Questions tagged [romans]

Paul's letter to the church in Rome.

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4
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2answers
441 views

Was the “old man” crucified with Christ for all people, or only for believers?

Romans 6:6 knowing this, that our old man was crucified with Him, that the body of sin might be done away with, that we should no longer be slaves of sin. Did this event happen to all people, or ...
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In Romans 1:18, what is the relationship between men's unrighteousness and their suppression of the truth?

How is he saying that men suppress the truth?: by being unrighteousness? motivated by unrighteousness? by wicked means? What is the function of ἐν in the sentence? [Rom 1:18 NLT] (18) But God shows ...
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3answers
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Did God intend to only “Join” man to his wife - physically or spiritually?

We first learn that "YHVH Elohim" (יְהֹוָ֨ה אֱלֹהִ֧ים) brought Ishah to Ha-Adam, and-"joined" (וְ-דָבַ֣ק) the man to his wife in Bereishit / Genesis 2:22-24. * Later during the ...
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Transgression when there's no expressed command

In one of my previous questions, Dave (Oct 23 at 20:51) wrote a comment which I liked and got me thinking, Except that there was no Law (commandments.) for Job and Noah. In Romans 2:14-15, For when ...
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What is this peace?

In Romans 5:1 Therefore being justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ What is this peace?
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Who are said to have the firstfruits of the Spirit in Romans 8:23?

Romans 8:23 NIV 23 Not only so, but we ourselves, who have the firstfruits of the Spirit, groan inwardly as we wait eagerly for our adoption to sonship, the redemption of our bodies Is it 1)Apostles 2)...
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3answers
350 views

What does “through him” mean in Romans 11:36?

Romans 11:36 (ESV): For from him and through him and to him are all things. Two thoughts: "Through" a person, him, is very personal. The nails that kept Jesus on the cross went through him ...
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1answer
44 views

(Romans 8:38-39) Recipients are believers feeling guilty about sins Vs (Isaiah 59:1-3) Recipients are God's people who willingly sin

I'm trying compare and contrast Romans 8:38-39 to Isaiah 59:1-3 when it comes to what could separate us from God and/or Love of God. Please Correct me if my following evaluation/assessment is Wrong. ...
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1answer
36 views

There is no one righteous

In certain passages one might be mislead to think that certain persons like Noah (Genesis 7:1), Job (Job 1:1), Zacharias and Elizabeth (Luke 1:5-6) were able to keep God's commandments. Genesis 7:1 ...
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5answers
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Are Christians being licensed not to keep the Sabbath according to Colossians 2:16-17, Romans 14:5-8 and Acts 15?

Is Paul giving Christians license to omit Sabbath observance in Colossians 2:16-17 and Romans 14:5-8? Is this corroborated by Acts 15? Below the passages: Colossians 2:16-17 16 Therefore let no one ...
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The priority of the Jews in God's plan of salvation

In Romans 1:16-17 [NASB] we read For I am not ashamed of the gospel, for it is the power of God for salvation to everyone who believes, to the Jew first and also to the Greek. For in it the ...
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4answers
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Who is the root and the tree in Romans 11?

But if some of the branches were broken off, and you, being a wild olive, were grafted in among them and became partaker with them of the rich root of the olive tree, do not be arrogant toward the ...
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4answers
75 views

Colossians 2:5 I am present with you in spirit. Is this literal or metaphor?

Romans 8:9 You, however, are not in the flesh but in the Spirit, if in fact the Spirit of God dwells in you. Anyone who does not have the Spirit of Christ does not belong to him. Romans 8:9 is true ...
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3answers
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Why did Paul use the word “boast” so many times in 2 Corinthians?

https://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/lexicon.cfm?Strongs=G2744&t=KJV&bn=47#lexResults: Strong's Number G2744 matches the Greek καυχάομαι (kauchaomai), which occurs 21 times in 17 ...
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Why did Paul change the word order of “retribution” and “trap” from Psalm 69:22?

NIV Psalm 69:22 May their table become a snare; may it be a retribution and a trap. Romans 11:9 And David says: "May their table become a snare and a trap, a stumbling block and a retribution ...
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2answers
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In James 2:23, does the use of the word “fulfilled” (ἐπληρώθη) suggest that Genesis 15:6 was a prophecy about the future (IE: Genesis 22:12)?

[Jas 2:20-26 NASB] (20) But are you willing to recognize, you foolish fellow, that faith without works is useless? (21) Was not Abraham our father justified by works when he offered up Isaac his son ...
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1answer
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Is “Barbarians” a good/suitable translation in Romans 1:14?

