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Questions tagged [translation-philosophy]

The philosophical basis that grounds the work of translators. Questions about specific translation problems should instead be tagged hebrew, aramaic, or greek as appropriate.

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Is the (Holman) Christian Standard Bible's rendering, “completely dark sheep”, at Gen. 30:40, reasonably correct?

Gen 30:40 Jacob separated the lambs and made the flocks face the streaked sheep and the completely dark sheep in Laban’s flocks. Then he set his own stock apart and didn’t put them with Laban’s sheep.
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Why does Mark 10:21 in the NKJV include take up your cross where other translations do not? [duplicate]

In Mark 10:21 Jesus says And Jesus, looking at him, loved him, and said to him, “You lack one thing: go, sell all that you have and give to the poor, and you will have treasure in heaven; and come,...
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Who are being spoken of in these verses from Isaiah in the 'The Divine Name King James Bible'? [closed]

Isiah Ch 43 Vss. 10 "Ye are my witnesses, saith Jehovah, and my servant whom I have chosen: that ye may know and believe me, and understand that I am he: before me there was no God formed, ...
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2answers
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Isaiah 12:2: Why do some translations use 'song' and others use 'defence'?

In Isaiah 12:2 (NIV), it says: ...The LORD ... is my strength and my defence*... *Or song In other translations, such as the KJV and NLT, it is translated directly to 'song' which no mention ...
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1answer
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Why does YLT change the tense of Judges 6:14

Judges 6:14 in KJV and most other translation is in future tense And the LORD looked upon him, and said, Go in this thy might, and thou shalt save Israel from the hand of the Midianites: have ...
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2answers
67 views

When did people start to eat meat?

On the sixth day, God gave humans green plants as food: And God said, "Behold, I have given you every plant yielding seed that is on the face of all the earth, and every tree with seed in its ...
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3answers
352 views

Two N.T. verses in two different Greek Interlinears have differences that seem critically important so I ask for clarification

Before I can arrive at a conclusion, or even make comment on a recent question asked in Stack Christianity, I need clarification on the Greek text of two scriptures. The matter relates to both God the ...
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1answer
211 views

Why does the LXX translate דֹּדֶ֖יךָ as μαστοί in Song of Songs 1:2?

Song of Songs 1:2 Hebrew: יִשָּׁקֵ֙נִי֙ מִנְּשִׁיקֹ֣ות פִּ֔יהוּ כִּֽי־טֹובִ֥ים דֹּדֶ֖יךָ מִיָּֽיִן׃ KJV: Let him kiss me with the kisses of his mouth: for thy love is better than wine. ...
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What is the justification for translating se'eth as “accepted” in regards to Cain?

If thou doest well, shalt thou not be accepted? (Gen. 4:7 KJV). This is the only time this Hebrew word is translated as "accepted" and I'm looking for some justification for doing so.
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In using a Koine lexicon, does only the first entry count? [closed]

It has been suggested on another site that only the first entry of a Koine lexicon "counts". In this example of neo-Platonism, the first lexeme matches the "Ideal Form" which in this case is an ...
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Do translators really know how to translate “a man after his own heart” ? 1 Sam. 13:14

After a brief study, it appears that translators are unsure how to translate this phrase. The NET bible translation notes say "Heb 'according to his heart.' The idiomatic expression means to be like-...
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2answers
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What are the highest heavens in Nehemiah 9:6?

The Masoretic text of Nehemia 9:6 reads: אַתָּה־ה֣וּא יְהֹוָה֮ לְבַדֶּ֒ךָ֒ את אַתָּ֣ה עָשִׂ֡יתָ אֶֽת־הַשָּׁמַ֩יִם֩ שְׁמֵ֨י הַשָּׁמַ֜יִם וְכׇל־צְבָאָ֗ם הָאָ֜רֶץ וְכׇל־אֲשֶׁ֤ר עָלֶ֙יהָ֙ הַיַּמִּים֙ ...
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2answers
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What is the most exact translation of the Greek word δωρεάν?

I came across this word most notably when reading the book of John where it says But this is to fulfill what is written in their Law: ‘They hated Me without reason.’ John 15:25 BSB The word δωρεάν ...
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3answers
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How can we understand Romans 4:19 in the light of different translations?

NA 28 Romans 4:19 19καὶ μὴ ἀσθενήσας τῇ πίστει κατενόησεν τὸ ἑαυτοῦ σῶμα [ἤδη] νενεκρωμένον, ἑκατονταετής που ὑπάρχων, καὶ τὴν νέκρωσιν τῆς μήτρας Σάρρας· American Standard Version Romans 4:19 (...
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3answers
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Why are quotation marks used in translations of 1 Corinthians 10:23?

In 1 Corinthians 10:23, most English translations use quotation marks to suggest that Paul is quoting someone else. For instance, the RSV says... “All things are lawful,” but not all things are ...
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5answers
138 views

In Exodus 20:26 what does it mean “and you shall not go up by steps to my altar, that your nakedness be not exposed on it”?

