Questions tagged [romans]

Paul's letter to the church in Rome.

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1answer
68 views

Are Christians being licensed not to keep the Sabbath according to Colossians 2:16-17, Romans 14:5-8 and Acts 15?

Is Paul giving Christians license to omit Sabbath observance in Colossians 2:16-17 and Romans 14:5-8? Is this corroborated by Acts 15? Below the passages: Colossians 2:16-17 16 Therefore let no one ...
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The priority of the Jews in God's plan of salvation

In Romans 1:16-17 [NASB] we read For I am not ashamed of the gospel, for it is the power of God for salvation to everyone who believes, to the Jew first and also to the Greek. For in it the ...
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4answers
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Who is the root and the tree in Romans 11?

But if some of the branches were broken off, and you, being a wild olive, were grafted in among them and became partaker with them of the rich root of the olive tree, do not be arrogant toward the ...
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Colossians 2:5 I am present with you in spirit. Is this literal or metaphor?

Romans 8:9 You, however, are not in the flesh but in the Spirit, if in fact the Spirit of God dwells in you. Anyone who does not have the Spirit of Christ does not belong to him. Romans 8:9 is true ...
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3answers
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Why did Paul use the word “boast” so many times in 2 Corinthians?

https://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/lexicon.cfm?Strongs=G2744&t=KJV&bn=47#lexResults: Strong's Number G2744 matches the Greek καυχάομαι (kauchaomai), which occurs 21 times in 17 ...
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2answers
31 views

Why did Paul change the word order of “retribution” and “trap” from Psalm 69:22?

NIV Psalm 69:22 May their table become a snare; may it be a retribution and a trap. Romans 11:9 And David says: "May their table become a snare and a trap, a stumbling block and a retribution ...
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In James 2:23, does the use of the word “fulfilled” (ἐπληρώθη) suggest that Genesis 15:6 was a prophecy about the future (IE: Genesis 22:12)?

[Jas 2:20-26 NASB] (20) But are you willing to recognize, you foolish fellow, that faith without works is useless? (21) Was not Abraham our father justified by works when he offered up Isaac his son ...
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1answer
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Is “Barbarians” a good/suitable translation in Romans 1:14?

King James Bible Romans 1:14 I am debtor both to the Greeks, and to the Barbarians; both to the wise, and to the unwise. In https://biblehub.com/romans/1-14.htm, 19 out of 27 versions translate ...
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1answer
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Question about punctuation in the Romans; specifically regarding Romans 8:20

In Romans 8:19-21, we read about creation waiting for things to be restored because it was subjected to "frustration." NIV: 19 For the creation waits in eager expectation for the children ...
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2answers
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Why does the King James Bible appear to not agree with some other translations with regard to “you” in Romans 6:17?

that form of doctrine which was delivered "you". KJV KJV. The form of doctrine was delivered. New American Standard Bible. "you were committed". Christian Standard Bible. "...
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Why Apostle Paul contradicts Jesus regarding God and His resurrected [closed]

If Paul the Apostle was inspired by God to write [Romans], why does Paul teach beliefs contradicting Jesus the Messiah when describing who God is in His relationship to the resurrected? In [Romans 14:...
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How did Paul arrive at his discovery of “Christ in you” in Romans 8?

In Romans 5-6, we can see how Paul arrives at the idea of being in Adam and then in Christ through faith in Jesus. But then in Romans 8:9-10, we find the use of Christ in you. How does Paul arrive at ...
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5answers
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What is the first husband in Romans 7:1-6?

“Or do you not know, brethren (for I speak to those who know the law), that the law has dominion over a man as long as he lives? For the woman who has a husband is bound by the law to her husband as ...
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1answer
38 views

What does the clause ἐκ πίστεώς μου add to Habakkuk 2:4 LXX?

The NT leans very heavily on Habakkuk 2:4 and it is clear that it is not looking at the Hebrew, which reads like this: [Rom 1:17 NKJV] (17) For in it the righteousness of God is revealed from faith ...
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3answers
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What does “all” mean in Romans 6:10?

"For the death he died he died to sin, once for all," ESV. All what? "all time" -Romans 5:19 "one man's obedience" does not need repeating. "all people"-...
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4answers
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What does 'master' signify in Rom 6:9? 'death no longer is master over Him'

Rom 6:9 knowing that Christ, having been raised from the dead, is never to die again; death no longer is master over Him. So may we clearly understand that while Jesus was in the flesh being tempted ...
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10answers
561 views

Could the law give life?

This is more of a semantic question, but I keep coming back to it and can't seem to come to a conclusion. Was the law able to give life? I know that Galatians 3:21-22 (and other places) tells us that ...
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3answers
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Is Paul's appeal to nature in his rejection of homosexual behavior an example and vindication of naturalism?

