Questions tagged [romans]

The epistle to the Romans was written by Paul to the Christians in Rome, in an effort to introduce them to his teaching.

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Does Romans' use of ἀπολύτρωσις (redemption) indicate something different from the LXX's use of λύτρωσις?

In Paul's preaching of the Gospel, he states believers have redemption: Romans 3:21-26 (ESV): 21 But now the righteousness of God has been manifested apart from the law, although the Law and the ...
Revelation Lad's user avatar
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2 answers
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Why does "thelei/will" change to "boulemati/will" in Romans 9:19?

Romans 9:18-19 ESV "So then he has mercy on whomever he wills[thelei], and he hardens whomever he wills[thelei]. 19 You will say to me then, "Why does he still find fault? For who can ...
C. Stroud's user avatar
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Are there any reasonable non-traditional interpretations of Romans 13 and similar "submit to the authorities" passages?

I can't make any coherent sense of the submission to government passages in the Bible like Romans 13:1-7, 1 Peter 2:13-17, and Titus 3:1. I understand that there is a practical element to these ...
BringTheJubilee's user avatar
3 votes
2 answers
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hilasterion as a mercy seat

Many have attempted to say that the hilasterion is a 'mercy seat' but the word ilios does not mean 'mercy'. That word is eleos. Strong 1656. What does this Ilios mean and how does it differ from ...
Christian Saucier's user avatar
5 votes
5 answers
156 views

What was Paul talking about when he wrote Romans 13:1-7?

Romans 13:1-7 NET 1 Let every person be subject to the governing authorities. For there is no authority except by God’s appointment, and the authorities that exist have been instituted by God. 2 So ...
Stephen Collings's user avatar
3 votes
4 answers
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Romans 10:13 - How long does it take to get saved when someone calls on the name of the Lord? (aorist, middle, subjunctive)

Romans 10:13 NIV 84 For everyone who calls on the name of the Lord will be saved. πᾶς γὰρ ὃς ἂν ἐπικαλέσηται τὸ ὄνομα κυρίου σωθήσεται. [GNT] ἐπικαλέσηται This question is about the aorist tense of ...
Gregory Norton's user avatar
2 votes
6 answers
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Who are then therefore truly Jews according to Romans 2:28,29

Under the Old Covenant (or Old Testament, same difference) one had to be of a certain bloodline from Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, Judah and/or Benjamin (and possibly Levi) to fall under the category Jew, ...
Nihil Sine Deo's user avatar
2 votes
4 answers
239 views

Who is Paul referencing in Romans 1:18-32?

Romans 1:18-32 KJV 18 For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men, who hold the truth in unrighteousness; 19 Because that which may be known of God ...
moron's user avatar
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How does "image" in Romans 8:29 compare with "image" in Genesis 1:26?

Romans 8:29 ESV "For those whom he foreknew he also predestined to be conformed to the image of his Son, in order that he might be the firstborn among many brothers." [image/eikonos] My ...
C. Stroud's user avatar
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Does Romans 1:23 forbid depictions of anthropomorphized animals?

Does Romans 1:23 mean that anthropomorphic animal characters are problematic? and exchanged the glory of the immortal God for images of mortal man and birds and animals and reptiles.
user58424's user avatar
3 votes
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What is meant by Wordless Groans of the Spirit?

We see St Paul writing in Romans 8:26-28 (NIV) that the Spirit intercedes for us through ' wordless groans ' . One is intrigued by the said usage of St Paul who always stood for clarity and simplicity ...
Kadalikatt Joseph Sibichan's user avatar
2 votes
2 answers
111 views

Does Romans 13:1-7 allow civil disobedience?

Romans 13:1-7 NIV 1 Let everyone be subject to the governing authorities, for there is no authority except that which God has established. The authorities that exist have been established by God. 2 ...
Jabre7's user avatar
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What does "purpose/prothesin" mean in Romans 8:28?

Romans 8:28 "And we know that for those who love God all things work together for good, for those who are called according to his purpose." ESV. My emphasis. [purpose/prothesin]. What is ...
C. Stroud's user avatar
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The use of ἀπό in Romans 5:14

Can ἀπό in the sense of Romans 5:14 indicate that before this point, the opposite was true? For example, could this verse be used to make this claim: Before Adam, death did not reign
Galladite's user avatar
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Divorce and adultery is no longer as the law is dead by Christ risen? This is my question [closed]

From these scriptures bellow I’m asking for understanding of their meaning. I think that the reference to husband is metaphor to the law. Or is this just about divorce? Romans 7:1-6 1 Or do you not ...
Troy Idler's user avatar
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Who is "righteous" in Romans? [duplicate]

Therefore no one will be declared righteous in his sight by observing the law; rather, through the law we become conscious of sin. (Romans 3:20) For it is not those who hear the law who are righteous ...
another theory's user avatar
0 votes
3 answers
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Does Paul have the holy spirit? [closed]

Yes Romans 9:1 I speak the truth in Christ—I am not lying, my conscience confirms it through the Holy Spirit Acts 13:9 Then Saul, who was also called Paul, filled with the Holy Spirit, looked ...
another theory's user avatar
7 votes
4 answers
186 views

What is the reconciliation of Romans 3:31 and Ephesians 2:15?

