I've heard this theory before, but I'm trying to find a reliable source to cite. In English, sometimes we say things like, "when in Rome..." and expect our hearers to complete the figure of speech in their heads. Does Jesus have a tendency to quote OT scripture and leave off the end with the expectation that his followers will finish the sentence (or passage) from memory, possibly giving significance to the unspoken part of the statement?
For example, in Luke 4:19 while reading from Isaiah, he says "to proclaim the year of the Lord’s favor..." but leaves off the rest of the verse about the day of vengeance of our God. And when Jesus is talking to the disciples of John about whether he is "the one to come," he gives a list of Messianic indicators from Isaiah (healing the blind, raising the dead, preaching the good news to the poor) but notably leaves off any reference to setting the captives free, which John might understand to mean that it is not the purpose of Jesus' ministry to free John from prison.
Is there anything to this theory? Should we consider the things Jesus notably leaves unsaid when he quotes scripture? Are there examples of this technique being used in other parts of scripture? And are there any scholarly sources that discuss this?