Questions tagged [translation-philosophy]

The philosophical basis that grounds the work of translators. Questions about specific translation problems should instead be tagged hebrew, aramaic, or greek as appropriate.

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15 views

Why does the KJV translate בָּאֲפֵ֖ר as ashes in 1 Kings 20:38

וַיֵּ֙לֶךְ֙ הַנָּבִ֔יא וַיַּעֲמֹ֥ד לַמֶּ֖לֶךְ עַל־הַדָּ֑רֶךְ וַיִּתְחַפֵּ֥שׂ בָּאֲפֵ֖ר עַל־עֵינָֽיו׃ 1 Kings 20:38 KJV 38 So the prophet departed, and waited for the king by the way, and disguised ...
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Psalm 49:7(NASB) translation seems to say “No human being” can redeem his brother but Psalm 49:7(KJV) refers to those with earthly riches

Psalm 49:5-9 (NASB) 5 Why should I fear in days of adversity, When the iniquity of my [b]foes surrounds me, 6 Even those who trust in their wealth And boast in the abundance of their riches? 7 No ...
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3answers
445 views

Should Psalm 47:4 use of word “inheritance” associated with Ancient Israel's land's physical borders or inheritance in Jesus Christ?

Psalm 47:2-6 (NASB) 2 For the Lord Most High is to be feared, A great King over all the earth. 3 He subdues peoples under us And nations under our feet. 4 He chooses our inheritance for us, The glory ...
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2answers
103 views

Translation of Matt 22:44, “The Lord said to my Lord … ”

There have been several people asserting on this site that in obvious places such as Matt 22:44 the sacred name of "Jehovah/YHWH" or equivalent should be used giving a version like, "...
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101 views

A Question about the doctrine termed 'the Trinity' [closed]

So many Trinity based church goers of today, if the truth was known, do not think that such a belief, which after all is mysteriously unexplainable, even matters. The seeking of "accurate ...
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(Psalm 45:2) Is Ancient Hebrew's translation of “fairer” used as a figure of speech for a person's character, personality, inner spirit, etc.,?

Could someone please check if the Ancient Hebrew translation of the word "fairer" is meant to be used as a figure of speech in Ancient Hebrew that indicates a person's character, personality,...
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1answer
53 views

( Psalm 40:5 ) Does “And Your thoughts toward us;” mean that God is Specifically thinking about us?

Psalm 40:5 (NASB) Many, O LORD my God, are the wonders which You have done, And Your thoughts toward us; There is none to compare with You. If I would declare and speak of them, They would be too ...
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246 views

Psalm 37:20 verse differs because the NASB uses the term “the glory of the pastures” while the KJV uses “the fat of lambs”

(Psalm 37:20) (NASB) But the wicked will perish; And the enemies of the LORD will be like the glory of the pastures, They vanish-- like smoke they vanish away. (Psalm 37:20) (KJV) But the ...
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How does the Douay Rheims Bible(DRB) translate burnt offering עֹלָ֥ה as Holocaust in Numbers 28:3?

3 These are the sacrifices which you shall offer: Two lambs of a year old without blemish every day for the perpetual holocaust In other versions it is translated as burnt offering: KJV 3 And thou ...
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2answers
49 views

Is it queen of the south or Queen of Sheba in Luke 11:31 and Matthew 12:42?

Luke 11:31 The Queen of Sheba will stand up. In the Greek manuscript Βασίλισσα νότου clearly indicates "queen of south". Some versions of the Bible have "Queen of Sheba". Are they not interpreting ...
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1answer
56 views

Could the Genitive at Ps 136/7:6 both partitive and of subordination within rules of grammar?

Could the Genitive at Ps 136/7:6 both partitive and of subordination within rules of grammar? In Psalm 137:6 we find the Greek αρχή rendered from the Hebrew reshit. It is the head noun the genitive “...
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2answers
152 views

Since at Galatians 1:1 Father is appositional to θεός but Son is never in the NT, how does this make them θεός differently?

Since at Galatians 1:1 "Father" is appositional to θεός but "Son" is never in the NT, how does this make them θεός differently? Daniel Wallace says: it would be wrong to say &...
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1answer
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Should I read “The Message” (MSG) translation of the Bible?

I read some citations of the MSG Bible for the first time and I felt like those verses were not very accurate as I have read in my native language (Tamil) or the New Living Translation version (I use ...
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Are the birds formed from the sea? (Gen 1:20)

According to the Jewish Publication Society (JPS) and the Lexham English Septuagint (LES), birds and such seem to be formed from the waters: God said, "Let the waters bring forth swarms of ...
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66 views

What is the translation of “whom I uphold” In Hebrew which it were montioned in Isaiah?

