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Isaiah 42:1-4 referenced again in Matthew 12:18. Similar to the descending of God’s Spirit on Jesus at his baptism (Matthew 3). I don’t understand how to explain this in alignment with the Trinity doctrine.

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  • Welcome to BHSX. Thanks for your question and joining the group. Please remember to take the tour (link bottom left) to better understand how this site works.
    – Dottard
    Feb 20 at 20:36
  • 1
    The anointing of Jesus is essential to the doctrine of the trinity but that is not the purpose of this site. This question, in it present for would be better in Christianity SX.
    – Dottard
    Feb 20 at 20:37
  • It is The Christ who is the anointed. And The Christ is manifested in humanity. It would be incorrect wording to say that the Son of God is 'anointed'. Anointing. from above, presupposes that which is below.
    – Nigel J
    Feb 20 at 21:29
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    Christ means anoint. Messiah is a transliteration of the Hebrew Masheach which means anoint. If Jesus had not been anointed He would not be the Christ, the Messiah, the Masheach. Feb 20 at 21:46

6 Answers 6

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Jesus was fully human

  • Traditions flowing from before the Greek-Roman split about AD 1054 believe that Jesus's divinity and Jesus's humanity are not mutually exclusive. Usually this is in the form of Trinity or Oneness traditions. That is not in question here; it is either presumed or rejected. My answer presumes this.
  • This question is about why Jesus needs to do things humans do if Jesus is fully God.
  • My answer uses this as another reason why Jesus's divinity and humanity are not mutually exclusive.

Jesus's obedience

Matthew 3:14-15 (NASB, emphasis added)

14 But John tried to prevent Him, saying, “I have need to be baptized by You, and do You come to me?” 15 But Jesus answering said to him, “Permit it at this time; for in this way it is fitting for us to fulfill all righteousness.” Then he permitted Him.

...or to fulfill all justice, which addresses the sacraficial law matters at the Cross, among others.

...Paul answers the same question as the OP because NT readers were also as curious as John was...

Philippians 2:8 (NASB, emphasis added)

Being found in appearance as a man, He humbled Himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross.

...appearance as a man from σχήματι εὑρεθεὶς ὡς ἄνθρωπος (SBLGNT) could mean being found as man...

This cuts to the core: Jesus, as a human, was obedient.


In ideas about the "hypostatic union" Jesus wasn't here to be a "superman". He truly was one of us in every way. Nothing excluded him from everything that any human would need to do.

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  • #Jesse. You are imposing on Jesus what he refused. How is God remain fully God if he emptied himself. How can he be one of us in every way if he is fully God? Feb 24 at 0:08
  • @AlexBalilo If you want to post your answer, you may. If you want to talk about the arguments for and against your statement, do a search on Christianity.SE.
    – Jesse
    Feb 24 at 7:33
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Surely the clue is in Matthew ch12 v28; "If it is by the Spirit of God that I cast out demons..." Jesus was walking around Judah as a man, and therefore the Spirit presumably provided the more divine powers that he needed in his work.

One aspect of the doctrine of the Trinity is that Christ is fully God AND fully man, in conjunction, so the humanity of Jesus and the attendant limitations does not conflict with it in the slightest.

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  • Where in the bible does it say the Christ is fully God AND fully man? Feb 21 at 1:47
  • Start a thread Alex and I will be happy to tell and show you!
    – Mr. Bond
    Feb 21 at 2:50
  • @Mr.Bond. I am fine commenting. Are you happy to tell and show me in a comment? Feb 21 at 4:21
  • @AlexBalilo No, the comment section is not enough for my explanation. I would be happy to take this conversation to chat.
    – Mr. Bond
    Feb 21 at 5:01
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    I agree with Alex; it doesn't say that anywhere. And as a general principle, if you need a long, involved discourse to answer a short, simple question, chances are you don't have an answer. Long discourses mainly divert attention from the thrust of a short, simple question, the goal being to confuse the asker of the question.
    – moron
    Feb 24 at 8:36
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Simple answer: Because Jesus is NOT God!

