Questions tagged [septuagint]
The Koine Greek translation of the Jewish Scriptures; often abbreviated "LXX".
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Why does the KJV say “people perish” in Pr. 29:18?
Can anyone tell me why the KJV translates the Hebrew words yipara am as “people perish” in Pr. 29:18? (The Hebrew word am means people and yipara means unrestrained.) Other translations render yipara ...
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Reading the oldest version of the Septuagint
Will you direct me to the oldest version online or in any library of the Septuagint bible? In your opinion for some of the ones we have available today, are they accurate in bible study?
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Psalm 96 (95) Why does the LXX translate אלילים as δαιμόνια?
Psalm 96 (95) v. 5
(Westminister Leningrad Codex) כִּ֤י ׀ כָּל־אֱלֹהֵ֣י הָעַמִּ֣ים אֱלִילִ֑ים וַֽ֝יהוָ֗ה שָׁמַ֥יִם עָשָֽׂה׃
(LXX) ὅτι πάντες οἱ θεοὶ τῶν ἐθνῶν δαιμόνια, ὁ δὲ κύριος τοὺς ...
3
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In the Shema, how should we understand “with all your strength” when the Hebrew word מְאֹ֑ד is rarely used this way?
In Deuteronomy 6:5, the Hebrew text reads "and with all your might"(ESV). Most English translations take this as "strength" or "might." The LXX uses a common word for power/strength/might and Mark's ...
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1answer
36 views
In Isaiah 1:3 LXX, what is “τὸν κτησάμενον”?
The word is not found in BDAG because it is only used in the OT, not in the NT.However, this is what the other Lexicons have:
https://logeion.uchicago.edu/κτάομαι
[Isa 1:3 LXX] (3) ἔγνω βοῦς τὸν ...
6
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3answers
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Why did St. Jerome use “virago” in Gen. 2:23?
Why did St. Jerome use virago ("a man-like woman") to translate אשה in Gen. 2:23, when the LXX uses γυνή (woman)?
And Adam said: This now is bone of my bones, and flesh of my flesh; she shall be ...
2
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0answers
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In the Lamentations 4:21-22 (LXX), what is the significance of using Ιδουμαίας and then Εδωμ to identify the daughter of Edom?
In Lamentations, the phrase "daughter of Edom" is repeated in consecutive verses:
Rejoice and be glad, O daughter of Edom,
you who dwell in the land of Uz;
but to you also the cup shall ...
2
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1answer
51 views
How were Paleo-Hebrew words in the Greek Septuagint fragments treated?
In certain old fragments of the Greek Septuagint the name of YHWH alone is written in paleo-Hebrew letters.
I’m a novice at Greek, but isn’t it necessary for all proper nouns and names to be written ...
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In Acts 15:12-19 what in Amos convinces James about the gentiles not needing Torah?
[Act 15:12-19 CSB] (12) The whole assembly became silent and listened to Barnabas and Paul describe all the signs and wonders God had done through them among the Gentiles. (13) After they stopped ...
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76 views
In Psalm 139:17: רֵעֶיךָ: „thoughts” or „friends”?
In Psalm 139:17, most of the Eglish versions would go like this:
Psalm 139:17 How precious to me are your thoughts, God! (NIV)
For the Hebrew:
Psalm 139:17 וְלִי מַה־יָּקְרוּ רֵעֶיךָ אֵל מֶה ...
2
votes
1answer
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In 2 Samuel 12:25, what is Solomon's alternate name in the Septuagint and what does it mean?
The KJV (mainly Hebrew?) reads, "And he sent by the hand of Nathan the prophet; and he called his name Jedidiah, because of the LORD."
The Septuagint (e-Sword) reads, "και απεστειλεν εν χειρι ναθαν ...
2
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1answer
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Why does the LXX occcassionally have “fear God” instead of “fear the Lord” in Proverbs?
The fear of the LORD (YHVH) is found throughout Proverbs. In the KJV, the exact phrase occurs 14 times; twice it is feareth the LORD; once fear the LORD and once fear thou the LORD.
