Questions tagged [grammar]

Understanding the grammar of the source texts; this tag should be accompanied by the appropriate language tag.

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1 Timothy 3:16 – How can the relative pronoun in Greek - Ὃς - which means “who, which, that” etc., be translated as “He”?

English Standard Version Great indeed, we confess, is the mystery of godliness: He was manifested in the flesh, vindicated by the Spirit, seen by angels, proclaimed among the nations, believed on in ...
Nephesh Roi's user avatar
1 vote
1 answer
38 views

Isaiah 33:2 & Isaiah 33:6 deeper understanding as to why there is an strange choice when it comes to the possessive adjective & pronouns

I might be getting too nitty-gritty or nit-picky. However, I’m trying to get a deeper understanding as to why there is an strange choice in some translations when it comes to the possessive adjective ...
user1338998's user avatar
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3 votes
4 answers
493 views

Romans 10:13 - How long does it take to get saved when someone calls on the name of the Lord? (aorist, middle, subjunctive)

Romans 10:13 NIV 84 For everyone who calls on the name of the Lord will be saved. πᾶς γὰρ ὃς ἂν ἐπικαλέσηται τὸ ὄνομα κυρίου σωθήσεται. [GNT] ἐπικαλέσηται This question is about the aorist tense of ...
Gregory Norton's user avatar
5 votes
2 answers
216 views

What is the significance of the omission of the article in Son of Man in John?

John uses the phrase Son of Man twelve times. Ten are spoken by Jesus and two by the crowd: John 12:34 ESV So the crowd answered him, “We have heard from the Law that the Christ remains forever. How ...
Revelation Lad's user avatar
0 votes
1 answer
64 views

What does it mean to believe, faith, trust and confidence? [closed]

Whenever I look up dictionary definitions for faith it says faith means to trust I look up definition for trust it means confidence...the definition of confidence says trust or faith...the definition ...
Aryan anand's user avatar
1 vote
1 answer
30 views

Are the Prayer Requests of 1 Kings 8:31-52 grammatically subordinate to the "requests" of 1 Kings 1:25-26

I'm a beginning exegete and I'm trying to determine, are the prayer requests of 1 Kings 8:31-52 grammatically subordinate to the "requests" of 1 Kings 1:25-26? Verses 25-26 where Solomon ...
Gravada's user avatar
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4 votes
2 answers
180 views

Agreement of subject and verb in Luke 11:41

Why is the verb in Luke 11:41 singular, when "all things" is plural? How - if at all - does that lack of agreement affect the possible meaning of the sentence? But rather give alms of such ...
HAT's user avatar
  • 43
1 vote
1 answer
59 views

Two questions about the use of "eternal" (αἰώνιος, aiōnios) in Jude 1:7

Jude 1:7 ends with "are set forth for an example, suffering the vengeance of eternal fire.", which in the original Greek is: English Greek Romanized Strong's Root Romanized Grammar are set ...
Ray Butterworth's user avatar
2 votes
2 answers
60 views

Does the Hebrew in Daniel 7:13 indicate an analogy?

In my vision at night I looked, and there before me was one like a son of man, coming with the clouds of heaven. He approached the Ancient of Days and was led into his presence. (NIV) I don't know ...
Garrett Anderson's user avatar
0 votes
1 answer
67 views

Should Genesis 6:2 be translated, the "sons of God" or the "sons of the gods"?

I noticed the definite art. before Elohim in this verse, which I thought was common knowledge that whenever the definite art is before Elohim it has refence to other spiritual entities?
ThatwemaybethepraiseofHisglory's user avatar
1 vote
2 answers
46 views

Eph.1:6 "in the beloved", or "to love"?

1:6 εἰς ἔπαινον δόξης τῆς χάριτος αὐτοῦ ἧς ἐχαρίτωσεν ἡμᾶς ἐν τῷ ἠγαπημένῳ unto the praise of the glory of His grace, in which He has engraced us to love.. Anything wrong with this translation?
ThatwemaybethepraiseofHisglory's user avatar
1 vote
1 answer
50 views

Are the Isaiah 16:2 's "daughters of Moab" reference the same as the "outcasts" in Isaiah 16:3 & Isaiah 16:4?

