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Questions tagged [septuagint]

The Koine Greek translation of the Jewish Scriptures; often abbreviated "LXX".

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What is a correct translation for the Greek in Deut 6:4

https://biblebento.com/index.html?lxx1i&50.6.4 I see a translation for the Greek Deutoronomy 6:4 that omits many of the words. It doesn't seem a good translation, "Hear O' Israel: the LORD ...
Daniel Roth's user avatar
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2 answers
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How can I use online bible resources to find a word in the Septuagint, and the Hebrew word it aligns with?

I've recently come to understand that the Septuagint is the Old Testament translated into Greek. This is an important discovery to me, as I now have the potential to see which Greek words are used to ...
Luke's user avatar
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Why does the Septuagint us ph for the name Philistines?

Reading the ever-surprising Timeline of the name Palestine, I noticed that the Egyptian, Assyrian, and biblical Hebrew have a "P" as the first consonant of the names equivalent to Peleshet/...
trespda's user avatar
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4 votes
2 answers
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Is John 18:31 better understood as "It is not lawful for us to murder anyone."

There are several questions about the ability of the Sanhedrin to legally carryout capital punishment. On one hand, Pilate seems to affirm the right: John 18:31 (ESV) Pilate said to them, “Take him ...
Revelation Lad's user avatar
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0 answers
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The Septuagint vorlage in 1 Sam. 14:41 - Give Urim/Give Thumim

The MT text reads thus: וַיֹּאמֶר שָׁאוּל אֶל יְהוָה אֱלֹהֵי יִשְׂרָאֵל הָבָה תָמִים וַיִּלָּכֵד יוֹנָתָן וְשָׁאוּל וְהָעָם יָצָאוּ. Therefore Saul said unto the LORD God of Israel, Give a perfect ...
bach's user avatar
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4 votes
6 answers
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What is the significance of the LXX going back and forth between God and Lord God in Genesis 2:4-24?

The LXX uses both God and Lord God in Genesis 2. LXX-Genesis 2 (NETS) 4 This is the book of the origin of heaven and earth, when it originated, on the day that God made the sky and the earth 5 and ...
Revelation Lad's user avatar
1 vote
2 answers
174 views

Is Matthew Correct When He Reports Jesus Reading from the Greek (LXX) Version of Isaiah? (Luke 4:18-19)

Answers to this question provide convincing evidence that Jesus reportedly read from the Septuagint (Greek) version of Isaiah in Luke 4:18-19, when he began his public ministry in Nazareth. My ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
2 votes
1 answer
68 views

Which is the oldest fragment of LXX containing Psalm 22:16?

As far as I am aware, LXX uses a word in this crucial verse which would uncontroversially be translated as "pierced" into English. If it predates the Roman practice of crucifixion and/or ...
God bless's user avatar
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Can the nominative case justify the insertion of a definite article?

For example, In Isaiah 1:1 there is no definite article for the vision being spoken of. ὅρασις ἣν εἶδεν Ησαιας υἱὸς Αμως ἣν εἶδεν κατὰ τῆς Ιουδαίας καὶ κατὰ Ιερουσαλημ ἐν βασιλείᾳ Οζιου καὶ Ιωαθαμ καὶ ...
Sojourner97's user avatar
1 vote
1 answer
36 views

Is this a fair translation of Isaiah 5:1 (LXX)?

ᾄσω δὴ τῷ ἠγαπημένῳ ᾆσμα τοῦ ἀγαπητοῦ τῷ ἀμπελῶνί μου ἀμπελὼν ἐγενήθη τῷ ἠγαπημένῳ ἐν κέρατι ἐν τόπῳ πίονι Now I will sing to the loved a song of the Beloved, my vineyard: "A vineyard became a ...
Sojourner97's user avatar
5 votes
3 answers
162 views

Does Romans' use of ἀπολύτρωσις (redemption) indicate something different from the LXX's use of λύτρωσις?

In Paul's preaching of the Gospel, he states believers have redemption: Romans 3:21-26 (ESV): 21 But now the righteousness of God has been manifested apart from the law, although the Law and the ...
Revelation Lad's user avatar
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1 answer
70 views

In the Septuagint, 1 Samuel 2:10 has what seems to be a version of Jeremiah 9:23. Modern translations do not have this. Ideas?

I've been reading the Septuagint recently and noticed that 1 Samuel 2:10 has a version of Jeremiah 9:23 included. Modern translations do not have this. I'm just looking for reasons. I guess that ...
E B's user avatar
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2 votes
1 answer
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Genesis 4:8 - Cain kills himself?