What I find ...
2
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2answers
129 views
Is unclean ακαθαρτος / ακαθαρτον in the NT the same as in the OT LXX of the Law (Pentateuch)?
In reading the New Testament Epistles the words rooted in ακαθαρτ translated 'unclean' in the KJV are listed among sinful actions:
Ephesians 5:5 For this ye know, that no whoremonger, nor unclean
...
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1answer
116 views
1 Maccabees timeline, “years”
I am reading 1 Maccabees and understand that these events took place around 150 B.C. In the book, the years progress upwards ex. from 150 to to 160.
What timeline were the authors of this book going ...
6
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4answers
247 views
What is the difference between “logos ( λόγος )” in 1 Corinthians 12:8 and “rhema ( ῥήματος)” in Matthew 26:75?
What is the difference between "logos ( λόγος )" in 1 Corinthians 12:8 and "rhema ( ῥήματος)" in Matthew 26:75?
There is a background to this question.
This article "Rhema and Logos: There Is No ...
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1answer
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Does the postfixed χ in Jewish Greek transliterations simply denote the aleph, i.e. vs. other vowels?
The Hebrew א and the Greek χ (especially in their typical manuscript form) look very similar. 'Jewish Greek' (Septuagintic/Diaspora/NT Greek) already being an insiders language (inasmuch it's ...
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2answers
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MT “will strike” & LXX “will watch carefully” (Gen 3:15)?
I haven't seen this question asked at all in the threads I've searched, so this shouldn't be a duplicate.
I've been looking for answers about God's curse over the serpent in Gen 3:15. The question I ...
2
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1answer
70 views
Does the Septuagint more accurately translate Genesis 15:6 than English translations?
Genesis 15:6 :
... and he counted it to him for righteousness. KJV.
... and He reckoneth it to him -- righteousness. Young's Literal.
... And He counted it to him for righteousness. Green'...
6
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4answers
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Can a joint meaning of 'word of death' be derived for Isaiah 9:7 / 9:8 on account of the different words used in the Greek LXX and Hebrew Texts?
I would like to see some answers as to the discrepancy between the Hebrew and the LXX Greek Text concerning the subject matter of what is read in verse 8 of the KJV, but in other translations it can ...
3
votes
1answer
77 views
Translation of “Chesed” in the Septuagint, LXX
My question is about the Greek word that was used to translate "chesed" Psalm 136:1 in the Septuagint. Is the same Greek word always used to translate "chesed" in the Septuagint?
2
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1answer
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Why is חַוָּ֑ה (Gen. 3:20; 4:1) translated “Eve” in KJV (both cases) and “Ζωή” in Gen. 3:20 (LXX), yet “Ευαν” in Gen. 4:1 (LXX)?
The Hebrew proper noun, חַוָּ֑ה, in Genesis 3:20 and Genesis 4:1, is transliterated "Eve" in both cases in the KJV, yet "Ζωή" and "Ευαν" (Gen. 3:20; 4:1, respectively) in the LXX. It should be "Chavah"...
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Abimelekh (Αβιμελεχ) in the LXX
Repeatedly in Ruth (e.g. 1:2, 1:3, 2:1...) and in I Samuel (21:1, 21:6, 21:8, 22:9), the LXX (in all printed critical versions, although some manuscripts correct this, see here for details) as well as ...
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1answer
103 views
In Psalm 23:6 why is the word God /θεοῦ added in the LXX but lacking in the Hebrew Psalm 24:6 in it's equivalent אלהים?
LXX
Psa 24:6 (23:6) αὕτη ἡ γενεὰ ζητούντων αὐτόν, ζητούντων τὸ πρόσωπον τοῦ θεοῦ Ιακωβ. διάψαλμα.
Hebrew Text
Psa 24:6 זה דור דרשׁו מבקשׁי פניך יעקב סלה׃
This in some ways, while it in ...
4
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1answer
156 views
Is Romans 3:10 a quote from the Septuagint?
