Questions tagged [grammar]

Understanding the grammar of the source texts; this tag should be accompanied by the appropriate language tag.

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5
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3answers
73 views

More cunning? Was the serpent really more cunning?

The direct translation of Gen 3:1 is that the serpent was cunning out of the living of the field. The word for 'beast' in our English Bibles is the Hebrew word for 'living'. The word for 'more' is ...
2
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2answers
37 views

Pneumatology in Ephesians--what spirit enables us to know whom?

Ephesians 1:17: That the God of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Father of glory, may give unto you the spirit of wisdom and revelation in the knowledge of him: (KJV) I keep asking that the God of our ...
2
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2answers
54 views

Christology in Ephesians--what is meant by “the God of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Father of glory”?

Ephesians 1:17: That the God of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Father of glory, may give unto you the spirit of wisdom and revelation in the knowledge of him: (KJV) I keep asking that the God of our ...
3
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1answer
22 views

1 Peter 3:15 - Collective Plurals or Distributive Plurals?

But sanctify the Lord God in your hearts: and be ready always to give an answer to every man that asketh you a reason of the hope that is in you with meekness and fear: [1 Peter 3:15 KJV] In 1 Peter ...
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1answer
48 views

Should the “angel of the abyss” be capitalized? [duplicate]

I am discussing the doctrine of the Jehovah's Witnesses concerning the identity of Abaddon in Revelation 9:11. The names of persons (e.g. Matthew, Mark, and Luke) along with words that are part of ...
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2answers
37 views

Should the “angel of the abyss” be capitalized?

I am discussing the doctrine of the Jehovah's Witnesses concerning the identity of Abaddon in Revelation 9:11. The names of persons (e.g. Matthew, Mark, and Luke) along with words that are part of ...
1
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0answers
25 views

Could Acts 12:22 be translated “of God” instead of “of a god”?

Acts 12:22 is usually translated something like "And they began to shout, “This is the voice of a god, not a man!”" Can the word translated 'of a god' (Θεοῦ, theou) instead be translated ...
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1answer
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Where to start with the Apostolic Fathers [closed]

I'm looking to start reading the Apostolic Fathers (in Koine), using Michael Holmes' The Apostolic Fathers. Which of the fathers' Greek is most accessible, or most similar to that of the New Testament?...
3
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2answers
546 views

Is a translation of John 1:10 with 'it' instead of 'he' and 'him' grammatically problematic?

John 1:10 is usually translated using 'he' and 'him', for example "He was in the world, and though the world was made through Him, the world did not recognize Him." (Berean Study Bible) ...
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8answers
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Is it grammar or theology that causes translators to typically translate John 10:33 as “declare Yourself to be God” as opposed to “a god”?

John 10:33 is typically translated as something like "“We are not stoning You for any good work,” said the Jews, “but for blasphemy, because You, who are a man, declare Yourself to be God.”"...
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3answers
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Deuteronomy 34:10

Deut 34:10 - Since that time no prophet has risen in Israel like Moses, whom the LORD knew face to face (NASB) Is the Hebrew in Deuteronomy 34:10 future tense? Meaning Jesus can’t be the prophet like ...
5
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2answers
133 views

Psalm 17:2 Why the Hebrew word for eyes is singular?

https://biblehub.com/psalms/17-2.htm Psalm 17:2 Let my vindication come from you; may your eyes see what is right. may Your eyes עֵ֝ינֶ֗יךָ (‘ê·ne·ḵā) Noun - cdc | second person masculine singular ...
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2answers
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Matt 25:40. Can Jesus' brethren be understood to be the righteous of verse 37?

I am looking for an answer based on the structure of the original Greek. I observe in my reading of Matthew 25:31-46 that the term " my brethren " occurs only in the first passage of Jesus' ...
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2answers
93 views

Anarthrous “Son of God” in Mark 1:1 and 15:39

Mark 1:1 (ESV), 1 The beginning of the gospel of Jesus Christ, the Son of God... Mark 15:39 (ESV), 39 And when the centurion, who stood facing him, saw that in this way he breathed his last, he said, “...
5
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1answer
44 views

In Leviticus 6:2 LXX, what is the meaning of κοινωνίας?

The NLT version of Leviticus 6:2, based on the Hebrew, has this: [Lev 6:2 NLT] (2) "Suppose one of you sins against your associate and is unfaithful to the LORD. Suppose you cheat in a deal ...
3
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1answer
51 views

In Philippians 1:5, what does Paul mean by κοινωνίᾳ?