Nowhere in the Bible does Jesus ever say that he is God, or that there is more than one God. Here are 10 reasons among many more that prove the Unitarian truth of Scripture:

  1. Because Jesus Christ is represented by the sacred writers to be as distinct a being from God the Father as one man is distinct from another. “It is written in your law, that the testimony of two men is true. I am one who bear witness of myself, and the Father that sent me beareth witness of me,” John 8:17, 18.

  2. Because he not only never said that himself was God, but, on the contrary, spoke of the Father, who sent him, as God, and as the only God. “This is life eternal, that they might know Thee, the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom thou hast sent,” John 17:3. This language our Saviour used in solemn prayer to “his Father and our Father.”

  3. Because he is declared, in unnumbered instances, to be the Son of God. “And lo, a voice from heaven, saying, this is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased,” Matt. 3:17. Can a son be coeval and the same with his father?

  4. Because he is styled the Christ, or the anointed of God. “God anointed Jesus of Nazareth with the Holy Ghost and with power,” Acts 10:38. Is he who anoints the same with him who is anointed?

  5. Because he is represented as a Priest. “Consider the ….High-Priest of our profession, Christ Jesus,” Heb. 3:1. The office of a priest is to minister to God. Christ, then, as a priest, cannot be God.

  6. Because Christ is Mediator between the “One God,” and “men.” “For there is one God, and one Mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus,” 1 Tim. 2:5.

  7. Because, as the Saviour of men, he was sent by the Father. “And we have seen and do testify that the Father sent the Son to be the Saviour of the world. 1 John 4:14.

  8. Because he is an Apostle appointed by God. “Consider the Apostle,…Christ Jesus, who was faithful to him that appointed him,” Heb. 3:1, 2.

  9. Because Christ is represented as our intercessor with God. “It is Christ that died, yea, rather, that is risen again, who is even at the right hand of God, who also maketh intercession for us,” Rom. 8:34.

  10. Because the head of Christ is God. “I would have you know, that the head of every man is Christ; and the head of every woman is the man; and the head of Christ is God,” 1 Cor. 11:3.

The entire Bible is unitarian, and wholly perfect.

Jesus is the Anointed One, the Son of the Living God. He is the viceroy of God and the mediator between God and man, who intercedes for us before the Father.

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  • Comments have been moved to chat
    – Jesse
    Feb 22 at 1:09
  • But, he claimed to be God the Burning Bush of Moses in John 8:48-59 Jesus said to them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was born, I am.” Therefore they picked up stones to throw at Him. These verses can be interpreted other ways. But, there is some reasoning behind this answer to explain how some people view this, so it certainly can stay.
    – Jesse
    Feb 22 at 15:44
  • Dear all: This answers a hermeneutica question with a Bible-verse theology idea. It could draw some disagreement. Keep comments few and short so they don't need to be moved again.
    – Jesse
    Feb 22 at 15:47
  • @Jesse, the Angel of the LORD (Jesus) is the viceroy of God, which means that he personally relays messages from God to man and can speak to man as though he is God despite not actually being God, because God has given his Son the authority to do so as his only-begotten. This is why Jacob was puzzled that he "saw God and lived"; because he saw the face of God though the face of his Son. Thereby he was given the new name of Israel, for he had died to the old and became alive in the new working of God in his life.
    – Joshua B
    Feb 22 at 17:30
  • You're talking about Arianism, which is theology, which we don't discuss on this site. You can, however, discuss that on Christianity.SE: What are the biblical arguments against Arianism?.
    – Jesse
    Feb 22 at 17:42
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He had to receive a bigger portion of Elijah's share of power, to be the next Elisha. Elisha described his 12 yoke of oxen for a new way of living, following God's plan closer. 12 tribes, 12 oxen holding the bronze sea at the temple, 12 stars in Revelation. It's about the same lineal legacy but through a remnant and new covenant (same paradigm with new particulars).

