Skip to main content
Search type Search syntax
Tags [tag]
Exact "words here"
Author user:1234
user:me (yours)
Score score:3 (3+)
score:0 (none)
Answers answers:3 (3+)
answers:0 (none)
isaccepted:yes
hasaccepted:no
inquestion:1234
Views views:250
Code code:"if (foo != bar)"
Sections title:apples
body:"apples oranges"
URL url:"*.example.com"
Saves in:saves
Status closed:yes
duplicate:no
migrated:no
wiki:no
Types is:question
is:answer
Exclude -[tag]
-apples
For more details on advanced search visit our help page
Results tagged with
Search options not deleted user 423

The life of Jesus as presented by Matthew. The gospel covers His virginal birth to His death and resurrection. Matthew also presents Jesus as the Lion of Judah and the fulfillment of prophecy. It is placed first in the New Testament because many of the early church leaders believed it to be the first written. There are still a few scholars who hold to "Matthean priority."

7 votes

What did Jesus mean by 'the gates of hell'?

Cosmic geography Another factor is the context within "the district of Caesarea Philippi" (Matthew 16:13). … Matthew 16 takes place in Caesarea Philippi, situated near a mountainous region containing Mount Hermon. In the Old Testament, this region was known as Bashan—a place with a sinister reputation.... …
Dan's user avatar
  • 9,048
7 votes
Accepted

Who are the disciples to fear in Matthew 10:28?

[Matthew 10:28]. Let us fear therefore, that we may not fear. Fear seems to be allied to cowardice: seems to be the character of the weak, not the strong. … Matthew", trans. George Prevost and M. B. …
Dan's user avatar
  • 9,048
9 votes

Let The Dead Bury The Dead

D.A Carson in Matthew, Mark, Luke, vol. 8 of The Expositor's Bible Commentary, vol. 8, ed. F. Gaebelein, 1984, p. 209). … Let the spiritually dead bury their own dead" (Matthew 8:22, NLT, emphasis mine; a footnote indicates that the Greek text does not contain this additional word). …
Dan's user avatar
  • 9,048
5 votes
4 answers
2k views

Translation of ἀετοί in Matthew 24:28

The plural nominative noun ἀετοί (from ἀετός) in Matthew 24:28 is translated as 'vultures' by most modern translations. However, the KJV translated it literally as 'eagles' (see also Luke 17:37). …
Dan's user avatar
  • 9,048
19 votes
Accepted

Why is Hadēs translated as "hell"?

Why is Matthew taking a grim look at Hades in Matthew 16:18? … Matthew 11:23; 16:18; Luke 10:15; 16:23; Acts 2:27, 31; Revelation 1:18; 6:8; 20:13, 14. 2 The Greek text reads, "ἐν τοῖς κόλποις αὐτοῦ" (the referent of αὐτοῦ being Ἀβραὰμ in this clause). 3 Based on …
Dan's user avatar
  • 9,048
4 votes
Accepted

What is the name of Jesus in the Peshitta text?

This is how it is rendered in Matthew 1:21. However, the name 'Joshua' is not consistently rendered in this way in Syriac, presumably because it was not consistently rendered in the Greek. …
Dan's user avatar
  • 9,048
11 votes
4 answers
3k views

Was the word ἐπιούσιον used prior to the Lord's prayer? What does it mean?

Was the word ἐπιούσιον used prior to the Lord's prayer (Matthew 6:11; Luke 11:3)? What does it mean? …
Dan's user avatar
  • 9,048
18 votes
3 answers
17k views

Did Jesus call God YHWH?

In Matthew 27:45-46 Jesus is recorded as saying: Eli, Eli, lema sabachthani? Based on Jesus the Phoenician Jesus called God 'EL'—which is a Phoenician God—when he was on the cross. …
Dan's user avatar
  • 9,048
3 votes
Accepted

What does ονομα mean in Matthew 28:19?

He also noted that it could also have been understood differently in various regions.5 Given this information, I believe that in the context of Matthew 28:19, εἰς τὸ ὄνομα likely carried some or all of …
Dan's user avatar
  • 9,048
7 votes

If Joshua can be translated why Is the name of Jesus translated "Jesus" but his name in hebr...

I know that the other answers explain this in more depth, but the simple answer is really that the early Christians read the Greek Septuagint (LXX), and this translation of the Hebrew Tanakh and apocr …
Dan's user avatar
  • 9,048
7 votes
1 answer
707 views

Who is the referent of 'us' (ἡμῖν) in Matthew 3:15 if not merely Jesus and John?

Matthew 3:15 reads (emphasis mine): ἀποκριθεὶς δὲ ὁ Ἰησοῦς εἶπεν πρὸς αὐτόν· ἄφες ἄρτι, οὕτως γὰρ πρέπον ἐστὶν ἡμῖν πληρῶσαι πᾶσαν δικαιοσύνην. τότε ἀφίησιν αὐτόν (NA28). …
Dan's user avatar
  • 9,048
2 votes

Did both thieves on The cross mock Jesus?

Frankly, we don't know. There are many theories as to which Gospels were used as sources for others, and plenty of disputes as to whether or not any of the Gospels were written by eyewitnesses (the au …
Dan's user avatar
  • 9,048
7 votes
Accepted

In the Peshitta, what is the difference between the original word translated "Sabbath" and t...

According to Fr. Patrick Henry Reardon1, the spelling difference is inconsequential. The spelling difference does not change the meaning and has more to do with transliteration (from Greek) than trans …
Dan's user avatar
  • 9,048