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Questions tagged [kjv]

Questions regarding the KJV translation of the Bible into English. Questions may include the 1611 translation or later editions.

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On what basis do some translators place Romans 2:13-15 in parenthesis?

Several traditionally-oriented translations place Romans 2:13-15 in parentheses. 13 (For not the hearers of the law are just before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified. 14 For when the ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
2 votes
3 answers
141 views

Is the "Asshur" in Genesis 10:11 a place or a person?

Genesis 10:11 NKJV - From that land he went to Assyria and built Nineveh, Rehoboth Ir, Calah, Genesis 10:11 NIV - From that land he went to Assyria, where he built Nineveh, Rehoboth Ir, Calah Genesis ...
Jason_'s user avatar
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1 vote
1 answer
121 views

How did John the Baptist know that Jesus was the Lamb of God/ Lord before baptism? [duplicate]

How can John know that Jesus is the messiah in John 1:29, then not know him in 33? Did he see a sign before he baptized Jesus? "The next day John seeth Jesus coming unto him, and saith, Behold ...
Taz8tj 's user avatar
7 votes
3 answers
2k views

Does the Queen James Bible twist the original language the Scriptures were written in?

The QJV, a pro - homosexuality translation based off of the KJV, published in 2012 by an anonymous group of editors, removes all "homophobic" references, claiming that the first homophobic ...
Human the Man's user avatar
1 vote
1 answer
171 views

1 Timothy 4:3: meat or food (kjv vs niv)?

The KJV says abstain from meat, the NIV says certain foods. I've just learned that some translations rely only on whole documents whilst many discoveries of single pages of older manuscripts have been ...
user348731's user avatar
1 vote
1 answer
81 views

Does the KJV translate Proverbs 16:1 as having a different meaning than the other translations? If so, which is the correct translation ? And Why? …

The KJV seems to indicate that both the plans in man’s hearts and the answers on their tongues come from the Lord, is this a correct interpretation? Proverbs 16:1 KJV The preparations of the heart in ...
Judah Girl's user avatar
1 vote
0 answers
24 views

Does Matthew 16:28 imply that some from that biblical era would live many years? [duplicate]

Matthew 16:28 Shall not taste death, till they see the Son of man coming in his kingdom. At reading this verse my thought was, that some would live until the end days. Meaning even until these days.
Kajuanna Mitchell's user avatar
2 votes
1 answer
120 views

Your exceeding great reward vs your reward will be great in Gen 15:1

Please I need help understanding the difference in translations. This morning while studying I stumbled on the difference in translation between ESV and KJV for Gen 15:1 where KJV States "and thy ...
David Essien's user avatar
1 vote
1 answer
700 views

What does the KJV mean by the word "even"

John 14:15-17 says: 15 If ye love Me, keep My commandments. 16 And I will pray the Father, and He shall give you another Comforter, that He may abide with you for ever 17 even the Spirit of Truth ...
Hinton's user avatar
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2 answers
481 views

Why does the KJV add more to Matthew 19:9 vs other translations?

I'm not sure if this is the right place to ask this, but Matthew 19:9 in the KJV reads: And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, ...
Jesus_is_Lord777's user avatar
1 vote
1 answer
2k views

What is the difference between “anger” and “wrath”?

Anger and wrath are listed separately in a list in Colossians 3:8, and Ephesians 4:26 might indicate that there is some difference in Paul’s mind between the term anger and the term wrath. Col 3:8 - ...
Dave's user avatar
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4 votes
2 answers
179 views

How best to understand the NLT translation of νόμος in Romans 8:2?

Romans 8:2 NLT For the power of the life-giving Spirit has freed you through Christ Jesus from the power of sin that leads to death. KJV Romans 8 : 2 For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ ...
collen ndhlovu's user avatar
8 votes
5 answers
539 views

KJV - Jeremiah 34:16 why some KJV says "whom ye" and some KJV says "whom he"?

From BibleHub: "whom ye" From BibleDotCom: "whom he" From KJV 1611 on Amazon: "whom ye" From KJV 1611 on Bible Protector: "whom ye" From Wikipedia (wikisource): ...
123iamking's user avatar
4 votes
3 answers
92 views

How does the KJV translate Revelation 16:16?

KJV Revelation 16 : 16 And he gathered them together into a place called in the Hebrew tongue Armageddon. Revelation 16:16 ESV And they assembled them at the place that in Hebrew is called ...
collen ndhlovu's user avatar
4 votes
2 answers
5k views

Is it Nebuchadnezzar or Nebuchadrezzar?