Just a follow-up question spawned out of (Isa 16:4) Are the refugees Moabites Or Israelites? ( & contextual consequences of choosing each translation & conjunctional phrases involved)? Isaiah ...
user1338998's user avatar
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1 vote
2 answers
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(Isa 16:4) Are the refugees Moabites Or Israelites? ( & contextual consequences of choosing each translation & conjunctional phrases involved)?

(Remotely Related: Are the Isaiah 16:2 's "daughters of Moab" reference the same as the "outcasts" in Isaiah 16:3 & Isaiah 16:4? ) It may seem that this posting has too ...
user1338998's user avatar
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2 votes
1 answer
51 views

What is Jesus sending the multitude away from?

I have been comparing and contrasting the two feedings of the multitudes. I’ve observed that the term “Apoluo” or “send away” is used 4 times between the two feedings. Mark 6:36 Mark 6:45 Mark 8:3 ...
solidhollow's user avatar
2 votes
1 answer
39 views

Codex Sinaiticus strange spelling for some verb endings

I have been studying Codex Sinaiticus and there is a very consistent pattern of spelling some verb endings with -αι instead of an expected -ε (as is also given in modern printed texts): Luke 30:30 ...
Fraser Orr's user avatar
6 votes
6 answers
289 views

What does "purpose/prothesin" mean in Romans 8:28?

Romans 8:28 "And we know that for those who love God all things work together for good, for those who are called according to his purpose." ESV. My emphasis. [purpose/prothesin]. What is ...
C. Stroud's user avatar
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1 vote
3 answers
73 views

Who is being addressed in Ephesians 1:1?

The letter to the Ephesians begins with the phrase "...to the saints who are in Ephesus, and faithful in Christ Jesus." This question considers the manuscript evidence surrounding the words ...
Revelation Lad's user avatar
1 vote
1 answer
44 views

Rule for Waw with dagesh or not? [closed]

I'm reading through my Hebrew. And I'm bumping into waws with dageshes in the middle of them and others without. Way back in class I remember that there was a rule for this. But I can't remember what ...
Epimanes's user avatar
  • 1,710
2 votes
3 answers
116 views

He saved, shall be saved, or saves us. How should (G4982) be translated in Titus 3:5?

When it says in this verse "He saved us, by the washing of regeneration, and renewing of the holy ghost" following this theme of washing and renewing, those scriptures speak of a process (...
ThatwemaybethepraiseofHisglory's user avatar
0 votes
2 answers
72 views

How should we understand the use (G3588) in Eph.1:10?

When it says in Eph.1:10: unto a dispensation of the fulness of the seasons, to... Can it be understood as: unto a dispensation of the fullness, the seasons to ... Having the meaning of the ...
ThatwemaybethepraiseofHisglory's user avatar
5 votes
3 answers
228 views

Does the grammatical context of 1 Chronicles 29:10 allow for it to be declaring that God is our Father?

Hebrew Grammatical Background: One thing I have learned in Hebrew class is that construct chains link nouns together in a genitive relationship. Nouns that follow the chain may not be technically ...
Biblasia's user avatar
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6 votes
5 answers
1k views

Is the grammatical tense for Isaiah 9:6 irrelevant when it comes to debating whether Isaiah 9:6 refers to Jesus Christ, The Messiah?

There is a debate about the grammatical tense used in Isaiah 9:6. Some translations like the Young's Literal Translation (YLT) translate Isaiah 9:6 in the past tense ( i.e “For a Child hath been born ...
user1338998's user avatar
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0 votes
2 answers
137 views

Does the Bible condone rape in Deuteronomy 22: 29? [duplicate]

Atheists says the word for "seized" (her) have a violent conotation, since this is the one that is used in scripture, is that true? 29 Then the man that lay with her shall give unto the ...
Caio Santos's user avatar
2 votes
4 answers
287 views

Forgiven because or therefore forgiven in Luke 7:47

Was the woman of Luke 7:47 forgiven because she loved much or did she love much as a result of being forgiven ? What does the grammar of the Greek say ? ( or is the Greek vague and it could go either ...
user63409's user avatar
7 votes
5 answers
494 views

Is “will of God” inferred or is it just “of God” John 1:13

In John 1:13 does it grammatically follow that they were born by the will of God, even though the word will θεληματος is omitted or is the word will omitted on the grounds that it’s not the will of ...
Nihil Sine Deo's user avatar
3 votes
1 answer
100 views