Also Christ was human, he carried God's essence but was ordained to be the perfect human and a vessel to allow God to suffer and/or empathize with us beyond outside observation (he could manifest however he wanted before but didn't have "skin in the game". I think Christ was a human body for the Angel of the Lord, didn't have an autonomous human soul. God can't die and isn't corporeal, but if he made a corporeal conventional human body (he did as Messiah) and martyred it, then he saw and felt everything he demanded of his people and specifically copied the patterns of his prophets and champions (many were nazirite miracle babies and proto christs, he built his own lineage through a nation and specific bloodlines).

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Here is something interesting that might help give a different understanding as to why God is putting His Spirit on him.

I have seen this same scripture say,

"Lo"!my boy who I prefer! My beloved, and whom my soul delights! I shall be placing My spirit on him, ... CLT

This is what that word often translated as servant means.

  1. pais ► Strong's Concordance pais: a child, boy, youth Original Word: παῖς, παιδός, ὁ, ἡ Part of Speech: Noun, Feminine; Noun, Masculine Transliteration: pais Phonetic Spelling: (paheece) Definition: a child, boy, youth Usage: (a) a male child, boy, (b) a male slave, servant; thus: a servant of God, especially as a title of the Messiah, (c) a female child, girl.

Now, if you tie that in to a few verses later, it might open up even more understanding as to why the Spirit is upon him.

Then was brought to him a demoniac, blind and dumb, and he healed him, so that the blind and dumb both spake and saw. And all the multitudes were amazed, and said, ‘

"Is this the Son of David?’

But the Pharisees having heard, said, ‘This one doth not cast out demons, except by Beelzeboul, ruler of the demons.’

The story goes on to show that if it was the by Spirit of God, then the kingdom of God has come upon you. Mathew 12:22

So, with all that being said, a few things that are revealed through God's Spirit upon this son, is God's soul delighted in him , that this son in front of them was chosen by God.

It also made the crowd wonder if this was the son of David that was being revealed to them.

Through Jesus own words he had demonstrated that it was by the Spirit upon him by healing, a demon possessed man who was both blind and dumb. His healing was evident because he could now could now speak and see.

It was to reveal to Israel at that kingdom of God, was right there in front of them, because God's Spirit was upon this son which we know is God's not only God's son but as David son also.

God Spirit is upon him, and by overcoming the head of demons, was proof of who this son of David was. They were having a foretaste of the kingdom of God.


>And the multitudes that went before, and that followed, cried, saying, Hosanna to the Son of David: Blessed is he that cometh in the name of the Lord; Hosanna in the highest. Matthew 21:9

“Blessed is the kingdom of our father David that is coming in the name of the Lord!” “Hosanna in the highest!” Mark 11:10

So going back to half of the question why did God the Father need to anoint Jesus with his Spirit in the context of Mathew 12:18.

I would say it was to show Israel that this was the son of David, who was anointed by God, by his spirit.

Here is something from got questions which gives more understanding as to why that is so important.

The Davidic Covenant refers to God’s promises to David through Nathan the prophet and is found in 2 Samuel 7 and later summarized in 1 Chronicles 17:11–14 and 2 Chronicles 6:16. This is an unconditional covenant made between God and David through which God promises David and Israel that the Messiah (Jesus Christ) would come from the lineage of David and the tribe of Judah and would establish a kingdom that would endure forever. The Davidic Covenant is unconditional because God does not place any conditions of obedience upon its fulfillment. The surety of the promises made rests solely on God’s faithfulness and does not depend at all on David or Israel’s obedience.

The Davidic Covenant centers on several key promises that are made to David. First, God reaffirms the promise of the land that He made in the first two covenants with Israel (the Abrahamic and Mosaic Covenants). This promise is seen in 2 Samuel 7:10, “I will provide a place for my people Israel and will plant them so that they can have a home of their own and no longer be disturbed. Wicked people will not oppress them anymore.” God then promises that David’s son will succeed him as king of Israel and that this son (Solomon) would build the temple. This promise is seen in 2 Samuel 7:12–13, " I will raise up your offspring to succeed you, your own flesh and blood, and I will establish his kingdom. He is the one who will build a house for my Name.”

