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Questions tagged [translation-philosophy]

The philosophical basis that grounds the work of translators. Questions about specific translation problems should instead be tagged hebrew, aramaic, or greek as appropriate.

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Why are quotation marks used in translations of 1 Corinthians 10:23?

In 1 Corinthians 10:23, most English translations use quotation marks to suggest that Paul is quoting someone else. For instance, the RSV says... “All things are lawful,” but not all things are ...
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In Exodus 20:26 what does it mean “and you shall not go up by steps to my altar, that your nakedness be not exposed on it”?

What does God mean ''and you shall not go up by steps to my altar, that your nakedness be not exposed on it''? Should this verse be taken literally? Exodus 20:26 And you shall not go up by steps ...
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Will “The Modern Literal Translation of the Bible” HELP STOP the growth of NEW Christian Sects? [closed]

Please go to this link to download a free copy of the "Modern Literal Translation" of the bible into e-Sword, MyBible, MySword and soon MLV's own app, and use it to test your favorite bible passages. ...
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What is the meaning of the Hebrew words “temunah” and “adameh” as translated in the KJV, particularly in Numbers 12:8?

I have an assignment on the meaning behind the King James Version translation of Numbers 12:8: With him [Moses] will I speak mouth to mouth, even apparently, and not in dark speeches; and the ...
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In Ephesians 2:2 is Paul speaking of “the course” of the world or “Aeon of the world”?

NIV Eph 2:2 in which you used to live when you followed the ways of this world and of the ruler of the kingdom of the air, the spirit who is now at work in those who are disobedient. MGNT 2:2 ἐν ...
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Why are forms of the word 'βάπτισμα' transliterated as 'baptism, baptize,' instead of being translated?

Mark 16:16, "He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned." (KJV) Is the word "baptized" in the English translations really a translation? I was ...
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English translation of “you” in the New Testament [closed]

Are 98% of the English translated "you"s from the Greek New Testament tranlated into the plural rather than singular form and meaning of "you"?
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Why do the NASB translators of 1 Cor. 14:1 add the word “earnestly” before “desire spiritual gifts”?

1 Cor. 14:1 in the NASB reads: "Pursue love, and earnestly desire the spiritual gifts, especially that you may prophesy." The Greek word used here for "desire" is "Διώκετε," a present - active - ...
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How does Hebrews 12:21 quote Deutoronomy 9:19?

In the NKJV there are footnotes which indicate that Hebrews 12:21 is a quote from Deutoronomy 9:19 but there seem to be some differences there. Hebrews 12:18-21 NKJV. 18 For you have not come [g]...
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What is the most accurate way to translate “ἐκ” in 1 Cor 11:28?

I have made an effort to translate the following text. 1Cor 11:28 Δοκιμαζέτω(let - prove or examine) δὲ(but) ἄνθρωπος(a man) ἑαυτόν(himself), καὶ(and) οὕτως(in-this-way) ἐκ(out) τοῦ(of ...
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In Mat.11:12 “…the kindom of heaven suffereth violence…” what does “suffereth” mean?

In Mat.11:12 ... the kingdom of heaven suffereth violence ... (KJV) What was meant by suffereth in current day use? Please.
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In Matthew 6:10 should it be translated “on the earth” or "in the earth?

Matthew 6:10 in the Authorized King James version. Say IN Earth and most other versions says ON Earth. To me there is a difference of In and On. Also the Earth and World are not the same. God created ...
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Why is 2 Peter 1:19 commonly translated with “day star” rather than “Lucifer”?

The word "Lucifer" comes from 2 Latin words: Lux (=light) + ferous (=to bear or carry). Thus the name "Lucifer" means: Light-bearer or Light-bringer. Yet in the KJV and many other translations this ...
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How did the Father God give God the Son the power of Life?

How did God the Son need to be given the ability to have life in himself as the Father has life in Himself? Wouldn't the Son have had life in Himself from His self existence? John 5:26 For as ...
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Who is Jesus's “God”?

What God is Jesus speaking of in these passages? How can God have a God? Revelation 3:12 (KJV) Him that overcometh will I make a pillar in the temple of my God, and he shall go no more out: and I ...
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Did Lancelot Charles Lee Brenton borrow from the King James Version (KJV) when translating or editing his English Septuagint?

There are some New Testament allusions or quotations in the King James Version (KJV) that don't precisely match the Old Testament (KJV) source that they point to; however, such allusions or quotations ...
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Are the words Tartan and Rabshakeh Assyrian titles or proper names in Isaiah?