Sanctified or being sanctified Hebrew 10:14

Focusing purely on the Greek grammar is it saying those who are being sanctified or those who are sanctified? μια γαρ προσφορα τετελειωκεν εις το διηνεκες τους αγιαζομενους
Nihil Sine Deo's user avatar
1 vote
1 answer
94 views

What does the word "mishkav" mean in Biblical Hebrew

I do NOT mean "bed". But rather how it is being used in some specific verses: Num. 31:17, 18, & 35; Jdgs.12:11 & 12; Ezk 23:17) What does the word "mishkav" as mentioned ...
Jehu Man's user avatar
5 votes
2 answers
100 views

By what logic is "in love" grouped with "speaking the truth" by commas? (Ephesians 4:15)

I understand that the ordering of words in Greek does not impact the meaning as much as it does in English. But given that ordering (and commas) does matter in English, consider the following two ...
Isaac Adams's user avatar
2 votes
3 answers
110 views

In Romans 8:18, how is the aorist ἀποκαλυφθῆναι translated as a future tense?

ἀποκαλυφθῆναι Is the aorist and would be translated as “was revealed” Does μέλλουσαν (present tense) “is about to be” somehow change the aorist ἀποκαλυφθῆναι to the future tense? Can someone explain ...
Mark D.'s user avatar
  • 21
3 votes
4 answers
164 views

Is the Greek verb βιάζεται from Luke 16:16 in the middle or the passive voice?

Luke 16:16 The Law and the Prophets were until John; since then the good news of the kingdom of God is preached, and everyone (βιάζεται) into it. Grammatically, the verb βιάζεται could be either ...
Stone Davidson's user avatar
1 vote
2 answers
140 views

Is One of the main overarching meanings of ( Song of Solomon 2:7 ) is that love is gentle & patient?

There is a lot of debate surrounding ( Song of Solomon 2:7 ) as to whether the "Subject" which in this case is the speaker is the bride or the groom? why the "Direct Object" ...
user1338998's user avatar
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2 votes
3 answers
180 views

An anointed one vs The anointed one?

Throughout the Hebrew Bible, many individuals are described as ‘anointed’, typically with the task of carrying out God’s will. As many understand, ‘anointed’ translates to ‘Messiah’. The concept of ...
ellied's user avatar
  • 634
2 votes
2 answers
639 views

Is there a majestic plural in ancient Hebrew? [duplicate]

In Genesis 1 God (Elohim) says "Let Us make man in Our image" Now Elohim (plural) is used throughout the Bible with verbs in the singular, so it can be seen as just a title of God roughly ...
John Smith's user avatar
7 votes
3 answers
284 views

Col 2:15 - Was the triumph over them "in him" or "in it"

Within what/who were the rulers and authorities triumphed over? Here is an example of the two version showing different options: English Standard Version He disarmed the rulers and authorities and ...
Austin's user avatar
  • 3,725
5 votes
1 answer
87 views

Is 1 Thessalonians 3:11 an example of Granville Sharp's rule?

Now may our God and Father himself, and our Lord Jesus, direct our way to you (1 Thessalonians 3:11 ESV) αὐτὸς δὲ ὁ θεὸς καὶ πατὴρ ἡμῶν καὶ ὁ κύριος ἡμῶν Ἰησοῦς κατευθύναι τὴν ὁδὸν ἡμῶν πρὸς ὑμᾶς The ...
Revelation Lad's user avatar
1 vote
1 answer
64 views

Can the field in Ruth 2:3 refer to Elimelech?

In Ruth 2:3 it states חֶלְקַת הַשָּׂדֶה לְבֹעַז אֲשֶׁר מִמִּשְׁפַּחַת אֱלִימֶלֶךְ׃ - it was the piece of land belonging to Boaz, who was of Elimelech’s family (Sefaria trans.) I was curious if ...
rikitikitembo's user avatar
1 vote
1 answer
63 views

Genesis 1:7 and who/what divided or separated

First time post. I have a question regarding Genesis 1:7 and the subject of the pronoun of ויבדל. I am self-learning Hebrew and noticed in the NJPS they translate it "It" contrasted to "...
Garland_Jones's user avatar
1 vote
4 answers
148 views

Alternative interpretation of Romans 1:20

The King James Version translates Romans 1:20 as follows: ‘For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his ...
Riemann's user avatar
  • 309
3 votes
2 answers
58 views

What does εἰς τὸ ἀκοῦσαι mean in James 1:19

What does εἰς τὸ ἀκοῦσαι mean in James 1:19. Please, explain how the article works here?
Dmitri Freund's user avatar
3 votes
1 answer
918 views

In Romans 5-8, why did Paul sometimes write "Christ Jesus" instead of "Jesus Christ"?