Genesis 4:8 And Cain talked with Abel his brother: and it came to pass, when they were in the field, that Cain rose up against Abel his brother, and slew him. καὶ εἶπεν Καιν πρὸς Αβελ τὸν ἀδελφὸν ...
Arash Howaida's user avatar
2 votes
2 answers
108 views

Intertextuality - OT Angel of death and NT death (horseman)

I would like to examine what relationship, if any, early and later Greek scribes saw between the OT angel of death/destruction and the death described by the NT as one of the four horsemen. We see the ...
Arash Howaida's user avatar
1 vote
1 answer
311 views

Was the biblical Re'em a unicorn?

The Re'em was a formidable animal. Mentioned 9 times in the Bible (Numbers, Psalms, Job, Deuteronomy). According to certain Judeo-Christian sources, Re'em was an aurochs (extinct in 1627, in Jaktorów ...
Felipe Ligeiro's user avatar
4 votes
1 answer
115 views

How certain are we that the "deep" of Genesis 1:2 involves water?

How certain are we that the "deep" of Genesis 1:2 involves water? I note that the Septuagint translation uses "abyss" which seems to suggest empty space rather than ocean. Yet I ...
hangblague's user avatar
4 votes
2 answers
317 views

Genesis 1:3 - Septuagint - Let there be Man?

Genesis 1:3 And God said, “Let there be light,” and there was light. καὶ εἶπεν ὁ θεός γενηθήτω φῶς καὶ ἐγένετο φῶς Modern Koine readers will have the advantage of accent marks to tell the ...
Arash Howaida's user avatar
3 votes
2 answers
101 views

Leviticus 20:5 - Septuagint variant analyzed

For convenience, here is the passage (KJV, LXX): Leviticus 20:5 Then I will set my face against that man, and against his family, and will cut him off, and all that go a whoring after him, to commit ...
Arash Howaida's user avatar
4 votes
1 answer
62 views

Can we know how or why the Septuagint renders "forever" in Psalm 102:28? No other translation has this

Can we know how or why the Septuagint renders "forever" in Psalm 102:28? No other translation has this. Most render this "established." Is there an underlying semantic reason for ...
Deb Albus's user avatar
2 votes
1 answer
71 views

Psalm 16:10 - "See the pit" vs "see corruption"

My understanding is that translations of Psalm 16:10 differ based on whether they are translating from the Masoretic text or the Septuagint. For example: "For Thou wilt not abandon my soul to ...
Tim S's user avatar
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1 answer
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Septuagint/LXX—why 70 and not 72?

The answer to this might be "go back in time to ask those who said it" but … There are several documents extant that say 72 scholars produced the Septuagint.  So why is it called Septuagint (...
WGroleau's user avatar
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8 votes
4 answers
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Son of theos vs son of kyrios

I'm hesitant to speak in absolute terms about this, but perhaps it can be generally agreed upon that in many cases where we see Χριστὸς we tend not to see κυριος as a relational lexicon to describe ...
Arash Howaida's user avatar
1 vote
0 answers
56 views

Septuagint translation - nuance intentional, accidental or unresolved? [closed]

It has been somewhat challenging for me to properly contextualize the choice of words in the Greek translation. Instances of "logos" appear quite often, one could argue almost systematic. ...
Arash Howaida's user avatar
1 vote
2 answers
248 views

Is the "root of Jesse" in the LXX, a reference to a divine Messiah?

Isaiah 11-12 is a messianic and eschatological prophecy. It begins by identifying the king.1 There shall come forth a shoot from the stump of Jesse, and a branch from his roots shall bear fruit. (...
Revelation Lad's user avatar
6 votes
1 answer
141 views

What manuscript tradition do Mark 1:2 & Matthew 11:10 quote from for Malachi 3:1?

In Mark 1:2 we see a quote from Malachi that reads: Behold, I send My messenger before Your face, Who will prepare Your way [before You.] Ἰδού, [ἐγὼ] ἀποστέλλω τὸν ἄγγελόν μου πρὸ προσώπου σου ὃς ...
Any_mouse's user avatar
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1 vote
1 answer
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What does " teaching" [διδαχήν] mean in Psalm 59:1 LXX?

