KJV of Jude 1:4 declares that God is the only lord, beside the lord Jesus Christ, i.e: it may means that the only Lord is God the father, beside the lord Jesus Christ.
Like KJV, also, World English Bible and Young's Literal Translation.
Douay-Rheims Bible (DRB), doesn't mention God again, but it is clear that it's like KJV i.e: DRB includes one description to Jesus.
In other translations, they declare that Jesus Christ is both: Master and Lord.
Thus, it's clear that there's difference between the two translations.
Jude 1:4 (KJV):
- For there are certain men crept in unawares, who were before of old ordained to this condemnation, ungodly men, turning the grace of our God into lasciviousness, and denying the only Lord God, and our Lord Jesus Christ.
Jude 1:4 (DRB):
For certain men are secretly entered in, (who were written of long ago unto this judgment,) ungodly men, turning the grace of our Lord God into riotousness, and denying the only sovereign Ruler, and our Lord Jesus Christ.
It's clear that DRB mentioned the word "God" one time only, but it seems like KJV.
Jude 1:4 (ASV):
- For there are certain men crept in privily, {cf15i even} they who were of old written of beforehand unto this condemnation, ungodly men, turning the grace of our God into lasciviousness, and denying our only Master and Lord, Jesus Christ.
Jude 1:4 (GNT):
- παρεισέδυσαν γάρ τινες ἄνθρωποι, οἱ πάλαι προγεγραμμένοι εἰς τοῦτο τὸ κρῖμα, ἀσεβεῖς, τὴν τοῦ Θεοῦ ἡμῶν χάριτα μετατιθέντες εἰς ἀσέλγειαν καὶ τὸν μόνον δεσπότην καὶ Κύριον ἡμῶν ᾿Ιησοῦν Χριστὸν ἀρνούμενοι.
So, what is the most accurate (original Greek text), and (translation) of the verse?