Questions tagged [kjv]
Questions regarding the KJV translation of the Bible into English. Questions may include the 1611 translation or later editions.
88
questions
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1answer
59 views
What are the main Textual Differences between KJV and DRB?
First of all, the answer is possible, but needs some effort. I am not overhasty, take your time. I think the honest answer will direct us toward the most accurate translation to the most accurate ...
1
vote
1answer
31 views
Who spoke in 2 Kings 6:33?
2 Kings 6:33 KJV
33 And while he yet talked with them, behold, the messenger came down unto him: and he said, Behold, this evil is of the Lord; what should I wait for the Lord any longer?
In the ...
1
vote
1answer
19 views
What is the correct translation of Jeremiah 6:2?
Jeremiah 6:2 New American Standard Bible (NASB)
2“The comely and dainty one, the daughter of Zion, I will cut off.
Jeremiah 6:2 King James Version (KJV)
2 I have likened the daughter of Zion to ...
2
votes
1answer
32 views
Is it adulterers and adulteresses in James 4:4?
James 4:4 NASB
4 You adulteresses, do you not know that friendship with the world is hostility toward God? Therefore whoever wishes to be a friend of the world makes himself an enemy of God.
James ...
3
votes
1answer
90 views
Why is John 5:4 missing in the NIV?
John 5:3-5 NIV
3 Here a great number of disabled people used to lie—the blind, the lame, the paralyzed. [4] [b] 5 One who was there had been an invalid for thirty-eight years.
John 5:3-5 KJV
3 ...
3
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2answers
225 views
Why KJV translated “Χριστοῦ” as “God” in Ephesians 5:21?
KJV and NKJV, both versions translated "Χριστοῦ" as "God" in Ephesians 5:21. While many other translations translated it as "Christ".
The Arabic version سميث/ڤانديك translated it as "الله", meaning "...
2
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2answers
81 views
What does 1 Timothy 2:5 mean by “…there is one God…”?
What does 1 Timothy 2:5 mean by "...there is one God..."?.
Does it mean "God the Father" or "God the Son" or may it means the Divine nature and Godhood?
I was confused when I read Arabic and English ...
5
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2answers
97 views
Why does the NIV translate Psalms 52:1 differently than many other translations?
Psalms 52:1 NIV
Why do you boast of evil, you mighty hero?
Why do you boast all day long,
you who are a disgrace in the eyes of God?
Psalm 52 King James Version (KJV)
52 Why ...
1
vote
1answer
56 views
Does “made a curse” in Gal 3:13 k.J.V mean “made cursed”?
First of all, I would like you not to consider what I am going to say as blasphemy. I'd like to know the nature of christhood. I am trying to know what actually happened, without any bias. What the ...
4
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2answers
63 views
Jeremiah 33:5 Does the KJV miss out a preposition in translation?
I was brought up short by reading this :
whom I have slain in mine anger and in my fury, and for all whose wickedness I have hid my face from this city. [Jeremiah 33:5 KJV]
It seemed that ...
6
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1answer
57 views
Why does the KJV say “people perish” in Pr. 29:18?
Can anyone tell me why the KJV translates the Hebrew words yipara am as “people perish” in Pr. 29:18? (The Hebrew word am means people and yipara means unrestrained.) Other translations render yipara ...
4
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2answers
140 views
How do we justify the transaltion of NIV in 2 Samuel 12:31?
2 Samuel 12:31 reads:
וְאֶת-הָעָם אֲשֶׁר-בָּהּ הוֹצִיא, וַיָּשֶׂם בַּמְּגֵרָה וּבַחֲרִצֵי
הַבַּרְזֶל וּבְמַגְזְרֹת הַבַּרְזֶל וְהֶעֱבִיר אוֹתָם במלכן
(בַּמַּלְבֵּן), וְכֵן יַעֲשֶׂה, לְכֹל ...
