Questions tagged [grammar]

Understanding the grammar of the source texts; this tag should be accompanied by the appropriate language tag.

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41 views

How should δὲ in Luke 24:44 be translated?

The Greek text of Luke 24:44 states: Εἶπεν δὲ πρὸς αὐτούς Οὗτοι οἱ λόγοι μου οὓς ἐλάλησα πρὸς ὑμᾶς ἔτι ὢν σὺν ὑμῖν, ὅτι δεῖ πληρωθῆναι πάντα τὰ γεγραμμένα ἐν τῷ νόμῳ Μωϋσέως καὶ τοῖς προφήταις ...
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47 views

Who is the “possessor of heaven and earth” in Genesis 14:19. Abraham or God?

Who is the "possessor of heaven and earth" in Genesis 14:19 And he blessed him, and said, Blessed be Abram of the most high God, possessor of heaven and earth: 20 and blessed be the most high ...
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3answers
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Does Martin Smart’s Rule indicate that “Lord” and “God” have two referents at John 20:28?

In October 2000, "Smart's Rule," started as a parody of Sharp's Rule, was proposed on the B-GREEK mailing list by Martin Smart. The current paper is here. The rule states: In the proper native[a] ...
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4answers
518 views

What is the accurate translation of “οὗτος” in John 1:2?

In John 1:2, what is the accurate translation of "οὗτος"? I looked about 10 translations: Arabic and English translations. Translations were as follow: هذا. هو. This. He. The same. I don't ...
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264 views

Since the Word received life in John 1:3-4 per the USB Greek text, can the prologue also support the Word was eternal?

The problem: The grammar of John 1:1-4, especially in our critical editions of the Greek text give substantial reason to view the Word as having received his very life in the beginning. However ...
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215 views

What does the "beginning of creation” at Rev 3:14 mean using a Biblical Hermeneutic?

In 1979 the 2nd edition Bauer-Arndt-Gingrich-Danker Greek lexicon (BAGD) said of “the beginning of creation” used of Christ at Rev 3:14 that “the mng. beginning=‘first created’ is linguistically ...
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Does Paul's use of Greek represent the Son as Creator or Maker?

When the role of the Son is spoken of by Paul in Creation it is always as the intermediate agent (δια) or instrument (εν) used by God and not as source as in Creator Ex Nihilo. BDAG on the agency of ...
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182 views

Did Jesus speak pidgin or ungrammatically at John 8:58?

Every native speaker can intuitively tell that "Before Abraham was born, I am" is not grammatical English. To take "I am" as a title of God is equivalent to "Before Abraham was born, Fred." That's ...
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Is the article in 2 Peter 1:2 (του θεου) anaphoric to θεός in 1:1?

Anaphora (Greek, ‘to bring back, to bring up’) is a word or phrase which depends upon another for identification. For example, “Pronouns are anaphors.” When one says, “They refer back to a noun,” ...
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Jehovah in the New Testament

Among the reasons the Watchtower society gives for inserting the name Jehovah in the New Testament is the following: "In Greek, is the definite article missing from before Kyʹri·os (Lord), where it ...
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119 views

Did Jesus ask once or repeatedly? Mark 5:8

The text translated says something to the effect “For he was saying to him, "Come out of the man, you unclean spirit!"” ‭‭Mark‬ ‭5:8‬ ‭ Which would cause one to assume Jesus said it once only ...
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34 views

Psalm 104:30 grammar

Does the grammar in Psalm 104:30 support what is to come, as opposed to what has happened in the past? From my extremely basic understanding it supports what is to come, but I want to be sure. 30 ...
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88 views

A male child is born to us

Is there a difference, even very small, in the meaning of: A male child is born to us. vs A male child has been born to us. The "is born" is rather unusual in English. What is the best ...
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1answer
34 views

Rom 8:31 ?..Who can be against us? Is this a valid grammatical adjustment?

Rom 8:31 (NKJV)  What then shall we say to these things? If God is for us, who can be against us? Does the Greek text allow for this translation? What then shall we say to these things if God is for ...
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139 views

Could Matthew 28:18-19 be translated in the Koine Greek to be an exhortation and not a commandment as some may think?

"Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit,” Could this mean, ”while you are going out and about or while you are on ...
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2answers
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In the Shema, how should we understand “with all your strength” when the Hebrew word מְאֹ֑ד is rarely used this way?

In Deuteronomy 6:5, the Hebrew text reads "and with all your might"(ESV). Most English translations take this as "strength" or "might." The LXX uses a common word for power/strength/might and Mark's ...
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49 views

How should the 2fs form of amar be understood in Psalm 16:2

Psalm 16:2 reads: אָמַרְתְּ לַיהוָה אֲדֹנָי אָתָּה טוֹבָתִי בַּל-עָלֶיךָ אָמַרְתְּ is 2fs in form. I was curious about how to understand this. Looking around, most translations seem to understand ...
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Is “the bread is in effect common” (1 Samuel 21:5) as translated by the NKJV accurate?

