Questions tagged [grammar]

Understanding the grammar of the source texts; this tag should be accompanied by the appropriate language tag.

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Habakkuk 1:11 true meaning

I am just curious about the translation choice in KJV Habakkuk 1:11, which is the following: "Then shall his mind change, and he shall pass over, and offend, imputing this his power unto his god.&...
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How to interpret ἐμαρτύρουν αὐτῷ in Luke 4 22?

Strong's defines the verb μαρτυρέω (martureo) as "to bear witness, testify", and notes usage including to "witness, bear witness, give evidence, testify, give a good report". In ...
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What is the argument that Jesus' 'ego eimi' at John 8:58 should be translated as 'I am he' instead of 'I am'? [duplicate]

The standard way to translate Jesus' John 8:58 statement is "Before Abraham was, I am." Yet, a minority position is to translate 8:58b as 'I am he'. This is the view taken by Sozzini as ...
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What is the significance of the Greek "ὅτι" as used in the original text of 1 Thessalonians 5:2?

1 Thessalonians 5:1-2 reads as follows: Περὶ δὲ τῶν χρόνων καὶ τῶν καιρῶν, ἀδελφοί, οὐ χρείαν ἔχετε ὑμῖν γράφεσθαι, αὐτοὶ γὰρ ἀκριβῶς οἴδατε ὅτι ἡμέρα κυρίου ὡς κλέπτης ἐν νυκτὶ οὕτως ἔρχεται. Or, ...
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What is the relationship between the participles to the main verbs in Ephesians 6:10-20?

I am trying to prepare a talk on Ephesians and as part of my preparation/exegesis, I was attempting a grammatical diagram of Ephesians 6:10-6:20 using the UBS5 text. I am doing this in order to ...
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Matthew 28:19 Go, Going... huh?? How should we understand the passive voice?

Bill in this article briefly argues against the view that ' the typical translation of Matthew 28:19 ("Therefore go and make disciples") is incorrect because the Greek word for "go&...
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Is there significance to the omission of the Greek definite article, twice in Matthew 12:28?

Matthew 3:16 is usually translated as "… he saw the Spirit of God …". The Greek is "εἶδεν τὸ πνεῦμα τοῦ θεοῦ", which is literally "he-saw the spirit the of-god". Matthew ...
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Is the Son sealed, by the Father, 'as God' (John 6:27)?

... τουτον γαρ ο πατηρ εσφραγισεν ο θεος. [John 6:27 TR, undisputed] ... this he for the father did seal the deity. [Literal] ... for him did the father seal even God. [YLT] If one removes the ...
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Why doesn’t Paul use a Greek word for “influence” in 1 Corinthians 15:33?

We read: “Do not be deceived: “Evil company corrupts good habits.”” ‭‭I Corinthians‬ ‭15:33‬ ‭NKJV ‬‬One might assume that Paul means evil company can corrupt good habits, but people are in control ...
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Psalm 68:4 - Does it contain a Beth Essentiae?

Psalm 68:4 (ESV), 4 Sing to God, sing praises to his name; lift up a song to him who rides through the deserts; his name is the LORD; exult before him! The Hebrew text for the phrase emboldened ...
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Isaiah 44:6 Distinction of persons or distinction of titles? (Grammar)

We read: “Thus says the Lord, the King of Israel, And his Redeemer, the Lord of hosts: ‘I am the First and I am the Last; Besides Me there is no God.” ‭‭Isaiah‬ ‭44:6‬ ‭NKJV‬‬ “Thus says Yahweh, the ...
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Why in Greek does Matthew 5:8 have "God/ton theon" with but Matthew 5:9 have "God/theou" without the article?

Matthew 5:8 "Blessed are the pure in heart, for they shall see God". ESV "God/ton theon". Matthew 5:9 "Blessed are the peacemakers, for they shall be called sons of God&...
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Does 1 Corinthians 7:7 mean God sovereignly decree’s some people to be married & others to singleness?

