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Questions tagged [1-timothy]

Questions about the first letter of Paul to Timothy. Instead of being addressed to a church, this letter was addressed to Timothy, a convert of Paul's and a pastor (hence, why it's one of the pastoral epistles).

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Charles Ellicott on 1 Timothy 6:10

In his commentary on 1 Timothy 6:10, Charles Ellicott wrote, For the love of money is the root of all evil.—Some would water down this strong expression by translating the Greek words by “a root of ...
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2answers
62 views

What does “oppositions of science falsely so called” mean?

1 Tim. 6:20(KJV) says, "O Timothy, keep that which is committed to thy trust, avoiding profane and vain babblings, and oppositions of science falsely so called". What does "Oppositions of ...
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3answers
60 views

In 1 Timothy 3:15 what is the function of a “στύλος καὶ ἑδραίωμα τῆς ἀληθείας”?

NIV 1 Timothy 3:15 if I am delayed, you will know how people ought to conduct themselves in God's household, which is the church of the living God, the pillar and foundation of the truth. WH ...
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2answers
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In 1 Timothy 3:6 is it a “new convert” or a “new arrival”?

NIV 1 Timothy 3: 1Here is a trustworthy saying: Whoever aspires to be an overseer desires a noble task. 2Now the overseer is to be above reproach, faithful to his wife, temperate, self-...
4
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2answers
128 views

What does “silly myths” mean in 1 Timothy 4:7?

1 Timothy 4:7 (ESV) Have nothing to do with irreverent, silly myths. Rather train yourself for godliness I mean how to differ between "this one is not silly myth" —versus— "that one is silly myth" ...
4
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3answers
90 views

Then who will save a woman those who are not bearing child?

God demands holiness, faith and love, and self-control from all mankind. I don't understand in what point Apostle Paul have said this "Yet she will be saved through childbearing-if they continue in ...
2
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4answers
92 views

In 1 Timothy 3:9 what is the “mystery of the faith”?

KJV 1 Timothy 3:9  Holding the mystery of the faith in a pure conscience. By "the mystery of the faith" does Paul mean the gospel itself? Or some particular aspect of the gospel? Why does it refer to ...
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1answer
60 views

Is 1 Timothy 1:17 about God or about Jesus?

I am primarily interested in the phrase "the King eternal": New International Version 1 Timothy 1:17 Now to the King eternal, immortal, invisible, the only God, be honor and glory for ever and ...
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2answers
69 views

Is 1 Timothy 6:15-16 about God or about Jesus?

YLT 1Ti 6:13  I charge thee, before God, who is making all things alive, and of Christ Jesus, who did testify before Pontius Pilate the right profession,  1Ti 6:14  that thou keep the command ...
2
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7answers
235 views

In 1 Timothy 1:9 what does Paul mean that the law is not made for a righteous person?

1 Timothy 1:9 (NKJV) knowing this: that the law is not made for a righteous person, but for the lawless and insubordinate, for the ungodly and for sinners, for the unholy and profane, for ...
6
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4answers
776 views

What does “above reproach” mean?

1 Tim 3:2 and Titus 1:6-7 talk about an elder being "above reproach." How do you understand this phrase? The explanations I've heard are either impossible to attain (nearly perfect/sinless) or so ...
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1answer
38 views

Did Paul view a young widow's desire to remarry as an expression of wantonness against Christ? 1 Timothy 5:11

1 Timothy:5.11 (NKJV) But refuse the younger widows; for when they have begun to grow wanton against Christ, they desire to marry Does Paul view a young widow's desire for marriage as an ...
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5answers
263 views

What did Paul mean by “the mystery of piety” in 1 Timothy 3:16?

1 Timothy 3:16 (Berean Literal Bible) And confessedly, great is the mystery of godliness: Who was revealed in the flesh, was justified in the Spirit, was seen by angels, was proclaimed among ...
3
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5answers
298 views

How can we understand the contradiction in Romans 5:12 & 1 Timothy 2:14?

(NIV) Romans 5:12 12 Therefore, just as sin entered the world through one man, and death through sin, and in this way death came to all people, because all sinned— (NIV) 1 Timothy 2:14 14 And ...
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3answers
240 views

Woman behavior according to 1 Timothy 2.9-15 - historical context

I am meditating in the pastoral letters of Paul, trying to understand deeply his advice. However due to my lack of historical context knowledge, I couldn't really understand what he really meant on 1 ...
4
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1answer
90 views

1 Timothy 4:1-3; Whose Fault Is It?

The KJV of 1 Timothy 4:1-3, as I read it, seems to indicate that some people will depart from the faith because they are the ones consulting evil spirits, believing doctrines of devils, and that they ...
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2answers
202 views

1 Timothy 1:15 Paul says he is “chief”

What is the meaning of "chief" in 1 Timothy 1:15? Different Bible translations change the meaning of the word that is translated as "chief" in the KJV. This is a faithful saying, and worthy of ...
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1answer
108 views

In what way is laying on of hands related to sharing in other peoples sins in 1 Timothy 5:22?