[Phl 1:5 YLT] (5) for your contribution to the good news from the first day till now, [Phl 1:5 NIV] (5) because of your partnership in the gospel from the first day until now, [Phl 1:5 NKJV] (5) for ...
5
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1answer
62 views

μέν … δέ with trailling καὶ

In English, it is idiomatic to have the word 'and' before the last item in a list, such as "I like coffee, tea, and beer" (with or without the last comma!). In Ephesians 4:11, there is a &...
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1answer
38 views

Present Infinitive Active Verbs in 1 Timothy 5:14

1 Timothy 5:14 (ESV), So I would have younger widows marry, bear children, manage their households, and give the adversary no occasion for slander. The four emboldened phrases above, in Greek, are ...
3
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3answers
83 views

Present Infinitive Active Verbs in 1 Timothy 5:14

1 Timothy 5:14 (ESV), So I would have younger widows marry, bear children, manage their households, and give the adversary no occasion for slander. The four emboldened phrases above, in Greek, are ...
3
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3answers
103 views

In Revelation 7:11, who falls down and worships God?

Revelation 7:11 (CSB) All the angels stood around the throne, and along with the elders and the four living creatures they fell facedown before the throne and worshiped God, Revelation 7:11 (NIV) All ...
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2answers
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The spirit but which spirit? “which” or “who/whom”?

Unlike English, other languages like Greek, Hebrews have something called "gender". That is, some nouns are masculine, others are feminine, and still, others are neuter. Something like we ...
3
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1answer
41 views

In Habakkuk 2:2-3, is he saying that the the reading and running occur in the last days?

Habakkuk 2:2 seems to be saying that Habakkuk is to write a call to action, and it sounds like it is to be written without obscurity so the reader will immediately charge off. However, in verse 3 it ...
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2answers
66 views

Word order in subject-predicate nominative constructions

Hi I am studying the use of the nominative and especially looking at the subject-predicate nominative constructions. I read the following in Matt 6:22: Matthew 6:22 (UBS5): Ὁ λύχνος τοῦ σώματός ἐστιν ...
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3answers
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Is Aramaic “bar enos,” “son of man,” identifiable as a definite or indefinite form? [closed]

In the written NT, "the son of man" is "ο γιος του ανθρώπου," with a definite article "ο." This would presumably be a Greek translation of an Aramaic phrase used during ...
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1answer
22 views

Exodus 40 difference between “thou” and “he”, and the official position of Moses

My questions are in Exodus 40, from verses 2-15 the word "thou" is used and from verses 19-30 the word "he" is used is there a important distinction? Also, Moses seems to be ...
3
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2answers
30 views

In 1 Corinthians 15:26, what is the significance of καταργεῖται (“abolish”) being a present indicative instead of a future?

[1Co 15:26 NASB] (26) The last enemy that will be abolished is death. [1Co 15:26 MGNT] (26) ἔσχατος ἐχθρὸς καταργεῖται ὁ θάνατος The context of 1 Corinthians 15 is a little difficult to sort out, ...
2
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1answer
57 views

In Acts 24:15, how should μέλλειν ἔσεσθαι be rendered?

It is generally translated as "going to be", with Young's Literal Translation being the Minority Report: https://biblehub.com/acts/24-15.htm https://www.jw.org/en/library/bible/nwt/books/...
3
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1answer
30 views

What is the reason for the use of different voices for the perfect in Mark 1:15?

Hi in the following verse: Mark 1:15 (UBS5): Πεπλήρωται ὁ καιρὸς καὶ ἤγγικεν ἡ βασιλεία τοῦ θεοῦ· μετανοεῖτε καὶ πιστεύετε ἐν τῷ εὐαγγελίῳ. ... has been fulfilled the time and has drawn near the ...
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2answers
176 views

In Matthew 10:25, who is Beelzebub/Beelzeboul?

[Mat 10:25 NASB] (25) "It is enough for the disciple that he become like his teacher, and the slave like his master. If they have called the head of the house Beelzebul, how much more [will they ...
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2answers
40 views

Why is the perfect tense used to describe clothing for Jesus and John?

Quick question - I am learning Greek and trying to read the NT in the same. Why is the perfect tense used when describing Jesus’ (Rev 1) and John the Baptist’s clothes (Mark 1)? Specifically I am ...
5
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5answers
605 views

Why does Genesis 3 use male pronouns for Eve?

I came across some interesting observations of Genesis 3 recently: Genesis 3:12, "And the adam said , 'the woman whom you gave with me, HE gave [3fs] to me from the tree and I ate'" Genesis ...
5
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2answers
97 views

In Romans 1:18, what is the relationship between men's unrighteousness and their suppression of the truth?

How is he saying that men suppress the truth?: by being unrighteousness? motivated by unrighteousness? by wicked means? What is the function of ἐν in the sentence? [Rom 1:18 NLT] (18) But God shows ...
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4answers
213 views

Why do English bibles change “Yearn for Purity” (נַשְּׁקוּ בַר) in Psalm 2:12 to “Kiss the Son” or “Kiss his Son”?

We read in Tehillim 2:12 [MT], "Yearn for Purity, lest He be angry and your-way will perish when suddenly His-wrath will kindle. Happy [are] all who take refuge in-Him" (נַשְּׁקוּ בַ֡ר פֶּן ...
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1answer
75 views

What is the status of the word “heaven” in Matthew 18:19?

