Questions tagged [grammar]

Understanding the grammar of the source texts; this tag should be accompanied by the appropriate language tag.

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3
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23 views

In 1 Corinthians 15:26, what is the significance of καταργεῖται (“abolish”) being a present indicative instead of a future?

[1Co 15:26 NASB] (26) The last enemy that will be abolished is death. [1Co 15:26 MGNT] (26) ἔσχατος ἐχθρὸς καταργεῖται ὁ θάνατος The context of 1 Corinthians 15 is a little difficult to sort out, ...
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1answer
27 views

In Acts 24:15, how should μέλλειν ἔσεσθαι be rendered?

It is generally translated as "going to be", with Young's Literal Translation being the Minority Report: https://biblehub.com/acts/24-15.htm https://www.jw.org/en/library/bible/nwt/books/...
3
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1answer
26 views

What is the reason for the use of different voices for the perfect in Mark 1:15?

Hi in the following verse: Mark 1:15 (UBS5): Πεπλήρωται ὁ καιρὸς καὶ ἤγγικεν ἡ βασιλεία τοῦ θεοῦ· μετανοεῖτε καὶ πιστεύετε ἐν τῷ εὐαγγελίῳ. ... has been fulfilled the time and has drawn near the ...
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2answers
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In Matthew 10:25, who is Beelzebub/Beelzeboul?

[Mat 10:25 NASB] (25) "It is enough for the disciple that he become like his teacher, and the slave like his master. If they have called the head of the house Beelzebul, how much more [will they ...
3
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2answers
36 views

Why is the perfect tense used to describe clothing for Jesus and John?

Quick question - I am learning Greek and trying to read the NT in the same. Why is the perfect tense used when describing Jesus’ (Rev 1) and John the Baptist’s clothes (Mark 1)? Specifically I am ...
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5answers
456 views

Why does Genesis 3 use male pronouns for Eve?

I came across some interesting observations of Genesis 3 recently: Genesis 3:12, "And the adam said , 'the woman whom you gave with me, HE gave [3fs] to me from the tree and I ate'" Genesis ...
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2answers
83 views

In Romans 1:18, what is the relationship between men's unrighteousness and their suppression of the truth?

How is he saying that men suppress the truth?: by being unrighteousness? motivated by unrighteousness? by wicked means? What is the function of ἐν in the sentence? [Rom 1:18 NLT] (18) But God shows ...
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4answers
138 views

Why do English bibles change “Yearn for Purity” (נַשְּׁקוּ בַר) in Psalm 2:12 to “Kiss the Son” or “Kiss his Son”?

We read in Tehillim 2:12 [MT], "Yearn for Purity, lest He be angry and your-way will perish when suddenly His-wrath will kindle. Happy [are] all who take refuge in-Him" (נַשְּׁקוּ בַ֡ר פֶּן ...
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0answers
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What is the status of the word “heaven” in Matthew 18:19?

ESV Matthew 18:19 "Again I say to you, if two of you may agree on earth about anything they ask, it will be done for them by my Father in heaven". The Greek ouranois is plural. 26 of 29 ...
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3answers
794 views

How do we understand the connection between the feminine pronominal suffix with Jonah in Jonah 1:11

Jonah 1:11 (KJV 1900): Then said they unto him, What shall we do unto thee (לָּ֔ךְ) לָּ֔ךְ is a second person feminine pronominal suffix, which means that it cannot be referring to Jonah. So why do ...
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1answer
39 views

Can you give the Greek Word ekklēsia a masculine ending? [closed]

I know that the Greek word translated as church (in the Bible) is a feminine noun. But, is it possible to give ecclesia a masculine ending - making it a masculine noun? Thank you.
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What is the meaning of “And who is their father?” in 1 Samuel 10:12?

1 Samuel 10:9 As Saul turned to leave Samuel, God changed Saul’s heart, and all these signs were fulfilled that day. 10When he and his servant arrived at Gibeah, a procession of prophets met him; the ...
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1answer
61 views

Is there a first person verb with a plural subject in Hebrew?