The MT reads: וַיַּ֩עַן֩ דָּוִ֨ד אֶת־הַכֹּהֵ֜ן וַיֹּ֣אמֶר ל֗וֹ כִּ֣י אִם־אִשָּׁ֤ה עֲצֻֽרָה־לָ֙נוּ֙ כִּתְמ֣וֹל שִׁלְשֹׁ֔ם בְּצֵאתִ֕י וַיִּהְי֥וּ כְלֵֽי־הַנְּעָרִ֖ים קֹ֑דֶשׁ וְהוּא֙ דֶּ֣רֶךְ חֹ֔ל ...
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Imperfect Indicative Active in John 1:1-4

John 1:1 (ESV) 1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2 He was in the beginning with God. 3 All things were made through him, and without him was not any ...
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Faulty “covenant” or “ministry” in Hebrews 8:7?

Hebrews 8:7 refers to something with 'fault', and the referent is almost invariably indicated to be the first 'covenant' in English translations. Some of the more literal translations miss the word ...
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1answer
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Is Jeremiah 18:2 grammatically incorrect?

This may seem like an insignificant question but I was wondering why the Hebrew "וְשָׁ֖מָּה" which is feminine appears in Jeremiah 18:2 to refer to "בֵּ֣ית" which is masculine: קוּם וְיָרַדְתָּ ...
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31 views

Should Job 22:23-25 be understood as a sequential list?

I'm a 2nd year undergrad Bible student so I haven't been able to take Hebrew so I don't know how to interpret this- don't be afraid to give me details however, I am still nerdy and like to use ...
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Emphasis in Isaiah 50:11

Does the phrase here translated - "this you shall have of mine hand" - refer to the the previous portion of the verse, or does it refer to the latter portion of the verse? Is 50:11Behold, all ye ...
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166 views

Is Noah's “youngest son” in Genesis 9:24 Ham or Canaan?

And Noah began to be an husbandman, and he planted a vineyard: 21And he drank of the wine, and was drunken; and he was uncovered within his tent. 22And Ham, the father of Canaan, saw the nakedness ...
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31 views

Some legend with meaning of V-RAP-NPM, API-3S etc

It is difficult for me to google the meaning of such short keywords like V-RAP-NPM or API-3S etc. The following is in my bible lexicon: 1 Peter 1:8 ον(R-ASM) G3739 ουκ(PRT-N) G3756 ειδοτες G1492 ...
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In Acts 15:17 are the “remnant of men” and the “gentiles who are called by name” identical?

In the CSB it appears that they are: [Act 15:17 CSB] (17) "so the rest of humanity may seek the Lord -- even all the Gentiles who are called by my name -- declares the Lord who makes these things ...
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1answer
64 views

In Deuteronomy 8:3 why is “live” a future verb?

[Deu 8:3 ASV] (3) And he humbled thee, and suffered thee to hunger, and fed thee with manna, which thou knewest not, neither did thy fathers know; that he might make thee know that man doth not live ...
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146 views

Is Mark 12:30 explicitly saying all WILL love God?

Sorry if this question is not appropriate for this site or a'bit stupid, I don't know Greek myself, just looked at the translations on biblehub and I was wondering wether what is often translated as '...
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1answer
68 views

You all are gods vs. You all are God?

Plural Usage In the answer of Why is elohim translated as God rather than gods? the plural usage occurs because of the verb or adjective. Psalm 82:6 WLC אֲ‍ֽנִי־אָ֭מַרְתִּי אֱלֹהִ֣ים אַתֶּ֑ם ...
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141 views

Shouldn’t it read her tent? Genesis 9:21

In this verse the translators say that the tent belonged to Noah, ‘his tent’ but doesn't the feminine possessive suffix indicate that it should be her tent, as in his wife’s tent? “He drank of the ...
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51 views

Should “from the father” be translated instead as “beside a father” in John 1:14?

A typical translation of John 1:14-18 usually reads about like this: (John 1:14–18, ESV) And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we have seen his glory, glory as of the only Son from ...
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79 views

What is the logic used in Romans 7:1-2 to help us know our relationship with the Law?

Romans 7:1-2 Know ye not, brethren, (for I speak to them that know the law,) how that the law hath dominion over a man as long as he liveth? 2 For the woman which hath an husband is bound by the ...
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Jude vs 24: who has the joy?

Jude 24 in KJV says: Now unto him that is able to keep you from falling, and to present you faultless before the presence of his glory with exceeding joy Various English translations render this ...
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Why does Matthew 28:19 say “in the name” and then proceed to give three names?