We have the similar question: Is celibacy a gift according to 1 Corinthians 7:7? I’m not asking if Celibacy is a gift, but my question is: Q: Does 1 Corinthians 7:7 mean God predestines some to be ...
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"a temple", "the temple" or "temples" in 1 Corinthians 6:19?

1 Corinthians 6:19 ESV "Or do you not know that your body is a temple of the Holy Spirit who is in you, whom you have from God, and you are not your own?" My emphasis. 1 Corinthians 6:19 ...
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In what manner did God close up flesh after removing Adam's rib in Genesis 2:21?

(Genesis 2:21) And the Lord God caused a deep sleep to fall upon Adam, and he slept, and he took one of his ribs and closed up flesh in its place. I always used to visualize the verse like this: God ...
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1 answer
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Why מצא instead of נמצא in Genesis 2:20?

(Genesis 2:20, Masoretic) וַיִּקְרָ֨א הָֽאָדָ֜ם שֵׁמֹ֗ות לְכָל־הַבְּהֵמָה֙ וּלְעֹ֣וף הַשָּׁמַ֔יִם וּלְכֹ֖ל חַיַּ֣ת הַשָּׂדֶ֑ה וּלְאָדָ֕ם לֹֽא־מָצָ֥א עֵ֖זֶר כְּנֶגְדֹּֽו׃ (DRB) And Adam called all the ...
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Is the Hebrew in Job 33:27 subjunctive?

KJV translates Job 33:27 as He looketh upon men, and if any say, I have sinned, and perverted that which was right, and it profited me not; ESV translates He sings before men and says: ‘I sinned ...
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Galatians 5:4 “fallen from grace/failed to grasp grace” Greek roots

I heard a Pastor through a teaching sermon on Galatians make mention that Galatians 5:4 is spoken from Paul in terms of “failing to grasp grace” rather than “falling from grace” as if justified ...
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Greek question Colossians 1:23

Looking at Colossians 1:23, specifically: which was preached to every creature under heaven (KJV & NKJV) has been proclaimed (ESV) It looks like most translations translate "κηρύσσω - ...
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Parsing and interpreting כָּל־הָעֵ֛ץ אֲשֶׁר־בֹּ֥ו פְרִי־עֵ֖ץ זֹרֵ֣עַ זָ֑רַע (Genesis 1:29)

Genesis 1:29 וַיֹּ֣אמֶר אֱלֹהִ֗ים הִנֵּה֩ נָתַ֨תִּי לָכֶ֜ם אֶת־כָּל־עֵ֣שֶׂב ׀ זֹרֵ֣עַ זֶ֗רַע אֲשֶׁר֙ עַל־פְּנֵ֣י כָל־הָאָ֔רֶץ וְאֶת־כָּל־הָעֵ֛ץ אֲשֶׁר־בֹּ֥ו פְרִי־עֵ֖ץ זֹרֵ֣עַ זָ֑רַע לָכֶ֥ם יִֽהְיֶ֖ה ...
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Does 'of us' relate to both 'word' and 'epistle' (2 Thess 2:15)?

αρα ουν αδελφοι στηκετε και κρατειτε τας παραδοσεις ας εδιδαχθητε ειτε δια λογου ειτε δι επιστολης ημων [Stephanus TR 1550] Therefore, brethren, stand fast, and hold the traditions which ye have been ...
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3 votes
3 answers
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Congregation or congregrations? מקוה in Genesis 1:10

Genesis 1:10 ויקרא אלהים ליבשה ארץ ולמקוה המים קרא ימים וירא אלהים כי טוב Vulgate: Et vocavit Deus aridam Terram, congregationesque aquarum appellavit Maria. Et vidit Deus quod esset bonum. LXX: καὶ ...
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1 answer
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Is Hebrews 6:2 on the words "eternal judgement" in the Imperfect Aspect, Perfective Aspect, or Aoristic Aspect?