ESV Matthew 18:19 "Again I say to you, if two of you may agree on earth about anything they ask, it will be done for them by my Father in heaven". The Greek ouranois is plural. 26 of 29 ...
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3answers
801 views

How do we understand the connection between the feminine pronominal suffix with Jonah in Jonah 1:11

Jonah 1:11 (KJV 1900): Then said they unto him, What shall we do unto thee (לָּ֔ךְ) לָּ֔ךְ is a second person feminine pronominal suffix, which means that it cannot be referring to Jonah. So why do ...
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1answer
61 views

Can you give the Greek Word ekklēsia a masculine ending? [closed]

I know that the Greek word translated as church (in the Bible) is a feminine noun. But, is it possible to give ecclesia a masculine ending - making it a masculine noun? Thank you.
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1answer
75 views

What is the meaning of “And who is their father?” in 1 Samuel 10:12?

1 Samuel 10:9 As Saul turned to leave Samuel, God changed Saul’s heart, and all these signs were fulfilled that day. 10When he and his servant arrived at Gibeah, a procession of prophets met him; the ...
4
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1answer
80 views

Is there a first person verb with a plural subject in Hebrew?

I am aware of singular verbs with plural subjects in the third person, masculine, singular. Such as Exodus 4:29, but I am wondering if there is a 1cs that has a plural subject? Feel free to add or ...
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3answers
1k views

What is the justification for English translations capitalizing “Word” in John 1:1?

What is the justification for English translations capitalizing “Word” in John 1:1? ΕΝ ΑΡΧΗ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος. New International Version In the beginning ...
2
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4answers
167 views

What does “anasteso” mean in John 6:39?

"And this is the will of him who sent me, that I should lose nothing of all that he has given me, but raise [anasteso] it up on the last day" ESV. John 6:39 says "raise" it on the ...
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2answers
69 views

What does, “let” him come, mean in John 7:37?

Jesus stood up and cried out, "If anyone thirsts, let him come to me and drink". ESV How "let" is possibly used: I will let you use my car-permission-I give the thirsty person ...
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1answer
25 views

Luke 12:1 Vulgate Text: “adtendite a fermento Pharisaeorum quae est hypocrisis”

This might not be the right forum to ask, but I couldn't think of a better one. If it is deemed unacceptable, I apologize in advance. I was reading Luke the other day, and inspired by the curiosity to ...
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2answers
96 views

Why does the King James Bible appear to not agree with some other translations with regard to “you” in Romans 6:17?

that form of doctrine which was delivered "you". KJV KJV. The form of doctrine was delivered. New American Standard Bible. "you were committed". Christian Standard Bible. "...
3
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4answers
179 views

Can the Ten Commandments be interpreted as declarative?

There is a variation in how John 14:15 is translated: "If you love me, you will keep my commandments." ESV “If you love Me, you will keep My commandments." NASB “If you love me, keep ...
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2answers
151 views

Psalm 49:7(NASB) translation seems to say “No human being” can redeem his brother but Psalm 49:7(KJV) refers to those with earthly riches

Psalm 49:5-9 (NASB) 5 Why should I fear in days of adversity, When the iniquity of my [b]foes surrounds me, 6 Even those who trust in their wealth And boast in the abundance of their riches? 7 No ...
3
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1answer
80 views

Exodus 3:17 and Judges 2:1 - the Validity of the Vav-Conversive

In Exodus 3:17, we find the phrase אַעֲלֶה אֶתְכֶם (aʿaleh etkhem). The word אַעֲלֶה is a verb conjugated from the verb עָלָה in the imperfect aspect, as indicated by the prefixed א. Reviewing the ...
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2answers
706 views

Mark 5:34 Daughter, your [σου] faith has healed you. Why is the genitive case used?

Luke 8:30 Jesus asked him, "What is your name?" your σοι (soi) Personal / Possessive Pronoun - Dative 2nd Person Singular Strong's Greek 4771: You. The person pronoun of the second person ...
6
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1answer
188 views

Is εἰμί (and thus ἦν) always a stative verb? Or, is ἦν a substantive verb in John 1:1a (ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος)?

This question is based on a comment on this post to this question. In the comment, it was denied that the verb ἦν in John 1:1a (viz., ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος) is functioning as a substantive verb. It was ...
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2answers
81 views

Does Wallace's chart identify “the archangel” as a monadic noun at Jude 9:9 from the text? If not, how does the grammar of the text prove otherwise?

Does Wallace's chart identify “the archangel” as a monadic noun at Jude 9:9 from the text of scripture? If not, how does the grammar of the text prove otherwise? At Jude 9:9 we find “Michael the ...
3
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3answers
84 views

Who is, or are the correct referent(s) of the pronouns in John 1:3-4?

The Fourth Gospel begins: 1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2 This One was in the beginning with God. 3 All things came-into-being through Him, ...

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