A recent argument involved two passages from Iasiah, 20:1 and 36:2: When looking at the most modern translations and comparing them with older ones there is – as a tendency I presume – a glaring ...
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Contradiction between Exodus 29:18 and Jeremiah 7:22

What does Jeremiah mean by his statement in Jeremiah 7:22? For in the day that I brought them out of the land of Egypt, I did not speak to your fathers or command them concerning burnt offerings ...
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What does the phrase “to cover his feet” refer to in 1 Samuel 24:3?

1 Samuel 24:3 KJV 3 And he came to the sheepcotes by the way, where was a cave; and Saul went in to cover his feet: and David and his men remained in the sides of the cave. Its not clear what ...
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Was Jesus hungry or very hungry after 40 days?

The temptation of Jesus in the wilderness is summarised thus: Matthew 4:2 (see for example BibleHub and also Luk 4:2) KJV: And when he had fasted forty days and forty nights, he was ...
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Is Paul's anachronistic reference to “Christ” in 1 Cor. 10:9 a faux pas or to make a point?

1 Cor. 10:9(KJV) says, "μηδὲ ἐκπειράζωμεν τὸν Χριστόν καθὼς καί τινες αὐτῶν ἐπείρασαν καὶ ὑπὸ τῶν ὄφεων ἀπώλοντο (Neither should we test the Christ, as some of them tested, and by serpents ...
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Should translations capitalize nouns that might refer to deity? [closed]

Modern English translations of the Bible no longer capitalize pronouns that refer to deity since the original text has no capitalization. Should the same practice be observed for capitalization of ...
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Does απολελυμενον refer to release from prison in Hebrews 13:23?

Bible in Basic English 13:23 Our brother Timothy has been let out of prison; and if he comes here in a short time, he and I will come to you together. American Standard Version 13:23 Know ye ...
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In partial sentence Numbers 16:1 what did Korach take?

Inspired by What does Cain say to Abel in Genesis 4:8?, at the beginning of Numbers 16, we have another incomplete sentence (all translations here): וַיִּקַּ֣ח קֹ֔רַח בֶּן־יִצְהָ֥ר בֶּן־קְהָ֖ת בֶּן־...
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Are Exodus 23:8 and Deuteronmy 16:19 meant to be identical?

There are two verses in the Pentateuch that exhort against bribery. Exodus 23:8 וְשֹׁחַד לֹא תִקָּח כִּי הַשֹּׁחַד יְעַוֵּר פִּקְחִים וִיסַלֵּף דִּבְרֵי צַדִּיקִים Deuteronomy 16:19 לֹא ...
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“At table” vs “At the table” in Luke 22:14,27

In the ESV translation, in Luke 22:14 (and Luke 22:27, and there might be other places), it says, "And when the hour came, he reclined at table, and the apostles with him". Now, as a native English ...
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Which is the correct translation of Hebrews 1:7?

American Standard Version Hebrews 1:7 And of the angels he saith, Who maketh his angels winds, And his ministers a flame a fire: Hebrews 1:7 NKJV 7 And of the angels He says: “Who makes His ...
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In Hebrews 9:16 does the author understand the covenant (διαθήκη) to be a “last will and testament”?

I notice that many English translations render διαθήκη in Hebrews 9:16 as either "will" or "testament": http://biblehub.com/hebrews/9-16.htm Is that correct or should it just be rendered "covenant" ...
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In Genesis 11:1, what is the difference in Hebrew between the word “language” and the word “speech”?

Genesis 11:1 (KJV): And the whole earth was of one language, and of one speech. The English translation seems to be redundant here, ie language and speech. In doing some prelim research into ...
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Is Leviticus 21:4 about a “chief”, “husband” or a “close relative”?

The Hebrew reads, לֹא יִטַּמָּא בַּעַל בְּעַמָּיו לְהֵחַלּוֹ There is disagreement between the translations as to how exactly we should translate this passage. The NET and KJV translations ...
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Why does the ASV translate πᾶσα γραφὴ θεόπνευστος in 2 Timothy 3:16 as “every scripture inspired of God”?

The ASV's translation of 2 Tim 3:16 reads: Every scripture inspired of God is also profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for instruction which is in righteousness. What arguments ...
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What does Genesis 28:22 mean with the repeated word

Gen 28:22 And this H2063  stone, H68  which H834  I have set H7760  for a pillar, H4676  shall be H1961  God's H430  house: H1004  and of all H3605  that H834  thou shalt give H5414  me I will ...
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Why doesn't the ASV translate the accusative με in John 14:14?