If written out in full would this verse read "in the name of the Father, and in the name of the Son, and in the name of the Holy Spirit"? Or is there some other reason apart from trimming obviously ...
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110 views

In 1 Timothy 6:16 in what way does Jesus “have immortality” (if indeed he is the referent)?

[1Ti 6:11-16 ESV] (11) But as for you, O man of God, flee these things. Pursue righteousness, godliness, faith, love, steadfastness, gentleness. (12) Fight the good fight of the faith. Take hold of ...
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In Romans 2:7 what does Paul mean by “immortality” in relation to “everlasting life”?

[Rom 2:7 ESV] (7) to those who by patience in well-doing seek for glory and honor and immortality, he will give eternal life; 2:7 τοῖς μὲν καθ᾽ ὑπομονὴν ἔργου ἀγαθοῦ δόξαν καὶ τιμὴν καὶ ...
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Why is the indefinite aorist tense used in Luke 22:15 'With desire I have desired / 'Ἐπιθυμίᾳ ἐπεθύμησα?

Why is the indefinite aorist tense used in Luke 22:15 And he said unto them, With desire I have desired to eat this passover with you before I suffer... I am most interested in the hebraism used here ...
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1answer
36 views

In Hebrews 1:4 what does it mean that Jesus “inherits” a more excellent name?

[Heb 1:4 DBY] (4) taking a place by so much better than the angels, as he inherits a name more excellent than they. 1:4 τοσούτῳ κρείττων γενόμενος τῶν ἀγγέλων ὅσῳ διαφορώτερον παρ᾽ αὐτοὺς ...
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1answer
289 views

What does “justified in the Spirit” refer to in 1 Timothy 3:16?

What does justified in the Spirit refer to in 1 Timothy 3:16 And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, ...
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2answers
67 views

Is there any significance to the use and placement of the definite article in the phrase “last days”?

The New Testament has the phrase "last days" 5 times. Sometimes it is written with a definite article and sometimes without. Once the article is placed before "last days" and twice between "last days."...
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75 views

What does “even as” mean in Ephesians 1:4?

Ephesians 1:3-4 Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who has blessed us in Christ with every spiritual blessing in the heavenly places, 4 even as he chose us in him before the ...
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91 views

Biblical Hebrew, לו and Gender Agreement (Psalm 3:2)

Psalm 3:2 (WLC) רבים אמרים לנפשי אין ישועתה לו באלהים סלה׃ (My translation) They are many who say to my soul, 'There is no salvation for him with God.'" Question "Soul" (נפש) is feminine, and "...
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59 views

In Romans 1:7 KJV, why is κλητοῖς ἁγίοις translated as “called to be saints”?

[Rom 1:7 KJV] (7) To all that be in Rome, beloved of God, called to be saints: Grace to you and peace from God our Father, and the Lord Jesus Christ. [Rom 1:7 MGNT] (7) πᾶσιν τοῖς οὖσιν ἐν ...
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5answers
121 views

How should Hebrews 10:13a be translated and understood?

There are several English renderings and they vary a lot. Taken very literally it seems to say "In remainder, ". Some have something along the lines of "From that time forward". NLT has "There he ...
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3answers
399 views

What is the “same veil” mentioned in 2 Corinthians 3:14

2 Corinthians 3:13-14 New King James Version (NKJV) 13 unlike Moses, who put a veil over his face so that the children of Israel could not look steadily at the end of what was passing away. 14 ...
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143 views

In 1 John 1:1 should it read “the word of life” or “the living message”?

Note: I am double-posting this from my own question on B-Greek for whomever would like to follow along or participate there. mGNT 1 John 1:1-3 1 ὃ ἦν ἀπ’ ἀρχῆς ὃ ἀκηκόαμεν ὃ ἑωράκαμεν τοῖς ...
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70 views

In Romans 11:15, whose “loss” is it and whose “bounty”?

In working on a related question I realized that there it was unclear to me who was the subject and who was the object in this verse: Rom 11:15 KJV - 15 For if the casting away of them be the ...
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2answers
61 views

How often should we visit those in distress according to James 1:27?

In James 1:27 it says Pure and undefiled religion in the sight of our God and Father is this: to visit orphans and widows in their distress, and to keep oneself unstained by the world. - James 1:27 ...
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48 views

In Revelation 7:12 and 7:14 is there any significant difference between the Koine Greek words ἡ and τῆς?

I understand they both translate to the article "the" but is there any significant difference between these two words? I am looking at their use in Revelation 7:12 and Revelation 7:14. Rev 7:12, ...
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4answers
211 views

“Be holy as I am holy”; why are the two words for “holy” written differently in Hebrew?

קְדֹשִׁים תִּהְיוּ: כִּי קָדוֹשׁ, אֲנִי ”Be holy for I (God) am holy" This verse in Leviticus 19:2 seems to demand that Israel should sanctify herself to the level of God’s holiness. But in ...

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