Was the LXX used in Palestine in the First Century?

Question

It is recorded that Jesus read from the Septuagint in the synagogue during His ministry. As an example, Luke 4:16-20 has Jesus reading from an Isaiah scroll in a synagogue, and the text provided appears to be a mixture of the Greek and Hebrew texts.

The Hebrew of Isa. 61:2 reads merely “the opening to them that are bound,” which may mean the opening of prisons. Luke in 4:18 follows the Septuagint interpretation, “the recovering of sight to the blind,” in which the “opening” is of blind eyes, but adds “to set at liberty the afflicted” as an alternative interpretation of the Hebrew. The phrase “to bind up the broken-hearted” (Septuagint “to heal the broken-hearted”) has been left out of the quotation.

Is there any other evidence that the LXX was used in the synagogues within Israel, either in the inter-testamental period or during the period of Jesus's ministry?

First of all, it would be surprising if a copy of the LXX scriptures would have been found in a Palestinian synagogue, where it would have sat alongside the Hebrew scriptures, and it is the Hebrew scriptures that were considered sacred. Moreover, those opposed to Jesus would quickly have realised that his reading was inconsistent with the Hebrew scriptures and could have used this against him. If Jesus read the LXX, then he would have been reading in Greek, and then it is moot whether Palestinian Jews would be likely to understand. — Dick Harfield, Commented Apr 22, 2016 at 7:15
I kind of disagree with the original question closure here on BH and have migrated the closed version from C.SE back here and tweaked it a little. More refinement could probably be done but this is squarely in the area of expertise of this site. If there are further objections to it here it's probably worth opening a Biblical Hermeneutics Meta post about it. — Caleb, Commented Apr 22, 2016 at 11:02
@DickHarfield To me Greek and Aramaic 'replaced' Hebrew in much the same way Latin faded from the Catholic mass in the 60's. Josephus, who was a Pharisee and Governor of Galilee if I'm not mistaken, wrote in and was skilled in Greek. Speaking of inscriptions "In Jerusalem itself about 40 percent of the Jewish inscriptions from the first century period (before 70 C.E.) are in Greek. (W. Van Der Horst, "Jewish Funerary Inscriptions - Most Are in Greek," Biblical Archaeology Review, Sept.-Oct. 1992, p. 48.) So Greek would have been common in Jerusalem. This my question... — Tonyg, Commented Apr 22, 2016 at 11:53
"It is recorded that Jesus read from the Septuagint in the synagogue during His ministry." -- I'm not sure that's a totally straightforward conclusion to draw from the text, but I think it's an interesting question. Feel free to roll back whatever you don't like, but speculation about later revisionism seemed to me out of place here. — Susan, Commented Apr 22, 2016 at 12:33
Just so you know -- on this site answers will not be required to share your commitment to the connection between Luke's writing and Jesus's words (and those who do share this sort of commitment may well find this kind of thing within bounds). Also keep in mind that just because we have exactly two versions of Isaiah (Hebrew [MT=DSS here] | Greek), that wasn't necessarily the situation in the 1st C. — Susan, Commented Apr 22, 2016 at 12:57

R. Brown · Accepted Answer · 2016-05-14 12:08:54Z

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