Romans 3:10 :
There is none righteous, no, not one:
is usually attributed to Psalm 14 :3
there is none that doeth good, no, not one.
and to Psalm 53:1
there is none that doeth good, no, not ...
6
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3answers
322 views
Why does the LXX translate דֹּדֶ֖יךָ as μαστοί in Song of Songs 1:2?
Song of Songs 1:2
Hebrew: יִשָּׁקֵ֙נִי֙ מִנְּשִׁיקֹ֣ות פִּ֔יהוּ כִּֽי־טֹובִ֥ים דֹּדֶ֖יךָ מִיָּֽיִן׃
KJV: Let him kiss me with the kisses of his mouth: for thy love is better than wine.
...
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In 2 Thessalonians 2:1-2 is Paul's reference to “our gathering with him” an allusion to Psalm 46:10 LXX?
Paul associates the coming of Christ with "our gathering together to him":
[2Th 2:1-2 NASB] 1 Now we request you, brethren, with regard to the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our gathering ...
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1answer
33 views
In 1 Corinthians 14:15 is Paul alluding to Psalm 46:7-8 LXX?
In 1 Corinthians 14:15 Paul is admonishing the Corinthians for "wasting their breath" by addressing God and others (including unbelievers) in languages that were not understood by the hearers:
[1Co ...
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2answers
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Was ἀλλογενής “created” by the LXX translators as a way to distinguish a certain type of foreigner, such as a Samaritan?
After healing ten lepers, one, whom Luke identifies as a Samaritan, returns:
Then one of them, when he saw that he was healed, turned back, praising God with a loud voice; and he fell on his face ...
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In Psalm 82:1 who are in the “congregation” and who are the “gods”?
How should we understand Psalm 82:1?
God standeth in the congregation of the mighty; he judgeth among
the gods.
Who is the congregation? And who are the gods?
According to other answers here ...
2
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1answer
429 views
Where does the quote in 1 Corinthians 2:9 come from?
I have searched with my bible app and I don't seem to find it.
1 Corinthians 2:9 NIV
9 However, as it is written: “What no eye has seen, what no ear has
heard, and what no human mind has ...
5
votes
1answer
120 views
Did Lancelot Charles Lee Brenton borrow from the King James Version (KJV) when translating or editing his English Septuagint?
There are some New Testament allusions or quotations in the King James Version (KJV) that don't precisely match the Old Testament (KJV) source that they point to; however, such allusions or quotations ...
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3answers
368 views
When is the Septuagint containing manuscript “Codex Sinaiticus” dated?
I would like to know the dating of this particular manuscript that contains Deuteronomy in the Septuagint version.
How do I find that out? I mean was it written before 3rd century BC or was it ...
4
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2answers
90 views
Which Tobit 1:1 genealogy is closer to the original?
What did the genealogy look like in the original version of Tobit? Did it look like the one in Vaticanus, or like the one in Sinaiticus, or neither?
Tobit 1:1:
Codex Vaticanus B —
ΒΙΒΛΟΣ ΛΟΓΩΝ ...
2
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1answer
346 views
Why does Jesus' wording of the Shema include the addition of 'and with all your mind?'
The vast majority of translations of Deuteronomy 6:4-5 read something like this:
"Hear, O Israel, YHWH is our god; YHWH is one. And thou shalt love YHWH thy god with all thy heart, and with all thy ...
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1answer
113 views
What's the difference between σπέρματί σπέρμα σπέρματός
I am looking at the Septuagint and trying to figure out the differences in the word "seed" that God promised Abraham. I thought that
the Greek word σπέρμα means "thy seed" in the plural and that ...
12
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1answer
359 views
Is “ Ὁ ὢν” used as a title for Yahweh in LXX Jeremiah?
While looking into a question about the Greek phrase "ο ων" ("the one being") as a title for Yahweh in Koine Greek literature, I ran across this appellation in LXX Jeremiah. It occurs three times in ...
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2answers
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The LXX and Masoretic differ in Is 30:15. Do the DSS help here?
I see that the meaning of Isaiah 30:15 in the LXX differs completely from the KJV/Masoretic text. Can this difference be resolved from the DSS texts?