Is it maybe a different meaning of "abolish (katargeo)" or a different meaning of "law?" Because they seem somewhat contradictory. Do we then make void [καταργοῦμεν] the law ...
user56539's user avatar
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To what does Paul refer when he said "Higher Powers" in Romans 13:1?

Would Paul's comment include all tyrannical governments without the people rising up against them? Rom 13:1 (BLB) Let every soul be subject to the authorities being above him. For there is no ...
ray grant's user avatar
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How best to understand the NLT translation of νόμος in Romans 8:2?

Romans 8:2 NLT For the power of the life-giving Spirit has freed you through Christ Jesus from the power of sin that leads to death. KJV Romans 8 : 2 For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ ...
collen ndhlovu's user avatar
2 votes
3 answers
110 views

In Romans 8:18, how is the aorist ἀποκαλυφθῆναι translated as a future tense?

ἀποκαλυφθῆναι Is the aorist and would be translated as “was revealed” Does μέλλουσαν (present tense) “is about to be” somehow change the aorist ἀποκαλυφθῆναι to the future tense? Can someone explain ...
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Does Mark 14:12 indicate it being sunset?

“On the first day of Unleavened Bread, when the Passover lamb was being sacrificed, His disciples *said to Him, “Where do You want us to go and prepare for You to eat the Passover?”” ‭‭Mark‬ ‭14‬:‭12‬ ...
Cork88's user avatar
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In Romans 5:18, what leads to righteousness?

Romans 5:18 reads as follows in the ESV: Therefore, as one trespass led to condemnation for all men, so one act of righteousness leads to justification and life for all men. There are footnotes that ...
Max Xiong's user avatar
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1 answer
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What is "the work of God" in Romans 14:20?

Romans 14:20 "Do not, for the sake of food, destroy the work of God. Everything is indeed clean, but it is wrong for anyone to make another stumble by what he eats." ESV. My emphasis. What ...
C. Stroud's user avatar
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How do we translate the Greek word ἐλογίσθη (elogisthē)?

Rom 4:3 BLB For what does the Scripture say? “And Abraham believed God, and it was reckoned to him for righteousness.” Rom 4:3 YLT for what doth the writing say? 'And Abraham did believe God, and ...
Faith Mendel's user avatar
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When was the love of God shed abroad in our hearts in Romans 5:5?

Romans 5:5 “And hope maketh not ashamed [present tense]; because the love of God is shed abroad [perfect tense] in our hearts by the Holy Ghost which is given unto us.” This appears to say the ...
Gary Sears's user avatar
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Romans 1:32 (who knowing the righteous judgment of God?

In Romans 1:28-32 is verse 32 saying that the people that were given over to a debased mind know they are deserving of death? 28 Furthermore, since they did not see fit to acknowledge God, He gave ...
Joshua 's user avatar
8 votes
6 answers
474 views

Why did God impute righteousness to Abraham? Does Paul conflate Genesis 15 and Genesis 17 in Romans 4?

Paul states in Romans 4:22 that there was a reason that righteousness was imputed to Abraham ('therefore'). The reason (or reasons) are stated in 4:16-21: He believed God (who quickens the dead and ...
Gary Sears's user avatar
1 vote
2 answers
99 views

What translation issues surround "we have an obligation" in Romans 8:12?

Here are 3 versions of Romans 8:12 with a comment of mine after each one: Berean Standard Bible "Therefore, brothers, we have an obligation, but it is not to the flesh, to live according to it&...
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2 votes
1 answer
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What issues surround "me/not" in Romans 9:20?

Romans 9:20 ESV "But who are you, O man, to answer back to God? Will what is molded say to its molder, "Why have you made me like this?" [me to plasma erei-will what is molded say]. A....
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Alternative interpretation of Romans 1:20

The King James Version translates Romans 1:20 as follows: ‘For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his ...
Riemann's user avatar
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What does "the adoption" mean in Romans 9:4?

Romans 9:4 "They are Israelites, and to them belong the adoption, the glory, the covenants, the giving of the law, the worship, and the promises." ESV. My emphasis. Romans 9:8 "This ...
C. Stroud's user avatar
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1 vote
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What scriptures shows that Jesus will still utterly save those who once professed trust in Jesus and yet lived in ungodliness? [closed]

Considering the following Scriptures: Ephe 2:8, 9 8 For it is by grace you have been saved through faith, and this not from yourselves; it is the gift of God, 9 not by works, so that no one can boast. ...
Faith Mendel's user avatar
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3 votes
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In Romans 5-8, why did Paul sometimes write "Christ Jesus" instead of "Jesus Christ"?