In the Greek, John 14:14 reads: ἐάν τι αἰτήσητέ με ἐν τῷ ὀνόματί μου ἐγὼ ποιήσω. (SBL) Most English translations render the accusative με as "me" or "of me"' for example, the ESV reads: If you ...
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Translation of Proverbs 14:14

My Hebrew is a bit rusty, got stuck on Proverbs 14:14, and particularly the second part of the verse, וּ֝מֵעָלָ֗יו אִ֣ישׁ טֹֽוב׃ How do I translate, וּ֝מֵעָלָ֗יו correctly in the context of this ...
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How does the NKJV apply 2 Samuel 7:14 to 2 Corinthians 6:18?

2 Samuel 7:14 New King James Version (NKJV) 14 I will be his Father, and he shall be My son. If he commits iniquity, I will chasten him with the rod of men and with the blows of the sons of men. 2 ...
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The Reina Valera vs. the Latin Vulgate

I do not speak much Spanish, but I have picked up a Reina Valera version of the Bible a couple of times and leafed through it to try to see what I could understand of it. Rather than any native ...
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Are commands phrased in plural the NT to be taken as commands to inviduals?

Grammatically, many commands in the New Testament are plural. However, they can only be obeyed by individuals. Does koine Greek syntax allow a singular translation? References, please.
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How is Daniel 12.2 accurately Translated?

Basically Daniel 12.2 has been translated as "and some to shame [and] everlasting contempt" particularly in the KJV and others. But I have also come across others reading: "and some to the shame of ...
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Why do many translations have “I will avenge” not “I will cleanse” in Joel 3:21?

Many translations treat נָקָה which means "to be empty, pure or innocent" [H5352-naqah] inconsistently. For example, וְנִקֵּיתִי is found in Psalm 19 and Joel 3: Keep back your servant also from ...
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Correct/true translation of Revelation 13:18

It was brought to my attention that the original Greek says that "....for the number is that of a man", should actually read "....for the number is that of man". This infers that the "number" is tied ...
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Regarding word order in Hebrew-English translation

I am studying an interlinear translation of the acrostic poem in Proverbs Chapter 31, found at http://biblehub.com/interlinear/proverbs/31.htm (lines 10-31). My question is this: since the English is ...
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What does the phrase “time of life” mean in Genesis 18:10?

Genesis 18:10 (KJV) And he said, I will certainly return unto thee according to the time of life; and, lo, Sarah thy wife shall have a son. And Sarah heard it in the tent door, which was behind ...
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Why do some versions have “Christ” in 1 Peter 3:15 while others have “God”?

I'm finding inconsistencies between translations of 1 Peter 3:15 KJV But sanctify the Lord God in your hearts... NASB but sanctify Christ as Lord in your hearts ESV but in your hearts ...
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Why is there no pronoun attached to the reflexive 'abhor' of Job in 42:6?

Last year I put the book of Job into poetic verse, referenced from selected translations as I am not an Hebrew scholar. I have never been content with the last verse as there appears to be a ...
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Is it “preaching” or “the thing preached” that is foolish in 1 Cor 1:21?

Is it preaching or the thing preached that is foolish and pleasing to God as a means to save those who believe in 1 Cor 1:21?
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What does ἀϊδίοις mean in Jude 1:6?

"And the angels which kept not their first estate, but left their own habitation, he hath reserved in everlasting chains under darkness unto the judgment of the great day." Jude 1:6 KJV ἀγγέλους ...
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Why does להבריאכם mean “to make yourselves fat” in 1 Samuel 2:29

למה תבעטו בזבחי ובמנחתי אשר צויתי מעון ותכבד את־בניך ממני להבריאכם מראשית כל־מנחת ישראל לעמי "Wherefore kick ye at my sacrifice and at mine offering, which I have commanded in my habitation; and ...
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Did Jesus hide himself or was he hidden in John 8:59?

In John 8:59 (and in John 12:36) the voice of the verb κρύπτω is passive which I understand to mean that the subject (Jesus) is receiving the action of the verb as opposed to doing the action of the ...
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151 views

What is the best translation for הַפַּ֗עַם? (Gn 2:23)

I have encountered the word פַּעַם before, specifically, in my textbook,1 and saw it translated as "time" or "occurrence". My textbook also noted that the word can mean "once". But in this specific ...
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In Hebrews 11:6 is there any difference between “is” and “exists”?

Is there any improper nuance to the word "exists" vs "is" in translating the present tense of "to be" in Hebrews 11:6? Berean Literal Bible: And without faith, it is impossible to please Him. For ...