In Isaiah 42:1-4 there is an attractive testament which is : “Behold! My Servant, whom I uphold; My Elect One, in whom My soul delights! I have put My Spirit upon Him; He will bring forth justice to ...
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(Romans 8:26) “What” to pray And/Or “How” to pray of a specific prayer

I do Not have any comprehension and/or fluency in the Greek language(s). However, I wanted to get a better understanding of Romans 8:26 which is related to prayer. I might just be nit-picking. As I ...
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7answers
146 views

Translation bias

Heb 1:2 "but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, and through whom also he made the universe." NIV The Gr. 'aiōnas' is often rendered '...
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1answer
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(1 John 3:5-10 & 1 John 5:18)Alexandrian manuscripts relatively practical, level-headed while Byzantine manuscripts are rhetorical hyperbole-like

As I was reading 1 John 3:5-10 & 1 John 5:18 in different bible translations belonging to either the Byzantine family or the Alexandrian family of manuscripts. I noticed that the Alexandrian ...
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2answers
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Is the Bible any easier to understand in Hebrew (or Aramaic/Greek) than it is in English?

I ask this question because when I read or study the Bible, it sometimes takes me quite a while to figure out what the Bible is saying because the text seems a little "dense" (like in Romans or ...
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3answers
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Best Translation from Greek to English

Can you direct me to the best English translation from the best Greek manuscripts showing accurately the moods and tenses in the translation? Thank you
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Computer analysis of authorship in Daniel?

Computers have demonstrated that Genesis was probably written by one person https://www.nytimes.com/1981/11/08/world/computer-points-to-single-author-for-genesis.html I've been looking around and can'...
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Should the sense of the Greek μονογενής (only-begotten vs unique) in John be understood from Pagan Greek religion or Scripture?

Should the sense of the Greek μονογενής (only-begotten vs unique) in John be understood from Pagan Greek religion or Scripture?
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1answer
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Genesis 22:8, 9: is there a difference in the meaning due to the use of the indefinite article ‘a’ and the definite article ‘the’?

Genesis 22:8, 9 ..., God will provide himself ‘a’ lamb for a burnt offering; ... (KJV) ..., God will provide for Himself ‘the’ lamb for a burnt offering, ... (The Interlinear Bible Hebrew-Greek-...
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700 views

Why do the NLT translators say “demons” (Rom 8:38)?

Rom 8:38 (NLT): And I am convinced that nothing can ever separate us from God's love. Neither death nor life, neither angels nor demons*, neither our fears for today nor our worries about tomorrow ...
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5answers
346 views

Since the earliest copies of the Jewish LXX translation to Greek contains YHWH, what reasons do modern translations give for replacing it with LORD?

Since the earliest copies of the Jewish LXX translation to Greek contains YHWH, what reasons do modern translations give for replacing it with LORD? While there are other questions on this ...
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Why John 1:1 in (DRB)(Douay-Rheims Bible) is not literal translation from the Latin Vulgate?

John 1:1 in DRB (Douay-Rheims) is: "... and the Word was God." This is not literal translation from the Latin Vulgate. John 1:1 LV: "...et Deus erat Verbum." I think the literal English ...
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99 views

What are the main Textual Differences between KJV and DRB?

First of all, the answer is possible, but needs some effort. I am not overhasty, take your time. I think the honest answer will direct us toward the most accurate translation to the most accurate ...
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3answers
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Isaiah14:12 truth of translation

Was Isaiah 14:12 not even about the devil, but just a king , when referencing the Torah but that early church council supplemented the devil for the king in the Christian bible based on motives of ...
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1answer
44 views

Why is the word “Christ” missing in Matthew 23:8 in some translations?

Matthew 23:8 NASB 8 >But do not be called Rabbi; for One is your Teacher, and you are all brothers. Matthew 23:8 KJV 8 But be not ye called Rabbi: for one is your Master, even Christ; and all ye ...
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Does anyone disagree that the following hermeneutic principles are important and if so, why?

This question is the result of numerous discussions with Biblical Unitarians who attempt to exegete the original languages on verses which otherwise prove the pre-human existence of God’s Son. Προς ...
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2answers
238 views

Why KJV translated “Χριστοῦ” as “God” in Ephesians 5:21?

Ephesians 5:21 (DRB): Being subject one to another, in the fear of Christ. Ephesians 5:21 (KJB): Submitting yourselves one to another in the fear of God. KJV and NKJV, both versions translated ...
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2answers
126 views

Why does the NIV translate Psalms 52:1 differently than many other translations?

Psalms 52:1 NIV Why do you boast of evil, you mighty hero? Why do you boast all day long, you who are a disgrace in the eyes of God? Psalm 52 King James Version (KJV) 52 Why ...
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1answer
93 views

Is the Father the source of the Son?

Jesus said, John 6:57 KJVS As the living Father hath sent me, and I live by the Father: so he that eateth me, even he shall live by me. Again He says, John 5:26 KJVS For as the Father hath ...
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100 views

Does John 14:23 involve a “physical” house?