εἰς τὸ τέλος τοῖς ἀλλοιωθησομένοις ἔτι εἰς στηλογραφίαν τῷ Δαυιδ εἰς διδαχήν Psalm 59:1 LXX What meaning did the Septuagint translator want to convey to readers at the time by using the word ...
Betho's's user avatar
0 votes
2 answers
138 views

Missing verset in Psalm 15:3

The verset ". . .slanders not with his tongue" is missing from the Psalm (15,3) found at Qumran. The LXX does contain this reference to slander which begs the question, at least for me, when ...
ed huff's user avatar
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3 votes
3 answers
367 views

Isaiah 45:11 two persons speaking or one?

Is there a plurality of two persons speaking in this verse? I’m not certain but here is the text: Thus says the Lord, the Holy One of Israel, and his Maker: “Ask Me about the things to come ...
Cork88's user avatar
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3 votes
1 answer
144 views

Does Jesus allude to the Old Testament in how He uses the expression, "Lord Lord?"

The double vocative κύριε κύριε, Lord Lord is used by Jesus four times (Matthew 7:21, 7:22, 25:11, Luke 6:46). The first two are found in describing judgement: 21 “Not everyone who says to me, ‘Lord, ...
Revelation Lad's user avatar
1 vote
2 answers
39 views

Deutoronomy 22:23,25 LXX translation

In Brenton Septuagint, the translation of the same word in hebrew - מאורשה, is different between verse 23 and verse 25: “And if there be a young damsel espoused to a man...” (Deuteronomy 22:23, ...
Kapandaria's user avatar
1 vote
1 answer
196 views

Hebrews 10:5-7 - distorted quotation? [duplicate]

Hebrews 10:5-7 contains a quotation from Psalm 40 from the Septuagint that greatly varies from Masoretic version that is present in our bibles today: “So when he came into the world, he said, “...
ellied's user avatar
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3 votes
1 answer
256 views

The Book of the Jonah 1:17, 4:6 comparison of MT and LXX

The Septuagint LXX is the oldest known translation of the Old Testament into ancient Greek. It is generally believed that the formation of the Septuagint began in the 280s BC and in general ended in ...
Sebastian Elishav's user avatar
3 votes
5 answers
341 views

Which version of Ezekiel 37 is accurate?

I was comparing various passages in the KJV (translated from the Masoretic Text) with the Septuagint (LXX) to see what the differences would be. One of the passages that I used was from Ezekiel 37, ...
Viteva's user avatar
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4 votes
2 answers
84 views

Why does the Septuagint translate מערב three different ways in Ezekiel 27

Ezekiel 27:9 לערב מערבך επι δυσμας δυσμων Ezekiel 27:13 מערבך την εμποριαν σου Ezekiel 27:19 במערבך εν τω συμμικτω σου Even though these are three different Greek translations of מערב, they are all ...
Lee Magee's user avatar
3 votes
3 answers
301 views

Congregation or congregrations? מקוה in Genesis 1:10

Genesis 1:10 ויקרא אלהים ליבשה ארץ ולמקוה המים קרא ימים וירא אלהים כי טוב Vulgate: Et vocavit Deus aridam Terram, congregationesque aquarum appellavit Maria. Et vidit Deus quod esset bonum. LXX: καὶ ...
Pascal's Wager's user avatar
3 votes
2 answers
129 views

Does anyone know if there is a complete translation table from the Masoretic numbering to the Greek numbering of the Psalms available somewhere?

I asked myself this question today and could not find anything. I have thus decided to answer my own question here. The basic translation table (found e.g. in Wikipedia) is the following: Hebrew ...
fi11222's user avatar
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2 votes
1 answer
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Christian authorship of books of the Septuagint

I am currently in discussion with a Muslim who appears to be arguing for Christian authorship of books of the Septuagint, who he argues have tampered with the text through mistranslation. These books ...
KGB's user avatar
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0 votes
0 answers
174 views

Does γέγονεν in John 1:15 indicate that Jesus had a beginning? [duplicate]

John 1:15 (NASB95) John testified about Him and cried out, saying, “This was He of whom I said, ‘He who comes after me has a higher rank than I, for He existed before me.’“ Most translations choose ...
Any_mouse's user avatar
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6 votes
3 answers
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How can we trust the Hebrew Bible to be accurate when the oldest MSS go back only to about the tenth century C.E.?