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Does Peter's Vision in Acts 10 Imply Blood Consumption?
A general but off-topic question was posed related to this thought. See here:
What is the significance of Acts 10:13, 11:7 "make sacrificial slaughter"
Acts 10:10-16 describes Peter's ...
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2answers
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What is the significance of the LXX translator adding 3 stones to the King of Tyre’s covering?
The LXX lists 12 stones in the covering of the King of Tyre:
And the word of the Lord came to me, saying, Son of man, take up a lamentation for the prince of Tyre, and say to him, Thus saith the ...
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2answers
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Is there an “official” Septuagint; that is, one that is univesally recognized as such?
On the site called "Elpenor," they show Psalm 13:3 of the Septuagint text like this:
www.ellopos.net/elpenor/greek-texts/septuagint/chapter.asp?book=24&page=13
3 πάντες ἐξέκλιναν, ἅμα ...
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2answers
249 views
What is the argument for psalm 42 and psalm 43 being different psalms?
Psalm 42 and 43 in English translation are separated following a tradition of the LXX but are translated from the MT apparently being a single composition via all the commentaries. Can you offer a ...
4
votes
2answers
137 views
Does τὸν ὄντα correspond to יהוה in Wisdom 13:1?
Wisdom 13:1-5 (translation mine)
1 Truly vain are all men by [their] nature in whom there is not the knowledge of God: who, though they have seen the good things [of creation], do not know him ...
0
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4answers
439 views
Does Jesus misquote Psalm 110: Who is speaking to whom?
In Psalm 110:1, the Psalmist states (roughly):
Yahweh said to my master,
“Sit at my right hand until I make your enemies a footstool for your feet.
This indicates God spoke to the ...
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votes
3answers
191 views
What is the sense of mercy and not righteousness in the LXX translation of Deuteronomy 6:25 and 24:13?
In the introduction to the translation of Deuteronomy in the Septuagint (LXX), the NETS translator, Melvin H. K. Peters says:
It is fair to say that of DeutTr typically maintains a very close ...
4
votes
1answer
144 views
Why does LXX use both “salvation” and “peace” for Hebrew “peace”?
Why does LXX use both "salvation" (Strongs 4991) and "peace" (Strongs 1515) for Hebrew "peace" (Strongs 8002)?
For example, in Exodus 20:24, the LXX uses 4991:
θυσιαστήριον ἐκ γῆς ποιήσετέ μοι ...
8
votes
1answer
356 views
Were NT authors aware of differences between MT and LXX
Throughout the New Testament, authors often quoted or referenced the Septuagint (LXX) - a Greek translation of the Hebrew Bible, but there are several notable differences between the Hebrew text that ...
3
votes
1answer
92 views
What is an accepatable translation of the Greek in Wisdom 1:14
Which is the most accurate rendering of the meaning of the Greek in this verse? In particular, the phrase ἔκτισεν γὰρ εἰς τὸ εἶναι τὰ πάντα καὶ σωτήριοι αἱ γενέσεις τοῦ κόσμου:
Wisdom 1:14 LXX
...
2
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0answers
22 views
Who is “he” is Genesis 15:6b? [duplicate]
Without taking in consideration the exegesis of Paul and James of this text, how do we know that the "he" in
and he counted it to him as righteousness. Genesis 15:6b
is God?
Hebrew text for ...
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vote
1answer
202 views
How does τελέω describe the Israelites yoking themselves to Baal of Peor as stated in the Septuagint translation of Numbers and Psalm 106(105)?
John uses the word τελέω twice at the time of Jesus’ death: [ESV throughout]
After this, Jesus, knowing that all was now finished (τετέλεσται), said (to fulfill the Scripture), “I thirst.” (John 19:...
1
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1answer
381 views
What is the significance of using ἀγάπησιν rather than agapao in the Septuagint?
Some say the use of ἀγαπάω (agapao) in the New Testament must be understood as the exclusive verb form of ἀγάπη (agape). The Septuagint does not appear to reflect this understanding.
In the LXX, the ...
