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Questions investigating a text's meaning by discerning what its author intended it to mean.
3
votes
What sort of phrasing is "the many" in Romans 5?
Romans 5:15 (KJV)
But not as the offence, so also is the free gift. For if through the offence of one many (1. G4183 masculine, singular) be dead, much (2. G4183 neuter, singular) more the grace o …
2
votes
What does "by inheritance obtained a more excellent name than they" mean in Hebrews 1:4?
Did not Jesus have a "better name" than angels before?
No. The "man" known as Jesus of Nazareth was knit together in the womb of his mother, Mary, as a work of the Holy Spirit (Luke 1:35). The name …
2
votes
Did Matthew intend “evil” or “the evil one” in the Lord’s Prayer?
I'm not a Greek scholar. However, thanks to the hard work of those who have made it possible for the average citizen to dig deeper into the words of God, I have at my disposal tools such as The Interl …
0
votes
Do verbs in present active indicative always imply temporality?
I would translate 1 Timothy 2:12 like this:
What's more, I do not allow a woman to teach nor to usurp the authority of a man, but to be silent.
Details (click for a larger picture):
To get a …
-2
votes
Which idea for εἶδος is intended in 1 Thess 5:22?
Here's an alternative take on the word.
Strong's G1491, "eidos", occurs five times in the New Testament, and after meditating upon the verses for some time, it stuck me that the core meaning of the w …