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Understanding the grammar of the source texts; this tag should be accompanied by the appropriate language tag.
1
vote
What is the meaning of εἰς τὸ ἐκείνου θέλημα in 2 Tim 2:26 - the will of the devil, or the w...
I would render 2 Timothy 2:25-26 as:
25 In humility, correcting those who oppose -- lest at some time God should give them a change of heart regarding the knowledge of the truth -- 26 that they mi …
1
vote
Why does Psalm 103:8 use the dual form of אַפַּ֣יִם (anger)?
The plural form used here is a Hebrew idiom that depicts "anger" as "flared nostrils".
( masc., אף / aph ) Translation: NOSE Definition: The organ bearing the nostrils on the anterior of the face. …
1
vote
How does the fact that the Father is the “only true God” (Θεός) at J 17:3 in a convertible p...
Who is the "only true" Thomas Pearne?
Is he the bag of bones preferring to keep an air of mystery about himself, who, presumably, walks about somewhere on the planet? What does it matter? His "flesh …
-5
votes
Where does "by the mercy shown to you" belong in Romans 11:31?
The context of Romans 11:31
Paul is endeavouring to explain Israel's blindness:
For I would not, brethren, that ye should be ignorant of this mystery, lest ye should be wise in your own conceits; …
0
votes
Whose נְבָלָ֔ה in Job 42:8?
My own translation of Job 42:8 reads:
Now take seven bulls and seven rams and go to my servant Job. You shall offer a burnt offering for yourselves, and Job my servant will pray for you. Him only …
1
vote
Accepted
In John 5:39 is ἐραυνᾶτε ("search") indicative, imperative or both?
I would render John 5:39 this way:
The context makes it unmistakably clear that ἐραυνᾶτε is Jesus' observation about the current occupation of those to whom he is speaking, not his instruction for t …
0
votes
Grammatically, is 2 Timothy 3:16-17 inclusive or exclusive?
I would translate 2 Timothy 3:16-17 like this:
16All scripture is God-breathed, and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for training one in righteousness, 17that he should be whole, …
-1
votes
Why did angels speak a sentence of eleven words without a verb?
The reason there is no verb is: that's simply the nature of such official proclamations.
For example, at any official event where the Queen of England makes an entry, it would be typical to hear the …
3
votes
What does Cain say to Abel in Genesis 4:8?
There is no compelling reason to believe something has been omitted from the text. Here is what I get from the Hebrew:
So Cain spoke with his brother Abel, but as they came into a field Cain then …
0
votes
1 Corinthians 13:8 - What is the Significance of the Intransitive verb "παύσονται"?
The use of γλῶσσαι in this verse is in relation to language in general. Language in our realm of existence is a barrier to oneness, regardless of whether it be human language or angelic utterance.
Pa …
7
votes
Does Romans 9:5 assert the deity of Christ?
At the root of the punctuation problem in Romans 9:5 is the notion of "the nature of God", and those who struggle with a rational understanding of how God is constituted can't help but get hung up on …
-1
votes
How should Revelation 11:15 be translated (so the implied pronoun and expressed referent agr...
Revelation 11:15
Here is what I get from the Greek:
Then the seventh angel sounded and loud voices arose in heaven, saying, "The realm of the world has been made that of our Lord and of his Christ, a …