Questions tagged [kjv]
Questions regarding the KJV translation of the Bible into English. Questions may include the 1611 translation or later editions.
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What are the various Bible Versions up till 1611?
My initial research suggests that a Bible Translation has to do with translating the Bible from one language into another. However, I have been asked to find out how many Bible Versions there were ...
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2answers
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In Rev.5:6, is the “Lamb” one of the “four beasts in the midst of the throne” (KJV)?
And I beheld, and, lo, in the midst of the throne and of the four beasts, and in the midst of the elders, stood a Lamb as it had been slain, having seven horns and seven eyes, which are the seven ...
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4answers
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What is the meaning of the Hebrew words “temunah” and “adameh” as translated in the KJV, particularly in Numbers 12:8?
I have an assignment on the meaning behind the King James Version translation of Numbers 12:8:
With him [Moses] will I speak mouth to mouth, even apparently, and not in dark speeches; and the ...
3
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1answer
42 views
Why is the KJV version of Matthew 5:44 so much longer than other Bibles?
From my search the KJV includes the phrase, "do good to them that hate you"
But that phrase doesn't seem to exist in the versions I typically use.
https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=...
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3answers
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Why is 2 Peter 1:19 commonly translated with “day star” rather than “Lucifer”?
The word "Lucifer" comes from 2 Latin words: Lux (=light) + ferous (=to bear or carry). Thus the name "Lucifer" means:
Light-bearer or Light-bringer.
Yet in the KJV and many other translations this ...
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3answers
87 views
Who is Jesus's “God”?
What God is Jesus speaking of in these passages? How can God have a God?
Revelation 3:12 (KJV)
Him that overcometh will I make a pillar in the temple of my God, and he shall go no more out: and I ...
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3answers
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In Acts 3:15 is Jesus called the “Author” or the “Prince” of life?
Acts 3:15 KJV/SBLGNT
15 And killed the Prince of life, whom God hath raised from the dead; whereof we are witnesses.
The Greek word archegos can be either 'prince' or 'author' according to ...
5
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1answer
87 views
Did Lancelot Charles Lee Brenton borrow from the King James Version (KJV) when translating or editing his English Septuagint?
There are some New Testament allusions or quotations in the King James Version (KJV) that don't precisely match the Old Testament (KJV) source that they point to; however, such allusions or quotations ...
2
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1answer
707 views
What is the origin of the paragraph markings in the King James Version?
Several editions of the King James Version I have seen have paragraph markings (¶). I have found no explanation for how these delineations were determined or who determined them, although this ...
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1answer
109 views
Why do some translations use “every creature” in Colossians 1:15?
Colossians 1:15: ὅς ἐστιν εἰκὼν τοῦ θεοῦ τοῦ ἀοράτου,
πρωτότοκος πάσης κτίσεως (NA28). Some translations render "πάσης κτίσεως" as "every creature" most as "all creation."
Who is the image of the ...
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0answers
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Sarah should have given children suck (Genesis 21, KJV) — I don't understand what that means [duplicate]
Genesis 21 (King James Bible):
5 And Abraham was a hundred years old, when his son Isaac was born unto him.
6 And Sarah said, God hath made me to laugh, so that all that hear will laugh with me.
...
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vote
1answer
351 views
What does “Sarah should have given children suck” (Genesis 21:7, KJV) mean?
Genesis 21:5-7 (King James Bible):
5 And Abraham was a hundred years old, when his son Isaac was born unto him.
6 And Sarah said, God hath made me to laugh, so that all that hear will laugh with ...
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votes
3answers
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Is “theos” of the Textus Receptus of 1 Timothy 3:16 the original reading?
The Greek text of 1 Tim. 3:16 according to the Textus Receptus of Robert Estienne reads:
Notably, it begins with the word Θεὸς. The King James Version (1769) translates this into English as:
And ...
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4answers
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How can we reconcile 2 Samuel 6:23 & 2 Samuel 21:7-9?
2 samuel 6:23 (KJV)
23 Therefore Michal the daughter of Saul had no child unto the day of her death.
2 samuel 21:7-9 (KJV)
7 But the king spared Mephibosheth, the son of Jonathan the son of ...
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1answer
625 views
Why do the KJV and BHS have a different number of chapters in Joel and Malachi?
Note- Title was "Why do different Bible versions, KJV and WLC(Westminster Leningrad Codex), have a different number of chapters in Joel and Malachi?" I've changed it to ... Since then i've found that ...
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1answer
393 views
Is “tor-im” translated to “turtles” in KJV correct? Turtles was not used that way in 1600
In Leviticus 5:7 "tor-im" is translated as "turtledove". And in Leviticus 12:8 "tor-im" is translated as "turtle". It seems confusing for translators to translate a word one way, and then translate it ...
4
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1answer
107 views
How were the passage divisions in the King James Bible determined?
