2 answers
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How best to understand the NLT translation of νόμος in Romans 8:2?

Romans 8:2 NLT For the power of the life-giving Spirit has freed you through Christ Jesus from the power of sin that leads to death. KJV Romans 8 : 2 For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ ...
collen ndhlovu's user avatar
2 votes
3 answers
129 views

In Romans 8:18, how is the aorist ἀποκαλυφθῆναι translated as a future tense?

ἀποκαλυφθῆναι Is the aorist and would be translated as “was revealed” Does μέλλουσαν (present tense) “is about to be” somehow change the aorist ἀποκαλυφθῆναι to the future tense? Can someone explain ...
Mark D.'s user avatar
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3 votes
2 answers
524 views

Does Mark 14:12 indicate it being sunset?

“On the first day of Unleavened Bread, when the Passover lamb was being sacrificed, His disciples *said to Him, “Where do You want us to go and prepare for You to eat the Passover?”” ‭‭Mark‬ ‭14‬:‭12‬ ...
Cork88's user avatar
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In Romans 5:18, what leads to righteousness?

Romans 5:18 reads as follows in the ESV: Therefore, as one trespass led to condemnation for all men, so one act of righteousness leads to justification and life for all men. There are footnotes that ...
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