I am aware of my other question here: Hebrews 6:2 and the Greek understanding of "Eternal Judgement" Yet, I am still desiring to know more of the Greek structure of Hebrews 6:2 on the words &...
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2 votes
1 answer
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Ibn Ezras approach to grammar in Song of Songs

Ibn Ezra is a well known 12th-century rabbi who is most famous for his work on Hebrew grammar. He renders song of songs 1:4 as "Draw me! were even the king to bring me to his apartments we would ...
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Is it feasible that the period in John 1:3-4 should be placed as καὶ χωρὶς αὐτοῦ ἐγένετο ⸂οὐδὲ(. here) ἕν ὃ γέγονεν ἐν αὐτῷ ζωὴ ἦν?

This would make sense (the period before ἕν): and one did not even come about without Him. One thing which came into being by Him was life. But no one seems to propose it. So, the thrust of this ...
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2 votes
1 answer
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What is the significance of γενόμενοι in Luke 1:2?

What is the significance of γενόμενοι in Luke 1:2? The translations seem to ignore it and translate Luke 1:2 the same as if it weren't there. I haven't found a source that references this question. ...
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5 votes
7 answers
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Greek grammar: how to understand noun-article-noun-article-noun in "Κύριος ὁ Θεός ὁ Παντοκράτωρ" (Lord God Almighty) - Revelation 4:8

In Revelation 4:8 the Lord is referred to as: Lord God Almighty The Greek is Κύριος ὁ Θεός ὁ Παντοκράτωρ Literally: Lord the God the Almighty (the Greek is idiomatic and we wouldn't actually ...
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3 votes
3 answers
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What is the full meaning of " propitiation" in the first segment of Romans 3:25 in the King James version?

In Romans chapter 3:25 Paul writes "Whom God hath set forth to be a propitiation through faith in his blood," the whom being Jesus Christ. Paul developes Romans and his understanding of our ...
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2 votes
2 answers
101 views

Luke 5:17 where is the power?

Looking at Luke 5:17 some of the translations will read: "And the power of the Lord was present to heal/for healing", while others will read: "And the power of the Lord was with him (...
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Lord's Prayer: Thy will be done. Sequence, grammatical, and theological considerations

Typically one finds in English renditions: Thy will be done on Earth as it is in Heaven. (Matthew 6:10 KJV) But a more rigorous translation which also follows the Greek word order: Let come the ...
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2 answers
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Eph 5:5 and Sharps' Rule

Eph 5:5 contains the final phrase which says: τῇ βασιλείᾳ τοῦ Χριστοῦ καὶ Θεοῦ = the kingdom of Christ and God Is this a valid example of Sharps's rule, or what Wallace calls the "TSKS" ...
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4 votes
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Buried with Him by/in baptism - Romans 6:4 and Colossians 2:12

Romans 6:4 (ESV), 4 We were buried therefore with him by baptism into death, in order that, just as Christ was raised from the dead by the glory of the Father, we too might walk in newness of life. ...
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6 votes
4 answers
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The meaning of the word "in" in Romans 5:3

Romans 5:3 challenges us to "rejoice in our sufferings". But the word "in" has (at least) two meanings in English. It could mean "rejoice during our sufferings" or "...
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Rev. 17:14b - In the context, are "those with him," called (by God, inviter) , and chosen and faithful (invitees), or called and chosen, and faithful?

Text:Rev. 17:14b (ESV): "...and those with him are called and chosen and faithful.”
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Uniquely divine begotten/born one

After reading a lot about John 1:18 lately I wondered if the verse could be translated/understood as: God no one has ever seen; the uniquely divine begotten/born one. I thought this way it could fit ...
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Does Aorist Subjunctive "might make known" in Romans 9:23 refer to the past?