5
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3answers
231 views
Isaiah 14:6 - KJV/NKJV disagrees with other translations?
Below are different English Bible translations of Isaiah 14:5-6. Verse 5 is included for context.
KJV
5The LORD hath broken the staff of the wicked, and the sceptre of the rulers. 6He who smote ...
0
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1answer
63 views
Typesetting/punctuation rules in original King James Version “:)”
In the King James Version, Luke 2:4–5 reads:
And Joseph also went up from Galilee, out of the city of Nazareth, into Judaea, unto the city of David, which is called Bethlehem; (because he was of ...
2
votes
1answer
52 views
What is the accurate translation of Luke 14:15: “eat bread” or “be a guest”?
My question concerns the translation of Luke 14:15 in the King James Version (KJV) and the Bible in Basic English (BBE).
King James Version:
15 And when one of them that sat at meat with him heard ...
4
votes
1answer
96 views
The meaning of Gen. 20:16 AV
I cannot understand the meaning of the word reproved in the following verse of the King James Bible:
And unto Sarah he said, Behold, I have given thy brother a thousand
pieces of silver: behold, ...
6
votes
2answers
363 views
Origin of Pleonastic Phrasology in the Bible
I noticed a phraseology in the King James Version of the bible that is strange to a modern English speaker. It involves two forms of the same word in close proximity in a sentence. Before posting this ...
1
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1answer
30 views
Why does the kjv include the phrase 'for the earth is the Lord's and the fullness thereof' in1 Corinthians 10:28
It seems this phrase is wanting in some other texts
1 Corinthians 10:28 KJV
28 But if any man say unto you, This is offered in sacrifice unto idols, eat not for his sake that showed it, and for ...
2
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2answers
62 views
Matthew 4:16 - are the “region” and “shadow” of death different things?
"...and to them which sat in the region and shadow of death light is sprung up." Matthew 4:16b KJV
Is this verse is talking about two separate but related things, or just one thing?
As an example......
3
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1answer
60 views
Why did the 1611 Authorized Version translators choose to translate ἐλπίδος as “faith” in Heb. 10:23?
Why did the 1611 Authorized Version translators choose to translate ἐλπίδος as "faith" in Heb. 10:23 when the majority of old and modern translations chose "hope"?
1
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2answers
109 views
Jonah at the bottom of mountains, Jonah 2:6
What was Jonah mean that he went down to the "bottom of the mountains" and the "earth with her bars was about me forever"?
0
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2answers
55 views
Why do some translators include the phrase 'this shall be/seen' in Exodus 16:8?
Most translators seem to add some different phrases in this text which somehow was never in the Hebrew text.
וַיֹּאמֶר מֹשֶׁה, בְּתֵת יְהוָה לָכֶם בָּעֶרֶב בָּשָׂר לֶאֱכֹל וְלֶחֶם בַּבֹּקֶר ...
4
votes
2answers
2k views
When did God say “let all the angels of God worship him” as stated in Hebrews 1:6?
When did God say "let all the angels of God worship him" as stated in Hebrews 1:6?
Hebrews 1:6 (KJV): And again, when he bringeth in the firstbegotten into the
world, he saith, And let all the ...
1
vote
1answer
35 views
How does Moses opt to use הָ֣אֱלֹהִ֔ים for judges in Exodus 21:6?
Exodus 21:6 KJV
6 Then his master shall bring him unto the judges; he shall also bring him to the door, or unto the door post; and his master shall bore his ear through with an awl; and he shall ...
1
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3answers
58 views
Does the Tyndale’s version use “if” I’m John 12:32?
The pastor mentioned that the Tyndale’s version KJV 11 uses “if” instead of “when” in John 12:32.
The only reference on the internet I found is:
And I yf I were lifte vp from the erthe will drawe ...
8
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1answer
112 views
How does the Douay Rheims Bible translate שַׁדַּי as God of Jacob in Psalms 91:1?