Prior to Paul, the only Jewish objection to homosexual behavior was penetration and ritual prostitution: [Lev 18:22 NKJV] (22) 'You shall not lie with a male as with a woman. It is an abomination. [...
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1answer
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In Romans 1:16 does Paul suggest there is something shameful about the gospel?

”For I am not ashamed of the gospel (of the Anointed), for it is the power of God for salvation to everyone who believes, to the Jew first and also to the Greek.” ‭‭Romans‬ ‭1:16‬ Paul might not be ...
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1answer
17 views

Romans 13:9, what is the accurate text? With or without “false testimony”?

Romans 13:9, (DRB): For Thou shalt not commit adultery: Thou shalt not kill: Thou shalt not steal, Thou shalt not bear false witness: Thou shalt not covet: and if there be any other commandment, it ...
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In Romans 8:9, whose Spirit is the believer supposed to have if he is not to be fleshly but spiritual?

If the believer is not fleshly but spiritual he is to have the spirit according to Romans 8:9 Which spirit? God’s (1) Jesus’ (2) Either one (1 or 2) Both (1 + 2) They are one and the same (1 = 2) ...
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Are the articles at Ro 9:6,8 ultimately anaphoric to 9:5/1:4? If not, what are the grammatical reasons they are not?

Are the articles at Ro 9:6,8 ultimately anaphoric to 9:5/1:4? If not, what are the grammatical reasons they are not?
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John 17:19, what is the meaning of “I sanctify myself”?

John 17:19, (DRB): And for them do I sanctify myself, that they also may be sanctified in truth. John 17:19, Latin Vulgate: et pro eis ego sanctifico me ipsum ut sint et ipsi sanctificati in ...
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Isaiah 53:12; Romans 8:27, what is the criterion of sainthood?

Isaiah 53:12 (KJV): ...and made intercession for the transgressors. Romans 8:27 (KJV): ...he maketh intercession for the saints according to {the will of} God. 1 John 2:1 (KJV): ...And if ...
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Romans 8:27-30 How does the Saints need interceding? And what are stages of Redemption?

Romans 8:27-30 (DRB): 27And he that searcheth the hearts knoweth what the Spirit desireth: because he asketh for the saints according to God. 28 And we know that to them that love God all things ...
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5answers
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Romans 12:1, what is the accurate translation of (λογικὴν)?

Romans 12:1, what is the accurate translation of (λογικὴν)?: Spiritual. Reasonable. Logical. Intelligent. Romans 12:1 (GNT): Παρακαλῶ οὖν ὑμᾶς, ἀδελφοί, διὰ τῶν οἰκτιρμῶν τοῦ Θεοῦ, ...
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Why the Greek word “agapee=ἀγάπη” is translated as “love” in some verses, and “charity” in other verses, in KJV?

Why the Greek word "agapee=ἀγάπη" is translated as "love" in some verses, and "charity" in other verses, in KJV? I noticed that in the Latin Vulgate two words meaning "love" were used, e.g: Romans ...
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4answers
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Why is man condemned if he is incapable of doing good?

Romans 7:15 - 20, Has always puzzled me. Why would God condemn sinful humans if man is incapable of helping himself as Paul states in these verses. Even the so called born again (regenerated) ...
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1answer
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Romans 13:10, was the message of Lord Jesus to teach us Love?

Romans 13:10 (DRB): The love of our neighbour worketh no evil. Love therefore is the fulfilling of the law. Matthew 5:17 (DRB): Do not think that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets. ...
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72 views

Romans 8:19-22, does “creature” mean “all humanity”?

Romans 8:19-22 (DRB): 19 For the expectation of the creature waiteth for the revelation of the sons of God. 20 For the creature was made subject to vanity, not willingly, but by reason of him ...
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1answer
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Romans 1:14 “ἀνοήτοις” or “insipientibus” is this word “thoughtless” or “unwise”?

It is supposed that KJV more literal than many other translations of the Bible. In Romans 1:14, KJV translated the word "ἀνοήτοις" as "unwise" but the literal translation should be "thoughtless". ...
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2answers
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In Romans 5:6 Did Jesus die for the Ungodly or for the Righteous (Godly) Sinners?

Romans 5:6 (ASV): For while we were yet weak, in due season Christ died for the ungodly. Did Jesus die on the cross to redeem the Righteous (Godly) Sinners, or to redeem all humanity, ...
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1answer
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What about “σοφῷ”=“wise” in Original Greek manuscripts in Romans 16:27 and 1 Timothy 1:17?