I found something a little bit confusing over the two ways in which the name of the king of Babylon was rendered in the book of Jeremiah. For example, Jeremiah 28:11 renders it as Nebuchadnezzar: And ...
Ernest Abinokhauno's user avatar
1 vote
0 answers
191 views

Examining NKJV's and KJV's inclusion of "Saying, I am Alpha and Omega, the first and the last: and," in Revelation 1:11 [duplicate]

The phrase "Saying, I am Alpha and Omega, the first and the last: and," that is in the King James Bible and the New King James Version is not found in most translations of the bible. Are the ...
Alex Balilo's user avatar
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4 votes
4 answers
536 views

Habakkuk 1:11 true meaning

I am just curious about the translation choice in KJV Habakkuk 1:11, which is the following: Then shall his mind change, and he shall pass over, and offend, imputing this his power unto his god. The ...
noaharades's user avatar
3 votes
2 answers
434 views

Why KJV translates 1 Cor. 7:3's ὀφείλω as "due benevolence" and not "debt"?

Why does the KJV translate the ὀφείλω of 1 Cor. 7:3 as "due benevolence" and not "debt"? KJV: Let the husband render unto the wife due benevolence (οφειλομένην?): and likewise ...
Geremia's user avatar
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1 answer
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Why does the KJV translate Acts 5:24 the way it does?

KJV Acts 5 : 24 Now when the high priest and the captain of the temple and the chief priests heard these things, they doubted of them whereunto this would grow. Acts 5:24 ESV: Now when the captain ...
collen ndhlovu's user avatar
5 votes
1 answer
153 views

Why do some translations of Ephesians 4:9 have the word "first" and others do not?

I am wondering about the logic behind some translations including the word "first" in Ephesians 4:9 when other translations do not. For example, the KJV/NKJV include the word "first&...
Tim Catchim's user avatar
0 votes
1 answer
32 views

How does the ESV translate הָעֹבֵר Iin Exodus 30:14?

יד כֹּל, הָעֹבֵר עַל-הַפְּקֻדִים, מִבֶּן עֶשְׂרִים שָׁנָה, וָמָעְלָה--יִתֵּן, תְּרוּמַת יְהוָה Exodus 30:14 ESV Everyone who is numbered in the census, from twenty years old and upward, shall give ...
collen ndhlovu's user avatar
6 votes
3 answers
808 views

Given that the Greek text for Revelation 5:3-4 twice gives the word for ‘one’, why does the AV twice say ‘man’?

Rev 5:3-4 (AV, emphasis added) “And no man in heaven, nor in earth, neither under the earth, was able to open the book, neither to look thereon. And I wept much, because no man was found worthy to ...
Anne's user avatar
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4 votes
6 answers
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Is 1 Timothy 3:16 wording so critical that if one wrong word is used, the relationship of Father with Son, and Who became flesh, is made uncertain?

This is about the relationship of the Son to the Father, and to the fact of Who actually came into the world via the virgin's womb. Different translations of 1 Timothy 3:16 read: “Hos was manifested ...
Anne's user avatar
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2 votes
3 answers
711 views

Does the Greek word "καί" in James 1:27 create a Distinction ("God [and] the Father", KJV) or Surname ("God the Father", ESV)?

Different Translations of James 1:27 ( KJV | ESV ) present alternative concepts of "God" in relationship to the Father: KJV presents θεός as the observant servant of the Father [James 1:27,...
חִידָה's user avatar
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2 votes
1 answer
73 views

Why do English bibles change אַרְצ֗וֹת הַחַיִּֽים from Psalm 116:9 to "Land of the Living"?

In Hebrew, the phrase בְּ֝אַרְצ֗וֹת הַחַיִּֽים from [Tehillim 116:9] is plural referencing multiple "Lands" אַרְצ֗וֹת Aretsot (on earth) where "The Living" הַחַיִּֽים Ha-Chayim (...
חִידָה's user avatar
  • 8,605
0 votes
3 answers
213 views

Was Mal’ak of YHVH מַלְאַ֣ךְ יְהֹוָ֗ה definitive in [2 Kings 19:35], “an angel” (MT) or “the angel” (KJV)?