King James Bible Romans 1:14 I am debtor both to the Greeks, and to the Barbarians; both to the wise, and to the unwise. In https://biblehub.com/romans/1-14.htm, 19 out of 27 versions translate ...
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1answer
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Question about punctuation in the Romans; specifically regarding Romans 8:20

In Romans 8:19-21, we read about creation waiting for things to be restored because it was subjected to "frustration." NIV: 19 For the creation waits in eager expectation for the children ...
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Why does the King James Bible appear to not agree with some other translations with regard to “you” in Romans 6:17?

that form of doctrine which was delivered "you". KJV KJV. The form of doctrine was delivered. New American Standard Bible. "you were committed". Christian Standard Bible. "...
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Why Apostle Paul contradicts Jesus regarding God and His resurrected [closed]

If Paul the Apostle was inspired by God to write [Romans], why does Paul teach beliefs contradicting Jesus the Messiah when describing who God is in His relationship to the resurrected? In [Romans 14:...
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How did Paul arrive at his discovery of “Christ in you” in Romans 8?

In Romans 5-6, we can see how Paul arrives at the idea of being in Adam and then in Christ through faith in Jesus. But then in Romans 8:9-10, we find the use of Christ in you. How does Paul arrive at ...
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5answers
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What is the first husband in Romans 7:1-6?

“Or do you not know, brethren (for I speak to those who know the law), that the law has dominion over a man as long as he lives? For the woman who has a husband is bound by the law to her husband as ...
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1answer
39 views

What does the clause ἐκ πίστεώς μου add to Habakkuk 2:4 LXX?

The NT leans very heavily on Habakkuk 2:4 and it is clear that it is not looking at the Hebrew, which reads like this: [Rom 1:17 NKJV] (17) For in it the righteousness of God is revealed from faith ...
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What does “all” mean in Romans 6:10?

"For the death he died he died to sin, once for all," ESV. All what? "all time" -Romans 5:19 "one man's obedience" does not need repeating. "all people"-...
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4answers
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What does 'master' signify in Rom 6:9? 'death no longer is master over Him'

Rom 6:9 knowing that Christ, having been raised from the dead, is never to die again; death no longer is master over Him. So may we clearly understand that while Jesus was in the flesh being tempted ...
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568 views

Could the law give life?

This is more of a semantic question, but I keep coming back to it and can't seem to come to a conclusion. Was the law able to give life? I know that Galatians 3:21-22 (and other places) tells us that ...
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3answers
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Is Paul's appeal to nature in his rejection of homosexual behavior an example and vindication of naturalism?

Prior to Paul, the only Jewish objection to homosexual behavior was penetration and ritual prostitution: [Lev 18:22 NKJV] (22) 'You shall not lie with a male as with a woman. It is an abomination. [...
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1answer
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In Romans 1:16 does Paul suggest there is something shameful about the gospel?

”For I am not ashamed of the gospel (of the Anointed), for it is the power of God for salvation to everyone who believes, to the Jew first and also to the Greek.” ‭‭Romans‬ ‭1:16‬ Paul might not be ...
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1answer
23 views

Romans 13:9, what is the accurate text? With or without “false testimony”?

Romans 13:9, (DRB): For Thou shalt not commit adultery: Thou shalt not kill: Thou shalt not steal, Thou shalt not bear false witness: Thou shalt not covet: and if there be any other commandment, it ...
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2answers
144 views

In Romans 8:9, whose Spirit is the believer supposed to have if he is not to be fleshly but spiritual?

If the believer is not fleshly but spiritual he is to have the spirit according to Romans 8:9 Which spirit? God’s (1) Jesus’ (2) Either one (1 or 2) Both (1 + 2) They are one and the same (1 = 2) ...
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1answer
65 views

Are the articles at Ro 9:6,8 ultimately anaphoric to 9:5/1:4? If not, what are the grammatical reasons they are not?

Are the articles at Ro 9:6,8 ultimately anaphoric to 9:5/1:4? If not, what are the grammatical reasons they are not?
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648 views

John 17:19, what is the meaning of “I sanctify myself”?

John 17:19, (DRB): And for them do I sanctify myself, that they also may be sanctified in truth. John 17:19, Latin Vulgate: et pro eis ego sanctifico me ipsum ut sint et ipsi sanctificati in ...
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3answers
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Isaiah 53:12; Romans 8:27, what is the criterion of sainthood?

Isaiah 53:12 (KJV): ...and made intercession for the transgressors. Romans 8:27 (KJV): ...he maketh intercession for the saints according to {the will of} God. 1 John 2:1 (KJV): ...And if ...
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Romans 8:27-30 How does the Saints need interceding? And what are stages of Redemption?