Psalms 91 Douay Rheims Bible
1 He that dwelleth in the aid of the most High, shall abide under the protection of the God of Jacob.
Psalms 91:1 KJV
1 He that dwelleth in the secret place of the ...
1
vote
2answers
366 views
Why does the KJV use the term 'observer of times' in Deuteronomy 18:10?
Deuteronomy 18:10 KJV
10 There shall not be found among you any one that maketh his son or his daughter to pass through the fire, or that useth divination, or an observer of times, or an enchanter, ...
2
votes
1answer
59 views
In Romans 1:7 KJV, why is κλητοῖς ἁγίοις translated as “called to be saints”?
[Rom 1:7 KJV] (7) To all that be in Rome, beloved of God, called to be saints: Grace to you and peace from God our Father, and the Lord Jesus Christ.
[Rom 1:7 MGNT] (7) πᾶσιν τοῖς οὖσιν ἐν ...
1
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1answer
22 views
Why does KJV use censers not firepans/trays in 2 Chronicles 4:22?
KJV 2 Chronicles 4
22 And the snuffers, and the basons, and the spoons, and the censers, of pure gold: and the entry of the house, the inner doors thereof for the most holy place, and the doors of ...
3
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2answers
613 views
Why is the word “honeycomb”, in Luke 24:42, missing from most Bible translations?
King James, together with a few other translations, has "fish and honeycomb" in Luke 24:42, while most other translations only mention "fish". Why is "honeycomb" missing? Is "honeycomb" a newer added ...
2
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1answer
152 views
Why is חַוָּ֑ה (Gen. 3:20; 4:1) translated “Eve” in KJV (both cases) and “Ζωή” in Gen. 3:20 (LXX), yet “Ευαν” in Gen. 4:1 (LXX)?
The Hebrew proper noun, חַוָּ֑ה, in Genesis 3:20 and Genesis 4:1, is transliterated "Eve" in both cases in the KJV, yet "Ζωή" and "Ευαν" (Gen. 3:20; 4:1, respectively) in the LXX. It should be "Chavah"...
1
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1answer
37 views
Why do the NASB translators add the word 'mere' in Colossians 2:17?
Colossians 2 NASB
[17]things which are a mere shadow of what is to come; but the substance belongs to Christ.
Colossians 2 NKJV
17 which are a shadow of things to come, but the substance is of ...
2
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2answers
122 views
What is the significance of the extra comma in Romans 12:2?
I am puzzled about the placing of a comma.
Romans 12:2 says:
"And be not conformed to this world: but be ye transformed by the renewing of your mind, that ye may prove what is that good, and ...
6
votes
2answers
343 views
How should we understand Gen 31:24 in view of the context (i.e., Laban speaks to Jacob) and an apparent Hebrew language nuance?
How should we understand Gen 31:24 in view of the context (i.e., Laban speaks to Jacob) and an apparent Hebrew language nuance?
The King James Version (“KJV”) provides a marginal note at Gen 31:24 ...
2
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5answers
744 views
Did the Wise Men see the Star of Bethlehem at the east?
We read at Matthew 2:1-2 King James Version (KJV):
Now when Jesus was born in Bethlehem of Judaea in the days of Herod the king, behold, there came wise men from the east to Jerusalem, saying, ...
5
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4answers
1k views
What are the various Bible Versions up till 1611?
My initial research suggests that a Bible Translation has to do with translating the Bible from one language into another. However, I have been asked to find out how many Bible Versions there were ...
3
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3answers
143 views
In Rev.5:6, is the “Lamb” one of the “four beasts in the midst of the throne” (KJV)?
And I beheld, and, lo, in the midst of the throne and of the four beasts, and in the midst of the elders, stood a Lamb as it had been slain, having seven horns and seven eyes, which are the seven ...
3
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3answers
319 views
What is the meaning of the Hebrew words “temunah” and “adameh” as translated in the KJV, particularly in Numbers 12:8?