I am aware of singular verbs with plural subjects in the third person, masculine, singular. Such as Exodus 4:29, but I am wondering if there is a 1cs that has a plural subject? Feel free to add or ...
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What is the justification for English translations capitalizing “Word” in John 1:1?

What is the justification for English translations capitalizing “Word” in John 1:1? ΕΝ ΑΡΧΗ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος. New International Version In the beginning ...
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2answers
63 views

What does, “let” him come, mean in John 7:37?

Jesus stood up and cried out, "If anyone thirsts, let him come to me and drink". ESV How "let" is possibly used: I will let you use my car-permission-I give the thirsty person ...
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1answer
23 views

Luke 12:1 Vulgate Text: “adtendite a fermento Pharisaeorum quae est hypocrisis”

This might not be the right forum to ask, but I couldn't think of a better one. If it is deemed unacceptable, I apologize in advance. I was reading Luke the other day, and inspired by the curiosity to ...
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2answers
92 views

Why does the King James Bible appear to not agree with some other translations with regard to “you” in Romans 6:17?

that form of doctrine which was delivered "you". KJV KJV. The form of doctrine was delivered. New American Standard Bible. "you were committed". Christian Standard Bible. "...
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4answers
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Can the Ten Commandments be interpreted as declarative?

There is a variation in how John 14:15 is translated: "If you love me, you will keep my commandments." ESV “If you love Me, you will keep My commandments." NASB “If you love me, keep ...
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Psalm 49:7(NASB) translation seems to say “No human being” can redeem his brother but Psalm 49:7(KJV) refers to those with earthly riches

Psalm 49:5-9 (NASB) 5 Why should I fear in days of adversity, When the iniquity of my [b]foes surrounds me, 6 Even those who trust in their wealth And boast in the abundance of their riches? 7 No ...
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1answer
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Exodus 3:17 and Judges 2:1 - the Validity of the Vav-Conversive

In Exodus 3:17, we find the phrase אַעֲלֶה אֶתְכֶם (aʿaleh etkhem). The word אַעֲלֶה is a verb conjugated from the verb עָלָה in the imperfect aspect, as indicated by the prefixed א. Reviewing the ...
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Mark 5:34 Daughter, your [σου] faith has healed you. Why is the genitive case used?

Luke 8:30 Jesus asked him, "What is your name?" your σοι (soi) Personal / Possessive Pronoun - Dative 2nd Person Singular Strong's Greek 4771: You. The person pronoun of the second person ...
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1answer
154 views

Is εἰμί (and thus ἦν) always a stative verb? Or, is ἦν a substantive verb in John 1:1a (ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος)?

This question is based on a comment on this post to this question. In the comment, it was denied that the verb ἦν in John 1:1a (viz., ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος) is functioning as a substantive verb. It was ...
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2answers
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Does Wallace's chart identify “the archangel” as a monadic noun at Jude 9:9 from the text? If not, how does the grammar of the text prove otherwise?

Does Wallace's chart identify “the archangel” as a monadic noun at Jude 9:9 from the text of scripture? If not, how does the grammar of the text prove otherwise? At Jude 9:9 we find “Michael the ...
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3answers
75 views

Who is, or are the correct referent(s) of the pronouns in John 1:3-4?

The Fourth Gospel begins: 1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2 This One was in the beginning with God. 3 All things came-into-being through Him, ...
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Does ἄγγελος κυρίου in the NT (e.g. Acts 12:7) refer to the angel of the LORD in the OT?

Does ἄγγελος κυρίου in the NT (e.g. Acts 12:7) refer to the angel of the LORD in the OT? An example of Apollonius Corollary. is ἄγγελος κυρίου (angel of the Lord) at Acts 12:7. Wallace promotes the ...
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2answers
412 views

Genesis 5:2, grammatically, how does a plural pronoun refer to a singular noun?

Genesis 5:2 (DRB): He created them male and female; and blessed them: and called their name Adam, in the day when they were created. How does the plural pronoun refer to singular noun (called ...
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1answer
55 views

What does the article signify in the Greek translation of Genesis 1:1?