1 Timothy 5 NASB [22]Do not lay hands upon anyone too hastily and thereby share responsibility for the sins of others; keep yourself free from sin. In what way is laying on of hands connected to ...
2
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1answer
72 views

To what does laying on of hands refer to in 1 Timothy 5:22?

1 Timothy 5 NASB [22]Do not lay hands upon anyone too hastily and thereby share responsibility for the sins of others; keep yourself free from sin. Does this refer to laying on hands on the sick ...
2
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1answer
280 views

What does 1 Timothy 5:9 mean about not admitting widows under sixty years old? Was it to the church back then? And why?

In 1 Timothy 5:9 (KJV) it states: Let not a widow be taken into the number under threescore years old, having been the wife of one man." What does the age of a widow have to do with her desire ...
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1answer
80 views

Elders and children: 1 Timothy 3:4 vs Titus 1:6

In the two New Testament passages describing qualifications for πρεσβυτέρους (commonly 'elders'), each has a phrase relating to children: 1 Timothy 3:4 τέκνα ἔχοντα ἐν ὑποταγῇ Children - ...
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3answers
245 views

Do verbs in present active indicative always imply temporality?

12 And I do not permit a woman to teach or to have authority over a man, but to be in silence. NKVJ, 1982 ΙΒʹ γυναικὶ δὲ διδάσκειν οὐκ ἐπιτρέπω οὐδὲ αὐθεντεῖν ἀνδρός ἀλλ᾽ εἶναι ἐν ἡσυχίᾳ TR, 1550 ...
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2answers
166 views

1 Timothy 2:15 - 'she' and 'they'

1 Timothy 2:12-15 (ESV) I do not permit a woman to teach or to exercise authority over a man; rather, she is to remain quiet. For Adam was formed first, then Eve; and Adam was not deceived, but ...
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1answer
121 views

How can we reconcile 1 Timothy 6 & Exodus 24? [duplicate]

1 Timothy 6 [16]who alone possesses immortality and dwells in unapproachable light, whom no man has seen or can see. To Him be honor and eternal dominion! Amen. Exodus 24:10-11 [10]and they saw ...
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5answers
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In 1 Timothy 6:16 why does Paul characterize Jesus as “Immortal”?

By definition "immortality" means one cannot die; immortal. However, 1 Timothy 6:16 (KJV) the greek word ἀθανασίαν is translated as "Immortal" Who only hath immortality, dwelling in the light which ...
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1answer
95 views

Does 1 Tim 5:17 indicate a real distinction between ruling vs teaching elders?

1 Tim 5:17 (ESV) Let the elders who rule well be considered worthy of double honor, especially those who labor in preaching and teaching. 1 Tim 3:2 (ESV) Therefore an overseer must be above ...
4
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1answer
106 views

Saviour of all people, ESPECIALLY of those who believe

1 Timothy 4:10 reads: That is why we labor and strive, because we have put our hope in the living God, who is the Savior of all people, and especially of those who believe. My question is, is ...
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1answer
885 views

Can a woman lead to pray for a man? [duplicate]

1 Timothy 2:12 (NIV) "I do not permit a woman to teach or to assume authority over a man; she must be quiet." I want to know, can a woman lead to pray for a man? Thanks
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3answers
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Hebrews 9:28 - is 'many' necessarily exclusionary?

A friend and I were having a discussion of the Calvanism vs. Arminianism variety. One of us cited 1 Timothy 2:4: This is good, and it is pleasing in the sight of God our Savior, 4 who desires all ...
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1answer
51 views

Was Paul not judgmental in 1 Timothy 18-20? (KJV)

(KJV)1 Timothy 1:12-13 And I thank Christ Jesus our Lord, who hath enabled me, for that he counted me faithful, putting me into the ministry; [13] Who was before a blasphemer, and a persecutor, and ...
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3answers
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Is “theos” of the Textus Receptus of 1 Timothy 3:16 the original reading?

The Greek text of 1 Tim. 3:16 according to the Textus Receptus of Robert Estienne reads: Notably, it begins with the word Θεὸς. The King James Version (1769) translates this into English as: And ...
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1answer
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How should νεόφυτος be understood in I Timothy 3:6

I Tim 3:6  μὴ νεόφυτον ἵνα μὴ τυφωθεὶς εἰς κρίμα ἐμπέσῃ τοῦ διαβόλου (Textus Receptus) In the list of qualifications for an ἐπίσκοπος in I Timothy 3, one of the qualifications, which is unique to ...
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1answer
94 views

Is there a contradiction between 1 Timothy 5:20 & Galatians 2:2

Timothy 5:20 (NKJV) 20 Those who are sinning rebuke in the presence of all, that the rest also may fear. Galatians 2:2 (NKJV) 2 And I went up by revelation, and communicated to them that ...
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1answer
48 views

In 1 Timothy 5:20, does «ἐνώπιον πάντων» modify «τοὺς ἁμαρτάνοντας» or «ἔλεγχε»?