The Cambridge edition of the King James Bible that I have shows passage (or paragraph) divisions throughout. I used to think that these were related to the Eusebian Canons, but this doesn't seem to ...
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2answers
379 views
Why does the KJV add “desire” to Mark 11:24?
Mark 11:24 ESV: Therefore I tell you, whatever you ask in prayer, believe that you have received it, and it will be yours.
Mark 11:24 KJV: Therefore I say unto you, What things soever ye desire, ...
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1answer
236 views
What manuscripts did people use to create the NIV and KJV? Are the manuscripts used to fashion the NIV older than the KJV?
What manuscripts did people use to create the NIV and KJV? Are the manuscripts used to fashion the NIV older than the KJV? Are they the same manuscripts?
To elaborate more on my question; I basically ...
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1answer
362 views
Is Satan the master of music?
Many argue that Satan is the master of music, referencing the KJV, NKJV and others, of Ezekiel 28:13 "the workmanship of thy tabrets and of thy pipes was prepared in thee in the day that thou wast ...
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1answer
128 views
Psalm 22:1 KJV vs Tehillim vs ESV
How does the ESV translate Psalm 22:1 as:
To the choirmaster: according to The Doe of the Dawn. A Psalm of
David. My God, my God, why have you forsaken me? Why are you so far
from saving me, ...
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1answer
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Proverbs 26:10 - Are modern translations right to involve an 'archer'?
I'm trying to interpret Proverbs 26:10, but as I've attempted to cross-reference more and more sources, I keep finding radically different translations:
"Like an archer who wounds at random, so is ...
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4answers
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Meaning of “ἄρτιος”(artios) in II Tim 3:17
II Tim 3:17 says,
"ἵνα ἄρτιος ᾖ ὁ τοῦ θεοῦ ἄνθρωπος πρὸς πᾶν ἔργον ἀγαθὸν ἐξηρτισμένος".(TR Stephanus-1550)
"That complete might be the of God man towards every work good, having been fully ...
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7answers
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In Isaiah 14:12 did the King James translator make a mistake using the term Lucifer to describe morning star?
KJV Isaiah 14:12
How art thou fallen from heaven, O Lucifer, son of the morning! how art thou cut down to the ground, which didst weaken the nations!
NRSV Isaiah 14:12
How you are fallen from ...
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vote
1answer
463 views
Greek Septuagint in KJV? Old Testament or New Testament?
Was the Septuagint used in the translation of the King James Version (KJV) of the Bible? Is it just for the Old Testament or the New Testament?
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3answers
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What was the logic behind changing “firmament” to “sky”?
The King James version (as well as many other versions in various languages) states in Genesis 1:8 -
And God called the firmament Heaven.
The wording in the American Standard version is exactly ...
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3answers
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Genesis 2:10 - Why are the verbs and the participle translated into English past tense?
The Hebrew text of Gen. 2:10 states,
וְנָהָר יֹצֵא מֵעֵדֶן לְהַשְׁקוֹת אֶת הַגָּן וּמִשָּׁם יִפָּרֵד וְהָיָה לְאַרְבָּעָה רָאשִׁים
Several words capture my attention:
יֹצֵא which is conjugated as ...
5
votes
1answer
105 views
In Luke 2:22, why does the King James Version translate «τοῦ καθαρισμοῦ αὐτῶν» as “her purification”?
In Luke 2:22, it is written,
And when the days of her purification according to the law of Moses were accomplished, they brought him to Jerusalem, to present him to the Lord; KJV, 1769
Καὶ ὅτε ...
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1answer
46 views
Two Jozabad's in 1 Chronicles 12:20?
I found this interesting and wondered if anyone had anything to say about it.
1 Chronicles 12
20 As he went to Ziklag, there fell to him of Manasseh, Adnah, and Jozabad, and Jediael, and Michael, ...
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4answers
407 views
How convincing were the proofs of the resurrection in Acts 1:3?
In studying Acts this week in Turkish, I noticed that there is considerable difference in between translations of Acts 1:3. A quick look through English translations shows a similar range of ...
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0answers
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What is the basis for believing Hosea 6:7 is speaking about Adam the man and not men in general? [duplicate]
It is the same word (Adam meaning man) but the KJV translates it as men, any other translations I have checked translate it as 'Adam' himself.
What are the arguments for translating it as 'Adam'?
...
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1answer
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What is the meaning of 'divers' in Acts 19:9?
Acts 19:9 (KJV) But when divers were hardened, and believed not, but spake evil of that way before the multitude, he departed from them, and separated the disciples, disputing daily in the school of ...
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3answers
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What is the meaning of “whom I serve from my forefathers” in 2 Timothy 1:3?
I thank God, whom I serve from my forefathers with pure conscience, that without ceasing I have remembrance of thee in my prayers night and day; (2 Timothy 1:3, KJV) (Emphasis added)
What does "whom ...