Romans 8:27-30 (DRB): 27And he that searcheth the hearts knoweth what the Spirit desireth: because he asketh for the saints according to God. 28 And we know that to them that love God all things ...
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5answers
782 views

Romans 12:1, what is the accurate translation of (λογικὴν)?

Romans 12:1, what is the accurate translation of (λογικὴν)?: Spiritual. Reasonable. Logical. Intelligent. Romans 12:1 (GNT): Παρακαλῶ οὖν ὑμᾶς, ἀδελφοί, διὰ τῶν οἰκτιρμῶν τοῦ Θεοῦ, ...
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Why the Greek word “agapee=ἀγάπη” is translated as “love” in some verses, and “charity” in other verses, in KJV?

Why the Greek word "agapee=ἀγάπη" is translated as "love" in some verses, and "charity" in other verses, in KJV? I noticed that in the Latin Vulgate two words meaning "love" were used, e.g: Romans ...
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4answers
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Why is man condemned if he is incapable of doing good?

Romans 7:15 - 20, Has always puzzled me. Why would God condemn sinful humans if man is incapable of helping himself as Paul states in these verses. Even the so called born again (regenerated) ...
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1answer
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Romans 13:10, was the message of Lord Jesus to teach us Love?

Romans 13:10 (DRB): The love of our neighbour worketh no evil. Love therefore is the fulfilling of the law. Matthew 5:17 (DRB): Do not think that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets. ...
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Romans 8:19-22, does “creature” mean “all humanity”?

Romans 8:19-22 (DRB): 19 For the expectation of the creature waiteth for the revelation of the sons of God. 20 For the creature was made subject to vanity, not willingly, but by reason of him ...
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723 views

Why do the NLT translators say “demons” (Rom 8:38)?

Rom 8:38 (NLT): And I am convinced that nothing can ever separate us from God's love. Neither death nor life, neither angels nor demons*, neither our fears for today nor our worries about tomorrow ...
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1answer
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Romans 1:14 “ἀνοήτοις” or “insipientibus” is this word “thoughtless” or “unwise”?

It is supposed that KJV more literal than many other translations of the Bible. In Romans 1:14, KJV translated the word "ἀνοήτοις" as "unwise" but the literal translation should be "thoughtless". ...
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2answers
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In Romans 5:6 Did Jesus die for the Ungodly or for the Righteous (Godly) Sinners?

Romans 5:6 (ASV): For while we were yet weak, in due season Christ died for the ungodly. Did Jesus die on the cross to redeem the Righteous (Godly) Sinners, or to redeem all humanity, ...
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1answer
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What about “σοφῷ”=“wise” in Original Greek manuscripts in Romans 16:27 and 1 Timothy 1:17?

We know that "σοφῷ"="wise" is mentioned in some Greek manuscripts, not all Greek manuscripts, in Jude 1:25. Look in this post: Did Jude 25 mention "σοφῷ" or not? But "σοφῷ" mentioned ...
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1answer
120 views

How should “gnorise” be translated in Romans 9:23?

In the N.K.J.V. "and that He might make known the riches of His glory on the vessels of mercy". In the E.S.V. "in order to make known the riches of his glory". As I understand it "gnorise" is a ...
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3answers
702 views

Has Isaiah 59:20 been changed in Roman 11:26?

Has the meaning of Isaiah 59:20-21 been changed? Roman 11:26: And so all Israel will be saved, as it is written: “The Deliverer will come from Zion; He will remove godlessness from Jacob. Isaiah 59:...
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Romans 6:5, is it mentioned “in the likeness of his resurrection” in Greek manuscripts?

I looked Romans 6:5, I found "in the likeness of his resurrection" in: KJV, NKJV, ASV, ESV, in ESV "in a resurrection like his". GNB has different translation. In all Arabic translations I didn't ...
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1answer
195 views

To whom does the term “one God” refer in Paul?

The term “one God,” is found in three of Paul’s letters: one God and Father of all, who is over all and through all and in all. (Ephesians 4:6) εἷς θεὸς καὶ πατὴρ πάντων ὁ ἐπὶ πάντων καὶ διὰ πάντων ...
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3answers
161 views

Who does Paul identify as creator at Romans 11:36?

Bible writers frequently identify the main participants at the beginning of their books. The first instance of “God” in Romans is anarthrous. He almost immediately hints at God’s identity in verses 3-...
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1answer
56 views

To what does Romans 15:27 refer?

What is he discussing? [Rom 15:7 CSB] (7) Therefore accept one another, just as Christ also accepted you, to the glory of God.
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149 views

Rom 9:17: “For the scripture saith unto Pharaoh”?

For the scripture saith unto Pharaoh, Even for this same purpose have I raised thee up, that I might shew my power in thee, and that my name might be declared throughout all the earth. (KJV) Why ...

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