But then the promise continues and expands: “I will establish the throne of his kingdom forever” (verse 13), and “Your house and your kingdom will endure forever before me; your throne will be established forever” (verse 16). What began as a promise that David’s son Solomon would be blessed and build the temple turns into something different—the promise of an everlasting kingdom. Another Son of David would rule forever and build a lasting House. This is a reference to the Messiah, Jesus Christ, called the Son of David in Matthew 21:9.

The promise that David’s “house,” “kingdom,” and “throne” will be established forever is significant because it shows that the Messiah will come from the lineage of David and that He will establish a kingdom from which He will reign. The covenant is summarized by the words “house,” promising a dynasty in the lineage of David; “kingdom,” referring to a people who are governed by a king; “throne,” emphasizing the authority of the king’s rule; and “forever,” emphasizing the eternal and unconditional nature of this promise to David and Israel.

Other references to the Davidic Covenant are found in Jeremiah 23:5; 30:9; Isaiah 9:7; 11:1; Luke 1:32, 69; Acts 13:34; and Rev 3:7

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Answer

It is rather a simple answer if we closely follow the pure Scripture instead of the “sophisticated and cunning” (Mat 11:25) philosophers of the world.

God the Father needed to anoint Jesus with His Spirit “because Christ Jesus EMPTIED HIMSELF” of His infinite Godhead and became FULLY a human being (Philip 2:6-8).

Explanation

FIRST (Phil 2:6)

Jesus Christ was the powerful Yahweh of the Old Testament before His Incarnation. God the Father never interacted with the human kind directly (John 1:18; 6:46; 1 John 4:12) except through Jesus Christ (Gen 19:24; Hosea 1:7).

In Genesis 19:24, we see Yahweh on earth raining brimstone and fire from Yahweh out of the heavens.

Hosea 1:7 is also intriguing. Here Yahweh says that He will save the Jews by their Yahweh God!

What is significant is that the verse does not talk about the house of Israel but only about the house of Judah, that is, the Jews. And Jesus came to the Jews!

Hosea 1:7:

“And I (Jehovah) will have mercy on the house of Judah (only Jews; not the house of Israel – verse 6) and will save them by Jehovah THEIR God.

Yahweh says He will save the Jews through their God Yahweh!

And Jesus came to the Jews.

SECOND (Phil 2:7-8)

But, one time in history, Christ Jesus emptied His great infinite Godhead and fully became a human being.

Do not misunderstand me: Jesus, even when He was a man, was God Himself but without any divine attributes. He left His Godly glory with the Father (John 17:5).

"Emptied" is not an empty word. It has a meaning. It means He left His power! Jesus was not a "hybrid" Being.

Now Jesus is fully a mortal man. Anybody could kill Him with a knife and the Romans did kill Him. He hungered (Mat 4:2), felt thirsty (john 19:28), became tired and slept (Mat 8:24) etc.

He prayed to God His Father with great cries and tears (Heb 5:7). He didn’t have His former infinite knowledge (Mark 13:32). He did miracles with the power from God the Father (John 5:30). He possessed great authority (Mat 7:29; 9:6) but He did everything through the Holy Spirit (Mat 12:28).

THIS IS WHY JESUS NEEDED AN ANOINTING OF THE SPIRIT!

THIRD (Phil 2:9-11)

After the Resurrection, Jesus received back the same glory He shared with God the Father before the foundation of the world, that is, His “emptied” Godhead was restored to Him by God the Father (John 17:5).

What is funny is that God the Almighty Father does not have any problem in calling Jesus as the Creator God who created everything (Heb 1:10-12). But some people do not like this idea and disagree with God the Father making Him a liar (1 John 5:10)!

Conclusion

Jesus is God in flesh (1 Tim 3:16) but without the Godly attributes. He fully depended on God the Father as a faithful Son.

Hence, He, a complete human being, required an anointing of the Holy Spirit.

[Some people, without understanding the inspired Word of God ask funny questions, like: how God can die, How God has blood, why God prays to God etc. Well, Philippians 2:6- 11 gives the plain answer]

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