The oldest complete MSS of the Hebrew Bible is from about the tenth century C.E.? We have portions of manuscripts from the years between 200 B.C.E. and 200 C.E.(the Dead Sea scrolls) but nothing like ...
Saber Truth Tiger's user avatar
0 votes
1 answer
77 views

Psalm 16:2 first person or second person

Some translations render “said” in Psalm 16:2 as first person singular, while others choose second person singular. Which of these two translations has a stronger textual basis? From what I can see, ...
Any_mouse's user avatar
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1 vote
1 answer
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Has anyone reconstructed the LXX version of Job 2:9 in Hebrew?

I know the Masoretic version of this verse is considerably shorter. But has anyone tried recreating the underlying Hebrew text from which the LXX version of Job 2:9 was translated? MT of Job 2:9 - ...
TruthSeeker's user avatar
3 votes
1 answer
217 views

Does the Septuagint of Isaiah throw light on Romans chapter 9 about the Gentiles coming to see God's glory?

This related Q, What does "glory" of the Gentiles mean in Isaiah? deals with the word 'glory' which I'm not asking about. This other related Q, In Ezekiel 10:4, Why does Ezekiel see a Cloud ...
Anne's user avatar
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1 vote
1 answer
121 views

Why do [1 Peter 2:8 | Romans 9:33] misquote the Greek LXX version of Isaiah 8:14?

Apostles Peter & Paul prefer a different version of [Isaiah 8:14] based on their revision of the Greek LXX. Referencing the Isaiah 8:14 as documented in Septuagint, we read : “καὶ ἐὰν ἐπ᾽ αὐτῷ ...
חִידָה's user avatar
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2 votes
2 answers
686 views

Why does the apostle Peter misquote Isaiah 28:16 in [1 Peter 2:6]?

If the Greek LXX version of Isaiah 28 was studied by Peter, Why does the apostle Peter misquote Isaiah 28:16 in [1 Peter 2:6]? [1 Peter 2:6, LXX] “Ἰδού, [τίθημι ἐν] Σιὼν λίθον [?] ἀκρογωνιαῖον ...
חִידָה's user avatar
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3 votes
2 answers
152 views

Why did Textus Receptus add the word "Χριστοῦ" to [Revelation 12:17]?

Rome's persecution of specific Israelites who have "τὴν μαρτυρίαν τοῦ Ἰησοῦ" was poetically documented in [Revelation 12:17] - "And the dragon was enraged with the woman, and he went to ...
חִידָה's user avatar
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5 votes
1 answer
607 views

How is "El-Shaddai" translated in the Septuagint?

The title "El-Shaddai" has been traditionally translated in English as "God Almighty", but this is increasingly disputed. However a way of understanding what the word meant ...
Abijah's user avatar
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3 votes
2 answers
82 views

Why does Deuteronomy 7:11 in [MT] show מִּצְוָה Mitsvah (s.) for "Commandments" (pl.), instead of Mitsvot , like "ἐντολὰς" [LXX]?

If the word "Commandments" (plural) was actually meant to be written in [Deuteronomy 7:11], why does the [MT] show the singular word מִּצְוָה versus the [LXX] plural word ἐντολὰς? [MT, ...
חִידָה's user avatar
  • 8,415
2 votes
2 answers
198 views

If the LXX version of Judges 18:30 states "Μωυσῆ" (Moses), why would New Testament bibles prefer מְנַשֶּׁ֜ה (Menasseh) from Tanakh's MT?

Why would Tanakh's MT sometimes be preferred over Greek LXX as correct sources for New Testament bibles? - Example : Judges 18:30. [Judges 18:30, LXX] states : "καὶ ἀνέστησαν ἑαυτοῗς οἱ υἱοὶ τοῦ ...
חִידָה's user avatar
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1 vote
1 answer
79 views

Did Jesus establish in Matthew 4:4 that the later LXX editions add words to Deuteronomy 8:3?

Jesus teaches us in Matthew 4:4 what is written in Deuteronomy 8:3 LXX, but Jesus excludes two words (ὁ,τῷ) from his citation of Deuteronomy 8:3 LXX. [Matthew 4:4] Οὐκ ἐπ᾽ ἄρτῳ μόνῳ ζήσεται ἄνθρωπος : ...
חִידָה's user avatar
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2 votes
1 answer
116 views

If Luke 1:17 was quoting the LXX version of Malachi 4:6, Why was ἐπιστρέφω used for “to turn” instead of copying ἀποκαθίστημι?

Should historians think Luke’s author used an available copy of LXX to reference Malachi 4:6, if the LXX-Malachi uses the Greek word “ἀποκαθίστημι” instead of “ἐπιστρέφω” in Luke 1:17? [LXX Malachi 4:...
חִידָה's user avatar
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