The beginning of the Bible states: In the beginning, God created the heavens and the earth. (Genesis 1:1 ESV) בְּרֵאשִׁית בָּרָא אֱלֹהִים אֵת הַשָּׁמַיִם וְאֵת הָאָֽרֶץ In the beginning God made the ...
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92 views

Is the article at Titus 2:13 anaphoric? If not, what grammatical reasons deny it is?

Is the article at Titus 2:13 anaphoric? If not, what grammatical reasons deny it is? Note: Keep in mind that Wallace says "Most individualizing articles will be anaphoric" [a] Also ...
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3answers
125 views

Is the article ο in ο θεός at Hebrews 1:9 anaphoric to θεός at Hebrews 1:8? If not, what grammatical reason prevents it?

Is the article ο in ο θεός at Hebrews 1:9 anaphoric to θεός at Hebrews 1:8? If not, what grammatical reason prevents it? Note: Keep in mind and address that Wallace says "Most individualizing ...
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2answers
168 views

Since at Galatians 1:1 Father is appositional to θεός but Son is never in the NT, how does this make them θεός differently?

Since at Galatians 1:1 "Father" is appositional to θεός but "Son" is never in the NT, how does this make them θεός differently? Daniel Wallace says: it would be wrong to say &...
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1answer
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Are the articles at Ro 9:6,8 ultimately anaphoric to 9:5/1:4? If not, what are the grammatical reasons they are not?

Are the articles at Ro 9:6,8 ultimately anaphoric to 9:5/1:4? If not, what are the grammatical reasons they are not?
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1answer
54 views

In Acts 13:48 -“ τεταγμένοι” (appointed- YTL), What the Luke's narration implies to, “middle” or “passive ”voice?

Apparently, Luke simply narrates the event describing how "people throng" to Paul and Barnabas to hear the message, and with conscious volition "they" responded. Therefore, the "middle voice" would ...
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2answers
101 views

Is the article at 2 Thessalonians 1:12 anaphoric? If not, what grammatical reasons deny it is?

Is the article at 2 Thessalonians 1:12 anaphoric? If not, what grammatical reasons deny it?
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In Hebrews 1:8-9: Is ὁ θεός nominative or vocative?

In Hebrews 1:8-9, ὁ θεός appears in the nominative spelling in both verses. The question is this; should ὁ θεός be treated as a nominative or more as a vocative of address as it is every other place ...
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2answers
44 views

In Song 2:17 and 4:6, why is it normally assumed that “until the day breathe and the shadows flee” moderates the subsequent, not preceding, clause?

Song of Songs 2:16-17 (without punctuation) reads: דּוֹדִי לִי וַאֲנִי לוֹ הָרֹעֶה בַּשּׁוֹשַׁנִּים עַד שֶׁיָּפוּחַ הַיּוֹם וְנָסוּ הַצְּלָלִים סֹב דְּמֵה-לְךָ דוֹדִי לִצְבִי אוֹ לְעֹפֶר הָאַיָּלִים ...
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1answer
69 views

Assuming Paul intended Titus 2:13 to mean two different referents, what advantage does his choice of words have over others which are unambiguous?

Paul wrote to Titus to exhort him to sound teaching (or doctrine). He said this 5 times in the first 26 verses (1:9, 13-14, 2:1, 7, 10). Then he follows with a statement whose meaning is disputed: ...
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5answers
172 views

Since BDAG says “και” suggests a semantic aspect at Titus 2:13 that justifies that “our Great God” is the Father and not Jesus, is και adjunctive?

Since BDAG says "και" suggests a semantic aspect at Titus 2:13 that justifies that “our Great God” is the Father and not Jesus, is και adjunctive?
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4answers
135 views

How does the fact that the Father is the “only true God” (Θεός) at J 17:3 in a convertible proposition affect the sense in which Jesus is θεός?

How does the fact that the Father is the “only true God” (Θεός) at J 17:3 in a convertible proposition affect the sense in which Jesus is θεός?
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1answer
200 views

Genesis 22:8, 9: is there a difference in the meaning due to the use of the indefinite article ‘a’ and the definite article ‘the’?