KJV translates the title “ἄγγελος κυρίου“ from LXX as a definitive title “the angel of the Lord”, although the Hebrew text excludes a definitive “Ha-” הַ for this מַלְאַ֣ךְ Mal’ak. [2 Kings 19:35, KJV]...
חִידָה's user avatar
  • 8,605
5 votes
4 answers
139 views

Who gives the word in Acts 9:15 the Father or Jesus?

Who gives the word in Acts 9:15 the Father or Jesus? Or even the Holy Spirit? And if it's one of them, how could I know the letter (LORD) refers to Jesus Or Father? I feel confused to explain it to my ...
sweatyfire's user avatar
3 votes
3 answers
426 views

Why does the KJV put "mine" in italics in Deuteronomy 8:17?

and thou say in thine heart, My power and the might of mine hand hath gotten me this wealth. Deuteronomy 8:17 My understanding is that italics in the KJV indicate words that are added by the ...
user2626868's user avatar
2 votes
3 answers
183 views

Why does the KJV use (singular) "cometh" as the verb for (plural) "distress and anguish" in Proverbs 1:27?

Here is the phrase in question: When distress and anguish cometh upon you.–Proverbs 1:27c KJV If I'm not mistaken, "cometh" is a singular form of the verb, equivalent to our modern-day ...
user2626868's user avatar
3 votes
3 answers
522 views

Was "ὅστις" in Revelation 1:7 meant to be singular, since John 19:34 says only one of the soldiers pierced Ἰησοῦς?

Revelation 1:7 uses the pronoun "ὅστις" : [Revelation 1:7, KJV] "Behold, he cometh with clouds; and every eye shall see him, and they also which pierced him: and all kindreds of the ...
חִידָה's user avatar
  • 8,605
5 votes
3 answers
219 views

How to understand the KJV translation of Psalms 68:8?

Psalms 68:8 KJV 8 The earth shook, the heavens also dropped at the presence of God: even Sinai itself was moved at the presence of God, the God of Israel. Psalms 68:8 NIV the earth shook, the heavens ...
collen ndhlovu's user avatar
5 votes
2 answers
1k views

Rev 8:7 is it a third part of the trees or third part of earth burned up?

Significant differences between NIV and KJV in Revelation 8:7. NIV has "A third of the earth was burned up, a third of the trees were burned up" while KJV has only trees mentioned "and ...
Daniel Dahlberg's user avatar
5 votes
4 answers
2k views

Verbs in Lord’s Prayer

“Thy Kingdom come” in Lord’s Prayer: Thy kingdom come. Thy will be done in earth, as it is in heaven. (Matthew 6:10 KJV) Q1. Does this mean: A1. We hope and pray that your kingdom will come. Or A2. ...
Al Brown's user avatar
  • 566
4 votes
2 answers
198 views

In Psalm 119 verse 126, Who are "they" and What specifically is the voided "Law"?

In the King James Version of Tehillim, we read : Psalm 119:126 [KJV] "It is time for thee, Lord, to work: for [they] have made [void - thy law]." Who are "they" and What [specifically] is ...
חִידָה's user avatar
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3 votes
3 answers
719 views

Matthew 26:45 KJV sleep on now meaning

Here is the KJV translation of first part of Matthew 26:45: 45 Then cometh he to his disciples, and saith unto them, Sleep on now, and take your rest: Compare to the ESV: 45 Then he came to the ...
cinders.of.ash's user avatar
2 votes
2 answers
168 views

(Malachi 1:12) No tetragrammaton, but capitalised LORD in KJV

Malachi 1:12 in the Leningrad Codex has a literal "Lord", אֲדֹנָי֙, in "the table of the Lord", שֻׁלְחַ֤ן אֲדֹנָי֙. Why does the King James Version signify an occurrence of the ...
yawnoc's user avatar
  • 125
3 votes
6 answers
2k views

What is the meaning of the Greek word 'semeion' in Revelation

I was under the impression that the Greek word 'semeion' as used in Revelation, means "sign". However, I discover that this Greek word is interpreted as either 'event' (in the NLT), 'wonder'...
Lesley's user avatar
  • 9,355
5 votes
1 answer
229 views

Why might the KJV and YLT translations of James 2:1 ('Lord' of glory) differ?