I have an assignment on the meaning behind the King James Version translation of Numbers 12:8:
With him [Moses] will I speak mouth to mouth, even apparently, and not in dark speeches; and the ...
4
votes
1answer
107 views
Why is the KJV version of Matthew 5:44 so much longer than other Bibles?
From my search the KJV includes the phrase, "do good to them that hate you"
But that phrase doesn't seem to exist in the versions I typically use.
https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=...
1
vote
3answers
783 views
Why is 2 Peter 1:19 commonly translated with “day star” rather than “Lucifer”?
The word "Lucifer" comes from 2 Latin words: Lux (=light) + ferous (=to bear or carry). Thus the name "Lucifer" means:
Light-bearer or Light-bringer.
Yet in the KJV and many other translations this ...
0
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4answers
155 views
Who is Jesus's “God”? [closed]
What God is Jesus speaking of in these passages? How can God have a God?
Revelation 3:12 (KJV)
Him that overcometh will I make a pillar in the temple of my God, and he shall go no more out: and I ...
2
votes
3answers
366 views
In Acts 3:15 is Jesus called the “Author” or the “Prince” of life?
Acts 3:15 KJV/SBLGNT
15 And killed the Prince of life, whom God hath raised from the dead; whereof we are witnesses.
The Greek word archegos can be either 'prince' or 'author' according to ...
5
votes
1answer
124 views
Did Lancelot Charles Lee Brenton borrow from the King James Version (KJV) when translating or editing his English Septuagint?
There are some New Testament allusions or quotations in the King James Version (KJV) that don't precisely match the Old Testament (KJV) source that they point to; however, such allusions or quotations ...
2
votes
1answer
2k views
What is the origin of the paragraph markings in the King James Version?
Several editions of the King James Version I have seen have paragraph markings (¶). I have found no explanation for how these delineations were determined or who determined them, although this ...
3
votes
1answer
185 views
Why do some translations use “every creature” in Colossians 1:15?
Colossians 1:15: ὅς ἐστιν εἰκὼν τοῦ θεοῦ τοῦ ἀοράτου,
πρωτότοκος πάσης κτίσεως (NA28). Some translations render "πάσης κτίσεως" as "every creature" most as "all creation."
Who is the image of the ...
1
vote
1answer
727 views
What does “Sarah should have given children suck” (Genesis 21:7, KJV) mean?
Genesis 21:5-7 (King James Bible):
5 And Abraham was a hundred years old, when his son Isaac was born unto him.
6 And Sarah said, God hath made me to laugh, so that all that hear will laugh with ...
5
votes
6answers
8k views
Is “theos” of the Textus Receptus of 1 Timothy 3:16 the original reading?
The Greek text of 1 Tim. 3:16 according to the Textus Receptus of Robert Estienne reads:
Notably, it begins with the word Θεὸς. The King James Version (1769) translates this into English as:
And ...
12
votes
4answers
2k views
How can we reconcile 2 Samuel 6:23 & 2 Samuel 21:7-9?
2 samuel 6:23 (KJV)
23 Therefore Michal the daughter of Saul had no child unto the day of her death.
2 samuel 21:7-9 (KJV)
7 But the king spared Mephibosheth, the son of Jonathan the son of ...
2
votes
1answer
920 views
Why do the KJV and BHS have a different number of chapters in Joel and Malachi?
Note- Title was "Why do different Bible versions, KJV and WLC(Westminster Leningrad Codex), have a different number of chapters in Joel and Malachi?" I've changed it to ... Since then i've found that ...
2
votes
1answer
707 views
Is “tor-im” translated to “turtles” in KJV correct? Turtles was not used that way in 1600
In Leviticus 5:7 "tor-im" is translated as "turtledove". And in Leviticus 12:8 "tor-im" is translated as "turtle". It seems confusing for translators to translate a word one way, and then translate it ...