We know that "σοφῷ"="wise" is mentioned in some Greek manuscripts, not all Greek manuscripts, in Jude 1:25. Look in this post: Did Jude 25 mention "σοφῷ" or not? But "σοφῷ" mentioned ...
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1answer
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How should “gnorise” be translated in Romans 9:23?

In the N.K.J.V. "and that He might make known the riches of His glory on the vessels of mercy". In the E.S.V. "in order to make known the riches of his glory". As I understand it "gnorise" is a ...
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Has Isaiah 59:20 been changed in Roman 11:26?

Has the meaning of Isaiah 59:20-21 been changed? Roman 11:26: And so all Israel will be saved, as it is written: “The Deliverer will come from Zion; He will remove godlessness from Jacob. Isaiah 59:...
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Romans 6:5, is it mentioned “in the likeness of his resurrection” in Greek manuscripts?

I looked Romans 6:5, I found "in the likeness of his resurrection" in: KJV, NKJV, ASV, ESV, in ESV "in a resurrection like his". GNB has different translation. In all Arabic translations I didn't ...
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To whom does the term “one God” refer in Paul?

The term “one God,” is found in three of Paul’s letters: one God and Father of all, who is over all and through all and in all. (Ephesians 4:6) εἷς θεὸς καὶ πατὴρ πάντων ὁ ἐπὶ πάντων καὶ διὰ πάντων ...
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3answers
160 views

Who does Paul identify as creator at Romans 11:36?

Bible writers frequently identify the main participants at the beginning of their books. The first instance of “God” in Romans is anarthrous. He almost immediately hints at God’s identity in verses 3-...
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To what does Romans 15:27 refer?

What is he discussing? [Rom 15:7 CSB] (7) Therefore accept one another, just as Christ also accepted you, to the glory of God.
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Rom 9:17: “For the scripture saith unto Pharaoh”?

For the scripture saith unto Pharaoh, Even for this same purpose have I raised thee up, that I might shew my power in thee, and that my name might be declared throughout all the earth. (KJV) Why ...
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1answer
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Rom 8:31 ?..Who can be against us? Is this a valid grammatical adjustment?

Rom 8:31 (NKJV)  What then shall we say to these things? If God is for us, who can be against us? Does the Greek text allow for this translation? What then shall we say to these things if God is for ...
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Why did God hate Esau from the womb when he had done no evil?

In my effort to take a survey on the character of Esau, I seem to be running into more difficulties in unveiling why the All-Loving God had to declare hatred for Esau right from the womb when he had ...
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2answers
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In Romans 10:10, what is the difference between “salvation” (σωτηρία) and “justification” (δικαιοσύνη)?

In Greek, “salvation” (σωτηρία) is one thing; “justification” (δικαιοσύνη) is another. For example, in Romans 10:10, it is written, 10 For with the heart one believes unto righteousness, and with the ...
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1answer
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Cause and effect? (Romans 11:16)

Romans 11:16 (ISV) If the first part of the dough is holy, so is the whole batch. If the root is holy, so are the branches. What's the connection here? Is all of Israel holy solely because they ...
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1answer
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In Romans 3, is there an advantage or no advantage?

In one instance, Paul seems to be saying there was an advantage being a Jew (i.e., of the circumcision) because they had been entrusted with the words of God. Romans 3:1–2 1 What advantage, then, ...
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What was “the good” that the apostle Paul could not do? Romans 7:19

Romans 7:19 (NRSV) 19 "For I do not do the good I want, but the evil I do not want is what I do."
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6answers
367 views

Whose spirit is God’s spirit bearing witness to in Romans 8:16?

Since born-again Christians have the Holy Spirit (which is the Spirit of Christ),1 I am confused by the words “our spirit” in Rom. 8:16, wherein it states, 16 The Spirit itself beareth witness with ...
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1answer
118 views

According to Acts 21:17-26 are the Jews who are under the New Covenant bound to keep the law of Moses for any reason?

1. According to Acts 21:17-26 are the Jews who are under the New Covenant bound to keep the law of Moses for any reason? 2. Did this incident in verse 26 happen before or after writing the epistles of ...
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1answer
80 views

Why did Jacob and David do nothing when tragedy happened in the family?

The two stories are very disturbing both Jacob (Dinah: Gen 34) and David (Tamar: 2 Sam 13) daughters were violated. In both cases it does not mention that they responded with anything however their ...
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1answer
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In Romans 3:30 why are the circumcised justified “by [εκ] faith” but the gentiles “through [δια] faith”?

Romans 3:30 says that Seeing it is one God, which shall justify the circumcision by faith, and uncircumcision through faith. (KJV) Since the just shall live by faith, I don't understand why the ...

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