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First of all, the answer is possible, but needs some effort. I am not overhasty, take your time. I think the honest answer will direct us toward the most accurate translation to the most accurate Original text.

Two great English translations of the Bible, i.e: king James version (KJV) and Douay-Rheims Bible (DRB).

There are Critical differences between the two great translations. For example:

  • Luke 10:1: seventy in KJV, and seventy two in DRB.
  • 1 Timothy 1:17; "wise" in KJV, no "wise" in DRB.
  • Jude 1:25; "wise" in KJV, no "wise" in DRB.

As we see, these are Critical differences, critically affect understanding of the Bible.

What are the most Textual Differences between the two great translations?

Depending on Textual Criticism, what is the most accurate translation: KJV or DRB?

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    How is sending out 72 rather than 70 ahead of Jesus, critical to our understanding of the bible? Again "only God" suggests there is no other to seek out, and "only wise God" suggests you'd be a fool to seek out any other. There is no issue here. – enegue Mar 27 at 10:16
  • @enegue the text of the Bible beside being talking about historical events, it is also for prophecy, So it must be accurate 100%. Numbers should be accurate a 100%, also Names should be accurate. – salah Mar 27 at 10:27
  • Do you see Luke 10:1 as prophetic, or 1 Timothy 1:17, or Jude 1:25? Or do you see these verses as an answer to prophecy from the Old Testament? – enegue Mar 27 at 17:15
  • @enegue any verse may be prophetic, any word may be prophetic. The Bible is Dynamic not Static. The Bible is about the future, and to some extent about the past. But it's mainly about the future. – salah Mar 27 at 20:15
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    Salah, your unsupported opinion that Luke 10:1, 1 Timothy 1:17 and Jude 1:25 may be prophetic, is insufficient evidence to support your view that differences in the Greek from which the English translations of these verses come "critically affect understanding of the Bible" The only answer you have to your question has 5 upvotes, and his conclusion is "It is not really possible to answer which translation is more accurate", which implies these verses couldn't possibly "critically affect understanding of the Bible" You are straining at gnats. – enegue Mar 27 at 20:59
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The Douay-Rheims Bible is a translation into English from the Latin Vulgate, which dates to a translation from Hebrew (most of the Old Testament) and Greek (New Testament and some Old Testament deuterocanonical books, or "apocrypha") into Latin by Jerome (347-420). It was first published in 1582.

The King James Version is a translation into English from the Masoretic Hebrew text, which dates from the 7th century AD or so, and a set of Greek manuscripts that came from Eastern Orthodox sources that were available at the time in Switzerland, through the Dutch scholar Erasmus (1466-1536). The Greek manuscripts compiled by Erasmus dated from the 11th to the 15th century AD. It was first published in 1611. Like the Douay-Rheims, it included Old Testament deuterocanonical books.

It is not really possible to answer which translation is more accurate, since they are translating different manuscripts.

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  • thank you for your answer, but I think it is easy to mention some basic textual difference, like the three differences I mentioned in the post. – salah Mar 24 at 18:12
  • It is not really possible to answer which translation is more accurate, since they are translating different manuscripts. Vice Versa it's possible to answer which translation is more accurate, since they are translating different manuscripts. If we knew which original Greek manuscripts are more accurate, then it is easy to know KJV or DRB is more accurate. – salah Mar 27 at 11:02
  • Thank you for your comments. I am sorry for my delay in responding. I have given what you said some thought and have some ideas for amending my answer. I can't get to it now, but I will try to do so in the next day or so. سلام – user33515 Mar 27 at 11:19

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