This is a question about the KJV and the TR Greek text. ... του κυριου ημων ιησου χριστου της δοξης [James 2:1 TR - Stephens, Beza, Elzevir, Scrivener - identical] ... our Lord Jesus Christ, the ...
Nigel J's user avatar
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1 vote
1 answer
34 views

Exodus 40 difference between "thou" and "he", and the official position of Moses

My questions are in Exodus 40, from verses 2-15 the word "thou" is used and from verses 19-30 the word "he" is used is there a important distinction? Also, Moses seems to be ...
Will's user avatar
  • 35
5 votes
3 answers
2k views

Did Solomon have 40k or 4k horses/stallls?

Did Solomon have 4k or 40k horses (or stalls for horses)? 2 Chronicles 9:25. And Solomon had four thousand stalls for horses and chariots, and twelve thousand horsemen; whom he bestowed in the ...
Bill's user avatar
  • 121
5 votes
0 answers
100 views

Michal childless or have 5 sons? [duplicate]

Was Michal childless or did Michal have 5 sons? I am getting different answers from 2 Samuel 6:23 2 Samuel 21:8 2 Samuel 6:23. Therefore Michal the daughter of Saul had no child unto the day of her ...
Bill's user avatar
  • 121
2 votes
1 answer
546 views

Were the pillars 18 or 35 cubits high?

I don't know if this this is the correct place to ask so please do whatever is necessary. 1 Kings 7:15 says that the pillars are eighteen cubits high. 2 Chronicles 3:15 says a different number. Who is ...
Bill's user avatar
  • 121
6 votes
5 answers
2k views

Why do English bibles change "Yearn for Purity" (נַשְּׁקוּ בַר) in Psalm 2:12 to "Kiss the Son" or "Kiss his Son"?

We read in Tehillim 2:12 [MT], "Yearn for Purity, lest He be angry and your-way will perish when suddenly His-wrath will kindle. Happy [are] all who take refuge in-Him" (נַשְּׁקוּ בַ֡ר פֶּן ...
חִידָה's user avatar
  • 8,605
3 votes
0 answers
191 views

In John 1:1 why is “The Word” used instead of saying Jesus? [duplicate]

Is there extra meaning or significance in saying “The Word” instead of saying Jesus?
Gabi23's user avatar
  • 199
5 votes
6 answers
1k views

Does the Gospel of John teach Christian Universalism?

John 1:29 KJV The next day John seeth Jesus coming unto him, and saith, Behold the Lamb of God, which taketh away the sin of the world. John 12:47 KJV And if any man hear my words, and believe not, I ...
Gabi23's user avatar
  • 199
2 votes
2 answers
1k views

Why does the KJV translate ὀλιγοπιστίαν as "unbelief" in Matthew 17:20?

My question is to the Greek word: ὀλιγοπιστίαν - oligopistian translated "little faith", so why does KJV use "unbelief" which has a totally different meaning? Or does it? What am ...
Steven B's user avatar
2 votes
3 answers
3k views

Why was the word "Bishop" used in Titus 1:7 and 1 Peter 2:25 [KJV] instead of "Guardian" (ἐπίσκοπον)?

Why was the word "Bishop" used in Titus 1:7 and 1 Peter 2:25 [KJV] instead of "Guardian" / "Episkopon" (Ἐπίσκοπον)? 1 Peter 2:25 [KJV] [25] "For ye were as sheep ...
חִידָה's user avatar
  • 8,605
3 votes
1 answer
116 views

How does the NASB render καρδίαν as quick in Acts 7:54?

Ὡς δὲ ἐπληροῦτο αὐτῷ τεσσαρακονταετὴς χρόνος, ἀνέβη ἐπὶ τὴν καρδίαν αὐτοῦ ἐπισκέψασθαι τοὺς ἀδελφοὺς αὐτοῦ τοὺς υἱοὺς Ἰσραήλ. Most translations render καρδίαν as heart but the NASB chose to translate ...
collen ndhlovu's user avatar
4 votes
1 answer
2k views

Did Leah have a physical defect in Genesis 29:17?

Genesis 29:17 NASB 17 And Leah’s eyes were weak, but Rachel was beautiful of form and [e]face. In other translations Leah's eyes are said to be tender Genesis 29:17 KJV 17 Leah was tender eyed; but ...
collen ndhlovu's user avatar
4 votes
1 answer
164 views

Regarding Asaph (אָ֫סָ֥ף ), why do digital versions of KJV Bible remove his name from Psalms 73-83?

Regarding Asaph (אָ֫סָ֥ף), why do certain online KJV texts remove his name from Psalms 73-83, such as Bible Gateway's? If we only read the KJV, the Tehillim (Psalms) may appear to be written by King ...
חִידָה's user avatar
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