What does God mean ''and you shall not go up by steps to my altar, that your nakedness be not exposed on it''? Should this verse be taken literally? Exodus 20:26 And you shall not go up by steps ...
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Will “The Modern Literal Translation of the Bible” HELP STOP the growth of NEW Christian Sects? [closed]

Please go to this link to download a free copy of the "Modern Literal Translation" of the bible into e-Sword, MyBible, MySword and soon MLV's own app, and use it to test your favorite bible passages. ...
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What is the meaning of the Hebrew words “temunah” and “adameh” as translated in the KJV, particularly in Numbers 12:8?

I have an assignment on the meaning behind the King James Version translation of Numbers 12:8: With him [Moses] will I speak mouth to mouth, even apparently, and not in dark speeches; and the ...
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4answers
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In Ephesians 2:2 is Paul speaking of “the course” of the world or “Aeon of the world”?

NIV Eph 2:2 in which you used to live when you followed the ways of this world and of the ruler of the kingdom of the air, the spirit who is now at work in those who are disobedient. MGNT 2:2 ἐν ...
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1answer
49 views

Why are forms of the word 'βάπτισμα' transliterated as 'baptism, baptize,' instead of being translated?

Mark 16:16, "He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned." (KJV) Is the word "baptized" in the English translations really a translation? I was ...
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1answer
31 views

English translation of “you” in the New Testament [closed]

Are 98% of the English translated "you"s from the Greek New Testament tranlated into the plural rather than singular form and meaning of "you"?
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1answer
67 views

Why do the NASB translators of 1 Cor. 14:1 add the word “earnestly” before “desire spiritual gifts”?

1 Cor. 14:1 in the NASB reads: "Pursue love, and earnestly desire the spiritual gifts, especially that you may prophesy." The Greek word used here for "desire" is "Διώκετε," a present - active - ...
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1answer
49 views

How does Hebrews 12:21 quote Deutoronomy 9:19?

In the NKJV there are footnotes which indicate that Hebrews 12:21 is a quote from Deutoronomy 9:19 but there seem to be some differences there. Hebrews 12:18-21 NKJV. 18 For you have not come [g]...
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2answers
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What is the most accurate way to translate “ἐκ” in 1 Cor 11:28?

I have made an effort to translate the following text. 1Cor 11:28 Δοκιμαζέτω(let - prove or examine) δὲ(but) ἄνθρωπος(a man) ἑαυτόν(himself), καὶ(and) οὕτως(in-this-way) ἐκ(out) τοῦ(of ...
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2answers
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In Mat.11:12 “…the kindom of heaven suffereth violence…” what does “suffereth” mean?

In Mat.11:12 ... the kingdom of heaven suffereth violence ... (KJV) What was meant by suffereth in current day use? Please.
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1answer
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In Matthew 6:10 should it be translated “on the earth” or "in the earth?

Matthew 6:10 in the Authorized King James version. Say IN Earth and most other versions says ON Earth. To me there is a difference of In and On. Also the Earth and World are not the same. God created ...
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3answers
211 views

Why is 2 Peter 1:19 commonly translated with “day star” rather than “Lucifer”?

The word "Lucifer" comes from 2 Latin words: Lux (=light) + ferous (=to bear or carry). Thus the name "Lucifer" means: Light-bearer or Light-bringer. Yet in the KJV and many other translations this ...
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How did the Father God give God the Son the power of Life?

How did God the Son need to be given the ability to have life in himself as the Father has life in Himself? Wouldn't the Son have had life in Himself from His self existence? John 5:26 For as ...
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5answers
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Who is Jesus's “God”?

What God is Jesus speaking of in these passages? How can God have a God? Revelation 3:12 (KJV) Him that overcometh will I make a pillar in the temple of my God, and he shall go no more out: and I ...
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1answer
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Did Lancelot Charles Lee Brenton borrow from the King James Version (KJV) when translating or editing his English Septuagint?

There are some New Testament allusions or quotations in the King James Version (KJV) that don't precisely match the Old Testament (KJV) source that they point to; however, such allusions or quotations ...
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1answer
117 views

Are the words Tartan and Rabshakeh Assyrian titles or proper names in Isaiah?

A recent argument involved two passages from Iasiah, 20:1 and 36:2: When looking at the most modern translations and comparing them with older ones there is – as a tendency I presume – a glaring ...
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3answers
227 views

Contradiction between Exodus 29:18 and Jeremiah 7:22

What does Jeremiah mean by his statement in Jeremiah 7:22? For in the day that I brought them out of the land of Egypt, I did not speak to your fathers or command them concerning burnt offerings ...
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1answer
141 views

What does the phrase “to cover his feet” refer to in 1 Samuel 24:3?

1 Samuel 24:3 KJV 3 And he came to the sheepcotes by the way, where was a cave; and Saul went in to cover his feet: and David and his men remained in the sides of the cave. Its not clear what ...
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2answers
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Was Jesus hungry or very hungry after 40 days?