John 14:23 in some translation involves "making our home with them" while some translate them as "make our abode with him" from "ποιησόμεθα μονὴν". Which translation is correct and does that phrase ...
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2answers
224 views

Did Jesus speak pidgin or ungrammatically at John 8:58?

Every native speaker can intuitively tell that "Before Abraham was born, I am" is not grammatical English. To take "I am" as a title of God is equivalent to "Before Abraham ...
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Psalm 96 (95) Why does the LXX translate אלילים as δαιμόνια?

Psalm 96 (95) v. 5 (Westminister Leningrad Codex) כִּ֤י ׀ כָּל־אֱלֹהֵ֣י הָעַמִּ֣ים אֱלִילִ֑ים וַֽ֝יהוָ֗ה שָׁמַ֥יִם עָשָֽׂה׃ (LXX) ὅτι πάντες οἱ θεοὶ τῶν ἐθνῶν δαιμόνια, ὁ δὲ κύριος τοὺς ...
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How do we justify the transaltion of NIV in 2 Samuel 12:31?

2 Samuel 12:31 reads: וְאֶת-הָעָם אֲשֶׁר-בָּהּ הוֹצִיא, וַיָּשֶׂם בַּמְּגֵרָה וּבַחֲרִצֵי הַבַּרְזֶל וּבְמַגְזְרֹת הַבַּרְזֶל וְהֶעֱבִיר אוֹתָם במלכן (בַּמַּלְבֵּן), וְכֵן יַעֲשֶׂה, לְכֹל ...
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1answer
352 views

Should there be a comma between “Wonderful” and “Counselor” in Isa. 9:6?

Isaiah 9:6 says: For to us a child is born, to us a son is given; and the government shall be upon his shoulder, and his name shall be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father,...
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A male child is born to us

Is there a difference, even very small, in the meaning of: A male child is born to us. vs A male child has been born to us. The "is born" is rather unusual in English. What is the best ...
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1answer
34 views

Rom 8:31 ?..Who can be against us? Is this a valid grammatical adjustment?

Rom 8:31 (NKJV)  What then shall we say to these things? If God is for us, who can be against us? Does the Greek text allow for this translation? What then shall we say to these things if God is for ...
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2answers
108 views

Difference in translation for John 1:1 [duplicate]

47 of the 59 translations of the Bible online are consistent in translating the third phrase John 1:1 as ‘... the Word was God.’. The Greek Bible translated the same as ‘... God was the Word.’ Are ...
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1answer
170 views

“Do not lead us into temptation” is a bad translation?

In a sermon by Randy Pope, he mentions that "do not lead us into temptation" is a "horrible" and "misleading" translation of Matthew 6:13 (around the 11:40 mark). καὶ μὴ εἰσενέγκῃς ἡμᾶς εἰς ...
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3answers
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Ex 12:18-19 | Hebrew Breakdown of 7-Days of Unleavened Bread

Ex 12:18 'In the first [month,] on the fourteenth day of the month at evening, you shall eat unleavened bread, until the twenty-first day of the month at evening. Ex 12:19 'Seven days there shall be ...
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Interpretations and translations of a Moises speech

I study Latin and I don't understand this sentence "absumat ebria sitientem", found in deuteronomy:29:19 Context (just before the sentence): [because when such a person hears the words of this oath, ...
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128 views

Differences in translation of John 4:24

John 4:24 A spirit God (is) ... (Greek) God is a spirit ... KING JAMES II Version God is a Spirit (LASB KJV) God is Spirit (NKJV) 1&2 are from The Interlinear Bible: Hebrew, Greek, English Do ...
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1answer
55 views

Rev 22:17 related to Isaiah 55:1 [duplicate]

I read on this forum an explanation of the Hebrew idiom in Isaiah 55:1. It referenced an association with Rev 22:17. Can someone clarify how these two scriptures are associated.
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1answer
259 views

Does the Amplified (classic) give a trustworthy version of Mark 4:23-25?

Here is the passage... Mark 4:23-25 (AMP Classic Edition) 23 If any man has ears to hear, let him be listening and let him perceive and comprehend. 24 And He said to them, Be careful what ...
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4answers
2k views

Answer not a fool, or answer a fool?

Proverbs 26:4 (KJV) says, Answer not a fool according to his folly, lest thou also be like unto him. The very next verse, verse 5, says, Answer a fool according to his folly, lest he be wise ...
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4answers
349 views

How do the waters of Noah's flood correspond to baptism (1 Peter 3:21)?

In the NIV and the Berean Study Bible (apparently the most literal Bible translation according to its website) versions, 1 Peter 3:21 reads: "and this water symbolizes baptism that now saves you ...
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2answers
106 views

In Genesis 27:19 what is the meaning of “that your soul may bless me”?

When Jacob responds to Isaac's call in Genesis 27:19 [NKJV], he says these words: “...I am Esau your firstborn; I have done just as you told me; please arise, sit and eat of my game, that your ...

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