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2answers
191 views
What is the context of 'begat' in Genesis 5:32?
Genesis 5:32 (KJV): And Noah was five hundred years old and Noah begat Shem, Ham and Japheth
This verse mentions Noah being five hundred years old and gaining three sons; does this indicated Shem, ...
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3answers
391 views
In Gal. 3:10 Is Paul trying to teach following the laws is putting a curse on you?
Gal. 3:10 For all who rely on the works of the law are under a curse; for it is written, cursed be everyone who does not abide by things written in the book of the law and do them.
Paul appears to ...
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2answers
515 views
In 2 Tim. 3:16, what is the meaning of the phrase “for correction”?
The King James Version of 2 Tim. 3:16 states:
All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:
The Greek ...
5
votes
1answer
311 views
What was the 'testimony' that Aaron's rod was brought before?
Numbers 17:10 (KJV)
And the LORD said unto Moses, Bring Aaron's rod again before the testimony, to be kept for a sign against the rebels; and you shall put away their murmurings from me, that they ...
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7answers
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KJV Romans 12:3 according as God hath dealt to every man the measure of faith
In the King James Bible Romans 12:3 states ... "according as God hath dealt to every man the measure of faith"...
Does this mean his followers were given a different "measure of faith"; that each ...
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2answers
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Various translations of Psalm 19:3
Psalm 19:1-3 in the English Standard Version reads:
1 The heavens declare the glory of God,
and the sky above proclaims his handiwork.
2 Day to day pours ...
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6answers
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What does μονογενὴς Θεὸς means in John 1:18 (KJV/Textus Receptus)?
If μονογενὴς Θεὸς is regarded as the correct reading, then, what would it mean?
θεὸν οὐδεὶς ἑώρακεν πώποτε· μονογενὴς θεὸς ὁ ὢν εἰς τὸν κόλπον τοῦ
πατρὸς ἐκεῖνος ἐξηγήσατο.
John 1:18 (...
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1answer
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Heb. 2:16 — Is the translation of the KJV accurate?
The King James Version (1611) seems to take some liberty in its translation of Heb. 2:16:
Notice how the font of "the nature of" (as well as "him") is different from the rest of the verse, indicating ...
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2answers
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In Genesis 6:4 how should נְפִילִים (nephilim/giants) be translated?
Are there other translations of the word "Giant"? Please note that this question is related to this question.
Genesis 6:4 KJV
There were giants in the earth in those days; and also after that,
...
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2answers
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John 17:10 What is the number of the pronouns? [closed]
In John 17:10--"καὶ τὰ ἐμὰ πάντα σά ἐστιν καὶ τὰ σὰ ἐμά, καὶ δεδόξασμαι ἐν αὐτοῖς"--what is the number of ἐμὰ and σά? I didn't learn either of those forms in my paradigms for συ or εμε. Biblehub.com ...
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6answers
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1 Timothy 6:10: “For the love of money is the root of all [kinds of?] evil”
There is some debate as to the accuracy of various English translations of this verse.
1 Timothy 6:10 (Textus Receptus)
ῥίζα γὰρ πάντων τῶν κακῶν ἐστιν ἡ φιλαργυρία ἡς τινες ὀρεγόμενοι ...
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3answers
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Was only the woman to be scourged in Leviticus 19:20?
Does Leviticus 19:20 (KJV) suggest that when a man has sex with an engaged slave woman, the woman, but not the man, is to be scourged? This does not seem fair.
And whosoever lieth carnally with a ...
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1answer
98 views
In 1 Timothy 1:4, why does the King James Version have “edifying” rather than “dispensation”?
The English translation of 1 Tim. 1:4 according to the King James Version states,
4 Neither give heed to fables and endless genealogies, which minister questions, rather than godly edifying which ...
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1answer
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Why does the original KJV use fishes instead of fish?
From what I've been taught, the word "fishes" is typically used in a sentence to describe various kinds of fish, whereas the plural form of "fish" is used to describe multiple fish of the same species....
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2answers
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What is the argument against the authenticity of 1 John 5:7-8 in the KJV?
I was reading through Lee Strobel's The Case for the Real Jesus and came across a passage in the book that indicates the inauthenticity of 1 John 5:7-8 in the King James Version:
1 John 5:7-8 (KJV)
...
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5answers
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Misleading “but” in Matthew 5:22 KJV?
But I say unto you, That whosoever is angry with his brother
without a cause shall be in danger of the judgment: and whosoever
shall say to his brother, Raca, shall be in danger of the council: ...
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votes
2answers
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Does 1 Cor 1:21 suggest preaching is foolish?
Contextually speaking, does 1 Corinthians 1:21 in the KJV suggest that preaching is a foolish thing?
For after that in the wisdom of God the world by wisdom knew not God, it pleased God by the ...