The Greek text of 1 Tim. 5:20 according to the Textus Receptus states, Κʹ τοὺς ἁμαρτάνοντας ἐνώπιον πάντων ἔλεγχε ἵνα καὶ οἱ λοιποὶ φόβον ἔχωσιν TR, 1550 Does the phrase «ἐνώπιον πάντων» (“before ...
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2answers
365 views

Who are “all” in 1 Timothy 5:20?

1 Timothy 5:20 (ESV) reads "As for those who persist in sin, rebuke them in the presence of all, so that the rest may stand in fear." My readings leads me to believe that "all" represents an ...
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2answers
321 views

Why are kosmios and euschēmosynē both translated to “modesty” in the ESV?

Why are these two greek words both translated to modesty in the ESV and, to my knowledge, not translated this way in any other bible version? 1 Timothy 2:9 ESV likewise also that women should adorn ...
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2answers
264 views

In 1 Timothy 1:8-11, what does the author consider the “legitimate use of the law” to be?

In 1 Timothy 1:8-11, what does the author consider the "legitimate use of the law" to be?: ISV 1Ti 1:8 Of course, we know that the Law is good if a person uses it legitimately, 1Ti 1:9 that is,...
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1answer
58 views

In 1 Timothy 4:4-5 is “Paul” saying, for example, that if you eat pig or crawfish but give thanks then they will not harm you?

In 1 Timothy 4:4-5 is "Paul" saying, for example, that if you eat pig or crawfish but give thanks then they will not harm you?: 1Ti 4:4 For everything God created is good, and nothing should be ...
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4answers
2k views

What Does the Greek Word ‘Didaskein’ mean in 1 Timothy 2:12?

1 Timothy 2:12 says: “But I suffer not a woman to teach [διδάσκειν], nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence” (KJV). The word 'didaskein' translated 'to teach' has me a tad ...
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1answer
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In 1st Timothy 5:17–18, is the “double honor” an imperative for pay?

1 Timothy 5:17-18 states: Elders who provide effective leadership must be counted worthy of double honor, especially those who work hard in speaking and teaching. For the scripture says, ...
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3answers
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What scripture is the author of 1 Tim 5:18 referencing?

1 Timothy 5:17-18 states Elders who provide effective leadership must be counted worthy of double honor, especially those who work hard in speaking and teaching. For the scripture says, ...
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5answers
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What is the meaning of “husband of one wife” in 1 Timothy 3:2?

In 1 Timothy 3:2 we read: Therefore an overseer must be above reproach, the husband of one wife (ESV) The ESV note that goes with the last phrase says, "Or a man of one woman." I'm aware of a ...
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2answers
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If Adam wasn't deceived but Eve (1 Timothy 2:14), then, why did sin enter not by Eve but by Adam (Romans 5:12)? [closed]

If Adam wasn't deceived but Eve (1 Timothy 2:14), then, why did sin enter not by Eve but by Adam (Romans 5:12)? 1 Timothy 2:14 (NIV) And Adam was not the one deceived; it was the woman who was ...
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2answers
108 views

To whom does “the righteous” refer to in 1 Timothy 1:9?

1 Timothy 1:9 begins: We also know that the law is made not for the righteous but for lawbreakers and rebels, the ungodly and sinful... Does "the righteous" refer to those perhaps justified/...
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3answers
366 views

Why does Paul skip his usual blessing in Galatians, Titus, and 1 Timothy?

If we compare those three letters with those of Rom 1:8–10; 1 Cor 1:4–6; 2 Cor 1:3–7; Eph 1:1–10; Phil 1:4–6; Col 1:3–4; 1 Thess 1:2–3; 2 Thess 1:3–4; 2 Tim 1:3–4, we find that it doesn't begin with a ...
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1answer
953 views

Why does Paul reference Genesis in 1 Timothy 2:13-14?

1 Tim 2:13-14: For Adam was formed first, then Eve. 14 And Adam was not the one deceived; it was the woman who was deceived and became a sinner. (NIV) I've read that he is saying that history is ...
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1answer
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What was Luke's relationship to Paul regarding Christian matters, and thus their texts' relationships?

A comment in contention against this answer about early attestation of Luke's gospel in 1 Tim 5:18 being 1st century from Paul himself (where Paul would be referring to Luke's gospel as "Scripture") ...
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2answers
339 views

In 1 Timothy 3:15 is it “God” or “the church of God” that is the “pillar and support of the truth”?

1 Tim 3:15 (NA28): ....ἐκκλησία θεοῦ ζῶντος, στῦλος καὶ ἑδραίωμα τῆς ἀληθείας. This refers to the church of the living God, the pillar and support of truth in GNB. The CEV makes it clear that ...
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1answer
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αρσενοκοίτης (Arsenokoites): Compound words in Greek

In two texts in The Bible, the word αρσενοκοίτης (Arsenokoites) appears. 1 Corinthians 6:9-11 Or do you not know that the unrighteous will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived; ...
4
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4answers
390 views

What does “teachers of the Torah” mean in 1 Timothy 1:7?

What does Paul mean when he says They want to be teachers of the Torah, but they understand neither their own words nor the matters about which they make such emphatic pronouncements. -1 Tim 1:7 (...