I have read answers to the question posed on this site "How should "gnorise" be translated in Romans 9:23?" I would appreciate a little more insight into this Aorist Subjunctive ...
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3 votes
2 answers
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The ‘he’ in 2 Thessalonians 2:7

2:7  τὸ γὰρ μυστήριον ἤδη ἐνεργεῖται τῆς ἀνομίας· μόνον ὁ κατέχων ἄρτι ἕως ἐκ μέσου γένηται 2 THESSALONIANS 2:7 For the mystery of lawlessness is already at work; only He who now restrains will do so ...
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4 answers
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John 1:18 can monogenes theos refer to God? [duplicate]

Apparently there are several variations of the verse from John 1:18, but the main difference between the different renderings is the μονογενὴς θεός (monogenes theos, "the only God") versus ὁ ...
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(Numbers 31:18), why do translators add "for yourselves"?

Why do English translations of Numbers 31:18 add "for yourselves"? English: "But all the women children, that have not known a man by lying with him, keep alive for yourselves." ...
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2 votes
2 answers
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Is this translation of John 19:32–34 grammatically possible?

Then came the soldiers, and brake the legs of the first, and of the other which was crucified with him. But when they came to Jesus, and saw that he was dead already, they brake not his legs: But one ...
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Can Song 7:6 be interpreted "How beautiful you are, and how delightful you are with love in its pleasures"?

Song of Songs 7:6 reads: מַה יָּפִית וּמַה נָּעַמְתְּ אַהֲבָה בַּתַּעֲנוּגִים All translations that I've seen interpret the word אַהֲבָה (love) here as a vocative expression (referring either to the ...
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5 votes
2 answers
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What is the best translation of the participles in the Great Commission, Matt. 28:19-20?

All the verbs in the Great Commission are participles except for μαθητεύσατε ("make disciples). For example, πορευθέντες (going) is often translated as an imperative although it is a participle. ...
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1 vote
2 answers
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Why do some translations change the order of events in Joel 1:18

In the NASB95, Joel 2:18 is translated as Then the Lord will be zealous for His land And will have pity on His people. Here the NASB refers to the Lord becoming zealous/jealous and that the Lord ...
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1 vote
0 answers
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What is the difference between arcing, phrasing and diagramming?

I am trying to improve my exegesis of biblical text and am attempting to get better with hermeneutical methods as they are focussed on understanding the meaning of the text in the context of the ...
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Why in Matthew 22:8-9 does "wedding feast/ho gamos" change to "wedding feast/tous gamous"?

Matthew 22:8-9 8 Then he said to his servants, "The wedding feast [ho gamos] is ready, but those invited were not worthy. 9 Go therefore to the main roads and invite to the wedding feast [tous ...
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Why does the KJV use (singular) "cometh" as the verb for (plural) "distress and anguish" in Proverbs 1:27?

Here is the phrase in question: When distress and anguish cometh upon you.–Proverbs 1:27c KJV If I'm not mistaken, "cometh" is a singular form of the verb, equivalent to our modern-day ...
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1 vote
2 answers
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Is it grammatically possible to translate σαββάτω as Sunday or week?

Regarding Matthew 28:1, transcribed below ipsis litteris: ὀψὲ δὲ σαββάτων τῇ ἐπιφωσκούσῃ εἰς μίαν σαββάτων ἦλθεν Μαριὰμ ἡ Μαγδαληνὴ καὶ ἡ ἄλλη Μαρία θεωρῆσαι τὸν τάφον I'm looking for an answer that ...
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3 votes
3 answers
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Why does the Septuagint translated Psalm 99:1 with the optative?

Why did the writers of the Septuagint (LXX) choose the particular word for wrath and use the optative mood for that word (ὀργιζέσθωσαν) normally translated "angry/rage/wrath" in Psalm 99:1 - ...
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More cunning? Was the serpent really more cunning?

The direct translation of Gen 3:1 is that the serpent was cunning out of the living of the field. The word for 'beast' in our English Bibles is the Hebrew word for 'living'. The word for 'more' is ...
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2 votes
2 answers
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Pneumatology in Ephesians--what spirit enables us to know whom?

Ephesians 1:17: That the God of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Father of glory, may give unto you the spirit of wisdom and revelation in the knowledge of him: (KJV) I keep asking that the God of our ...
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