Before I can arrive at a conclusion, or even make comment on a recent question asked in Stack Christianity, I need clarification on the Greek text of two scriptures. The matter relates to both God the Father and the Son of God being called “Saviour” throughout the Bible. The question is whether this means that the Bible advocates two Saviours (if the Father created the Son, therefore ruling out them having the one Being of God) or whether both the Father and the Son are, without contradiction, the one Saviour of mankind that the Bible presents God as being (e.g. Isaiah 43:11 ‘I – I am Jehovah, and besides me there is no savior.’ (New World Translation i.e. N.W.T.)
In some answers already given on the ‘Christianity’ site, it would appear that the explanation given by advocates of the N.W.T. depends (to a critical degree) on whether the N.W.T. has correctly translated the two verses below. I quote the entire paragraph, for the sake of context, in the article entitled ‘How Many Saviors Do You Have?’ which advocates of the N.W.T. cited in support of their answers. [Awake! 22nd October 1976 pp 27-28]
But what about Jesus Christ? He, too, cannot be spoken of as being a Savior besides Jehovah, that is, as a rival of his Father. The Scriptures clearly establish that Jesus’ role as Savior was assigned to him by his Father. The Christian apostle John wrote: “We ourselves have beheld and are bearing witness that the Father has sent forth his Son as Savior of the world.” (1 John 4:14) Aged Simeon, on seeing the babe Jesus at the temple, exclaimed: “Now, Sovereign Lord, you are letting your slave go free in peace according to your declaration; because my eyes have seen your means of saving.”—Luke 2:29, 30. [Source https://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/101976768#h=8 ]
The concluding paragraph of that article is quoted below, again for clarity and context as to the interpretation applied by advocates of the N.W.T.:
The testimony of the Bible as a whole thus makes it clear that there is but one Savior, Jehovah God. All others who have rightly been called saviors, including Jesus Christ, are not rival saviors. Rather, they were willing to be used by Jehovah God in this capacity. Hence, those desiring to gain divine approval must acknowledge that salvation proceeds from the Father through his Son, the Lord Jesus Christ. [Source https://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/101976768#h=13 ]
However, when I compared the Interlinear of the N.W.T. with that for the A.V. I notice differences in the literal English. For 1 John 4:14 the N.W.T. (Greek Interlinear, abbreviation is K.I.T.) literally reads in English:
And we have viewed and we are bearing witness that the Father has sent off the Son Savior of the world.
But the A.V. (Interlinear Greek Nestle text, literal English of Dr Alfred Marshall) has:
And we have beheld and bear witness that the Father has sent the Son [as] Saviour of the world.
Note the square brackets around ‘as’, indicating that word has been added. It is not actually in the Greek text. I ask, regarding this verse, does the literal Greek state “the Son saviour of the world”?
The other verse in Luke 2:30 has Simeon saying of the baby Jesus (in the KIT),
because saw the eyes of me the means of saving of you…
However, the A.V. literal English reads,
because saw the eyes of me the salvation of thee…
I ask, regarding this verse, does the literal Greek state “means of”?
As I have no knowledge of biblical Greek or the ability to reproduce the Greek text here, I crave your patience for reading my preamble to my two questions, and that you would answer in a way that would help me form a conclusion about the initial question that got me thinking, namely, https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/67761/do-jehovahs-witnesses-have-one-saviour-or-two/67833#67833 However, I am NOT seeking comment on THAT question as I only want clarification on my two questions about two verses of scripture, namely, 1 John 4:14 and Luke 2:30.