I noticed that in Romans 5:1-8:39, which in most study Bible / commentary outlines are grouped into one part, Paul was not consistent in referring to the Lord Jesus Christ (5 places); sometimes "...
GratefulDisciple's user avatar
4 votes
4 answers
464 views

Jeremiah 36:30 - meaning of “sit”?

In Jeremiah 36:30, we see a prophecy that Jehoiakim will not have a descendent to sit on the throne: “Therefore this is what the Lord says about Jehoiakim king of Judah: He will have no one to sit on ...
ellied's user avatar
  • 634
0 votes
0 answers
40 views

Is the definite article in Hebrew used to convert an adjective or adverb into a noun, or used without a noun?

This question requires a degree of Hebrew scholarship, although if someone has the means (software) to compile a list of Old Testament examples where articles precede adjectives or adverbs without a ...
Biblasia's user avatar
  • 4,778
2 votes
2 answers
144 views

Does Titus 1:6 prevent fathers of rebellious children from being elders?

In Titus 1:5-6, Paul writes the following to Titus (NKJV, emphasis added): For this reason I left you in Crete, that you should set in order the things that are lacking, and appoint elders in every ...
The Editor's user avatar
  • 1,687
0 votes
1 answer
90 views

Is the Greek word "pragmaton" as used in Hebrews 11:1 referring to a thing done, an action, deed?

Now faith is the substance of things hoped for, the evidence of things not seen. [Hebrews 11:1 KJV] Is the Greek word "pragmaton" as used in Hebrews 11:1 referring to a thing done, an ...
Cisumino Cisumino's user avatar
0 votes
1 answer
90 views

What is the difference between the Greek words "pragma" and "pragmaton" [closed]

In Hebrews 11:1 the word πραγμάτων (pragmaton) is used: Ἔστιν δὲ πίστις ἐλπιζομένων ὑπόστασις, πραγμάτων ἔλεγχος οὐ βλεπομένων. "Now faith is the assurance of things hoped for, the conviction ...
Cisumino Cisumino's user avatar
2 votes
1 answer
45 views

Mathew 24:4-7 - consecutive according to grammar?

This is about only the meaning of the grammar in these verses. In v9, the word then is used which unambiguously places the subsequent events after events in v4-7. But in v4-7, there is no use of then ...
Maximus1987's user avatar
-1 votes
2 answers
552 views

Why are some words in the Hebrew Bible doubled? [closed]

With the Strong's dictionary App, i was trying to make sense of Ezekiel 37:25. Here some Hebrew words are repeated twice. For instance the Hebrew word “ben” means “son”. But what does “ben ben” mean? ...
Constantthin's user avatar
  • 1,003
1 vote
1 answer
39 views

Genesis 7: "The flood continued forty days on the earth." - is that same as forty days/nights? [closed]

Gen 7:12 And rain fell upon the earth forty days and forty nights. Gen 7:17 The flood continued forty days on the earth. The waters increased and bore up the ark, and it rose high above the earth. ...
Maximus1987's user avatar
13 votes
5 answers
2k views

דָג and דָגה in Jonah 1:17 – 2:1

Jonah 1:17 – 2:1 1:17 And the Lord appointedd a great fish (דָג)* to swallow up Jonah. And Jonah was in the belly of the fish three days and three nights. 2:1 Then Jonah prayed to the Lord his God ...
Sebastian Elishav's user avatar
2 votes
1 answer
62 views

Leviticus 23:40a - Three or Four Trees?

In the instructions for building booths on the feast of Tabernacles in Leviticus 23.40: וּלְקַחְתֶּם לָכֶם בַּיֹּום הָרִאשֹׁון פְּרִי עֵץ הָדָר כַּפֹּת תְּמָרִים וַעֲנַף עֵץ עָבֹת וְעַרְבֵי נָחַל ...
Robert's user avatar
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