Genesis 22:8, 9 ..., God will provide himself ‘a’ lamb for a burnt offering; ... (KJV) ..., God will provide for Himself ‘the’ lamb for a burnt offering, ... (The Interlinear Bible Hebrew-Greek-...
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Why did H.S direct John to use the word for “to happen” in Revelation 16:17 instead off the normal word for “to complete”?

Revelation 16:17 Then the seventh poured out his bowl into the air, and a loud voice came out of the temple from the throne, saying, “It is done! ”--that is, "γέγονεν." What catches my eye here is ...
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1answer
43 views

What does it mean that the Greek middle voice is used at Luke 4:3 to command the stone to become bread?

The devil said to him, "If you are the Son of God, tell this stone to become bread (Luke 4:3, NIV) (NA28) εἶπεν δὲ αὐτῷ ὁ διάβολος· εἰ υἱὸς εἶ τοῦ θεοῦ, εἰπὲ ⸂τῷ λίθῳ τούτῳ ἵνα γένηται [a] ἄρτος⸃ I ...
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1answer
43 views

How should δὲ in Luke 24:44 be translated?

The Greek text of Luke 24:44 states: Εἶπεν δὲ πρὸς αὐτούς Οὗτοι οἱ λόγοι μου οὓς ἐλάλησα πρὸς ὑμᾶς ἔτι ὢν σὺν ὑμῖν, ὅτι δεῖ πληρωθῆναι πάντα τὰ γεγραμμένα ἐν τῷ νόμῳ Μωϋσέως καὶ τοῖς προφήταις ...
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1answer
123 views

Owlam in Gen:6:4

I have looked at the Stack Exchange comments on Genesis 6:4 but have not found the following opinion expressed. Could someone schooled in Hebrew please comment on my use of the word "Owlam" (Strong's ...
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1answer
218 views

Who is the “possessor of heaven and earth” in Genesis 14:19. Abraham or God?

Who is the "possessor of heaven and earth" in Genesis 14:19 And he blessed him, and said, Blessed be Abram of the most high God, possessor of heaven and earth: 20 and blessed be the most high ...
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2answers
134 views

Does Martin Smart’s Rule indicate that “Lord” and “God” have two referents at John 20:28?

In October 2000, "Smart's Rule," started as a parody of Sharp's Rule, was proposed on the B-GREEK list list by Martin Smart. The rule states: In the proper native[a] Koine Greek of the ...
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4answers
593 views

What is the accurate translation of “οὗτος” in John 1:2?

In John 1:2, what is the accurate translation of "οὗτος"? John 1:2 (DRB): The same was in the beginning with God. John 1:2 (GNT): oὗτος ἦν ἐν ἀρχῇ πρὸς τὸν Θεόν. I looked about ...
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3answers
335 views

Since the Word received life in John 1:3-4 per the UBS Greek text, can the prologue also support the Word was eternal?

The problem: The grammar of John 1:1-4, especially in our critical editions of the Greek text give substantial reason to view the Word as having received his very life in the beginning. However ...
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5answers
301 views

What does the "beginning of creation” at Rev 3:14 mean using a Biblical Hermeneutic?

In 1979 the 2nd edition Bauer-Arndt-Gingrich-Danker Greek lexicon (BAGD) said of “the beginning of creation” used of Christ at Rev 3:14 that “the mng. beginning=‘first created’ is linguistically ...
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4answers
263 views

Does Paul's use of Greek represent the Son as Creator or Maker?

When the role of the Son is spoken of by Paul in Creation it is always as the intermediate agent (δια) or instrument (εν) used by God and not as source as in Creator Ex Nihilo. BDAG on the agency of ...
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2answers
241 views

Did Jesus speak pidgin or ungrammatically at John 8:58?

Every native speaker can intuitively tell that "Before Abraham was born, I am" is not grammatical English. To take "I am" as a title of God is equivalent to "Before Abraham ...

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