I noticed that in Romans 5:1-8:39, which in most study Bible / commentary outlines are grouped into one part, Paul was not consistent in referring to the Lord Jesus Christ (5 places); sometimes "...
GratefulDisciple's user avatar
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4 answers
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Romans 1:24-28 - "gave them over" - figurative or indicative of a concrete action?

Romans 1:24-28 24 Therefore God gave them up in the lusts of their hearts to impurity, to the dishonoring of their bodies among themselves, 25 because they exchanged the truth about God for a lie and ...
Maximus1987's user avatar
2 votes
1 answer
510 views

Why did the Samaritan woman leave her waterpot?

“The woman then left her waterpot, went her way into the city, and said to the men,” ‭‭(John‬ ‭4:28‬ ‭NKJV‬‬) Why in the story of the Samaritan woman does the Holy Spirit specify she left her ...
Twhi's user avatar
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1 vote
1 answer
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1 Thess 5:9 vs Romans 5:9 - is this the same wrath?

9For God has not destined us for wrath, but to obtain salvation through our Lord Jesus Christ, This passage talks about day of the Lord so the "wrath" is God's wrath. Based on the text, can ...
Maximus1987's user avatar
7 votes
5 answers
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Does everyone know God or not?

Romans 1:18-21 appears to be saying "yes": 18 For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men, who by their unrighteousness suppress the ...
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3 votes
3 answers
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Question about the Jewish Law [closed]

I’m not sure if this is the proper channel to really ask this question, but I’m going to give it a shot anyway. Please help me the best that you can. I’m a Christian who has recently converted. I have ...
Just Visiting Here's user avatar
4 votes
4 answers
567 views

"Knowledge of God" in Romans 1:28

In Romans chapter 1, Paul provided an argument that everyone should be able to comprehend the existence of God from the creation. 20 For since the creation of the world God’s invisible qualities—his ...
Vincent Wong's user avatar
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2 answers
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Romans 5:12 - Did Adam cover Eve, until he didn't?

Romans 5:12 12 Therefore, just as sin came into the world through one man, and death through sin, and so death spread to all men because all sinned Romans 5:12 states sin came into the world through ...
Austin's user avatar
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5 votes
3 answers
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Should the word "free" appear in Romans 6:23 as an adjective to "gift"?

I have always understood Romans 6:23 to read "For the wages of sin is death, but the free gift of God is eternal life in Christ Jesus (our Lord)." And that is how my NASB 1995 renders it. ...
Vince Duffin's user avatar
4 votes
4 answers
291 views

What does "not subject" mean in "..the carnal mind .. is not subject to the law of God," Romans 8:7?

Romans 8:7 "..the carnal mind is enmity against God; for it is not subject to the law of God, nor indeed can be". NKJV [not subject/ouch hypotassetai]. The carnal mind is not subject to ...
C. Stroud's user avatar
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1 vote
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Rom 11:20 - What their "unbelief" was about? [closed]

Text: Romans 11:20 (ESV) "That is true. They were broken off because of their unbelief, but you stand fast through faith. So do not become proud, but fear."
Sam's user avatar
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What does "the obedience of faith" mean in Romans 16:26?

Romans 16:26 "but has now been disclosed and through the prophetic writings has been made known to all nations, according to the command of the eternal God, to bring about the obedience of faith-...
C. Stroud's user avatar
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3 votes
4 answers
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Is Paul making the "watchmaker argument" in Romans 1:18-25?

Romans 1:18-25 (ESV) 18 For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men, who by their unrighteousness suppress the truth. 19 For what can be known ...
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5 votes
3 answers
130 views

Does God approve or disapprove of convincing unbelievers through miracles?

In favor of miracles: 18 For I will not venture to speak of anything except what Christ has accomplished through me to bring the Gentiles to obedience—by word and deed, 19 by the power of signs and ...
user avatar
4 votes
1 answer
443 views

Where does this quote in Romans 2:24 come from?

KJV Romans 2 : 24 For the name of God is blasphemed among the Gentiles through you, as it is written. Where does this quote come from?
collen ndhlovu's user avatar
3 votes
6 answers
2k views

Is God hidden or not?

The following passages seem to support divine hiddenness: Truly, you are a God who hides himself, O God of Israel, the Savior. (Isaiah 45:15 ESV) How long, O Lord? Will you forget me forever? How ...
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3 votes
2 answers
200 views

Will everyone who calls on the Lord be saved or Not?

English Standard Version MT 7:21 “Not everyone who says to me, ‘Lord, Lord,’ will enter the kingdom of heaven, but the one who does the will of my Father who is in heaven. AC 2:21, RO 10:13 And it ...
another theory's user avatar

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