Questions tagged [cessationism]

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1 Corinthians 13:10 - Should “The Perfect” Be Interpreted in an Eschatological Sense?

1. Question - Regarding Greek Grammar, the Subjunctive "ὅταν": In 1 Corinthians 13:10 - Should "The Coming of the Perfect" be interpreted in an "Eschatological Sense" - in view of the World? Perhaps ...
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4answers
594 views

1 Corinthians 13:10 - What Will Cease when “The Perfect” Comes?

1. Question - Greek Grammar and Syntax Setting aside doctrinal arguments - are there any grammatical indications that may clarify what will "will cease", (or be "nullified") - when "the perfect comes"...
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2answers
153 views

1 Corinthians 13:9 - How Should “Out Of” Be Translated?

1. Question - Reference Request, and Textual Basis: In 1 Corinthians 13:10 - Why is " ἐκ | out of " left out of the translation? Are there any period texts that also have similar constructions? ...
7
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3answers
422 views

1 Corinthians 13:8 - What is the Significance of the Intransitive verb “παύσονται”?

In 1 Corinthians 13:8, The Greek word, "παύσονται | intransitive future middle" appears as the indicative of the Greek verb παύω (pauō, "to cease"). Does the form, tense, and mood of this particular ...
8
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5answers
1k views

1 Corinthians 13:9-10 - What Does “ἐκ μέρους” Mean?

In 1 Corinthians 13:9-10 - What does "ἐκ μέρους" mean here? Is Paul talking about "knowing only partially" (i.e. incomplete knowledge), or "knowing as only part of the body" (i.e. of Christ), as in ...
7
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14answers
5k views

1 Corinthians 13:10 - What does “The Perfect” Refer to?

1. Question: In 1 Cor 13:10, what does "The Perfect, (τὸ τέλειον)" refer to, and how would it have understood at the time it was written - not 500 years later? 1 Cor. 13:10, NASB - 10 but when "...
8
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4answers
4k views

1 Corinthians 13:10 - What does Paul mean by “Completeness”?

What are the meanings given the original Greek word? NIV, 1 Corinthians 13:8-10 - Love never fails. But where there are prophecies, they will cease; where there are tongues, they will be stilled; ...