The temptation of Jesus in the wilderness is summarised thus: Matthew 4:2 (see for example BibleHub and also Luk 4:2) KJV: And when he had fasted forty days and forty nights, he was ...
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1answer
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Is Paul's anachronistic reference to “Christ” in 1 Cor. 10:9 a faux pas or to make a point?

1 Cor. 10:9(KJV) says, "μηδὲ ἐκπειράζωμεν τὸν Χριστόν καθὼς καί τινες αὐτῶν ἐπείρασαν καὶ ὑπὸ τῶν ὄφεων ἀπώλοντο (Neither should we test the Christ, as some of them tested, and by serpents ...
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1answer
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Should translations capitalize nouns that might refer to deity? [closed]

Modern English translations of the Bible no longer capitalize pronouns that refer to deity since the original text has no capitalization. Should the same practice be observed for capitalization of ...
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2answers
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Does απολελυμενον refer to release from prison in Hebrews 13:23?

Bible in Basic English 13:23 Our brother Timothy has been let out of prison; and if he comes here in a short time, he and I will come to you together. American Standard Version 13:23 Know ye ...
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3answers
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In partial sentence Numbers 16:1 what did Korach take?

Inspired by What does Cain say to Abel in Genesis 4:8?, at the beginning of Numbers 16, we have another incomplete sentence (all translations here): וַיִּקַּ֣ח קֹ֔רַח בֶּן־יִצְהָ֥ר בֶּן־קְהָ֖ת בֶּן־...
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2answers
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Are Exodus 23:8 and Deuteronmy 16:19 meant to be identical?

There are two verses in the Pentateuch that exhort against bribery. Exodus 23:8 וְשֹׁחַד לֹא תִקָּח כִּי הַשֹּׁחַד יְעַוֵּר פִּקְחִים וִיסַלֵּף דִּבְרֵי צַדִּיקִים Deuteronomy 16:19 לֹא ...
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1answer
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“At table” vs “At the table” in Luke 22:14,27

In the ESV translation, in Luke 22:14 (and Luke 22:27, and there might be other places), it says, "And when the hour came, he reclined at table, and the apostles with him". Now, as a native English ...
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3answers
138 views

Which is the correct translation of Hebrews 1:7?

American Standard Version Hebrews 1:7 And of the angels he saith, Who maketh his angels winds, And his ministers a flame a fire: Hebrews 1:7 NKJV 7 And of the angels He says: “Who makes His ...
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1answer
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In Hebrews 9:16 does the author understand the covenant (διαθήκη) to be a “last will and testament”?

I notice that many English translations render διαθήκη in Hebrews 9:16 as either "will" or "testament": http://biblehub.com/hebrews/9-16.htm Is that correct or should it just be rendered "covenant" ...
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3answers
304 views

In Genesis 11:1, what is the difference in Hebrew between the word “language” and the word “speech”?

Genesis 11:1 (KJV): And the whole earth was of one language, and of one speech. The English translation seems to be redundant here, ie language and speech. In doing some prelim research into ...
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3answers
153 views

Is Leviticus 21:4 about a “chief”, “husband” or a “close relative”?

The Hebrew reads, לֹא יִטַּמָּא בַּעַל בְּעַמָּיו לְהֵחַלּוֹ There is disagreement between the translations as to how exactly we should translate this passage. The NET and KJV translations ...
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1answer
102 views

Why does the ASV translate πᾶσα γραφὴ θεόπνευστος in 2 Timothy 3:16 as “every scripture inspired of God”?

The ASV's translation of 2 Tim 3:16 reads: Every scripture inspired of God is also profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for instruction which is in righteousness. What arguments ...
3
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1answer
72 views

What does Genesis 28:22 mean with the repeated word

Gen 28:22 And this H2063  stone, H68  which H834  I have set H7760  for a pillar, H4676  shall be H1961  God's H430  house: H1004  and of all H3605  that H834  thou shalt give H5414  me I will ...
2
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1answer
36 views

Why doesn't the ASV translate the accusative με in John 14:14?

In the Greek, John 14:14 reads: ἐάν τι αἰτήσητέ με ἐν τῷ ὀνόματί μου ἐγὼ ποιήσω. (SBL) Most English translations render the accusative με as "me" or "of me"' for example, the ESV reads: If you ...
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2answers
49 views

Translation of Proverbs 14:14

My Hebrew is a bit rusty, got stuck on Proverbs 14:14, and particularly the second part of the verse, וּ֝מֵעָלָ֗יו אִ֣ישׁ טֹֽוב׃ How do I translate, וּ֝מֵעָלָ֗יו correctly in the context of this ...
0
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1answer
79 views

How does the NKJV apply 2 Samuel 7:14 to 2 Corinthians 6:18?

2 Samuel 7:14 New King James Version (NKJV) 14 I will be his Father, and he shall be My son. If he commits iniquity, I will chasten him with the rod of men and with the blows of the sons of men. 2 ...
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1answer
94 views

The Reina Valera vs. the Latin Vulgate

I do not speak much Spanish, but I have picked up a Reina Valera version of the Bible a couple of times and leafed through it to try to see what I could understand of it. Rather than any native ...