(Proverbs 17:16) (ESV) Why should a fool have money in his hand to buy wisdom when he has no sense?
(Proverbs 17:16) (NASB1995) Why is there a price in the hand of a fool to buy wisdom, When he has no sense?
(Proverbs 17:16) (KJV) Wherefore is there a price in the hand of a fool to get wisdom, seeing he hath no heart to it?
(Proverbs 17:16) (NKJV) Why is there in the hand of a fool the purchase price of wisdom, Since he has no heart for it?
17:16 Hebrew OT: Westminster Leningrad Codex לָמָּה־זֶּ֣ה מְחִ֣יר בְּיַד־כְּסִ֑יל לִקְנֹ֖ות חָכְמָ֣ה וְלֶב־אָֽיִן׃
The (Proverbs 17:16) bible verse seems to be another example of a bible verse that can have multiple meanings or even layered meanings.
( 1st Interpretation ) If I read the ESV and NASB1995 translations then I interpret it in the following manner:
A fool is a person who has "no sense"
which in turn means she/he has "no wisdom"
thus, a fool needs "wisdom" which will propagate to having "sense"
therefore, a fool should Not set a fixed/concrete price on "wisdom" because for her/him it needs to be absolutely precious which could mean that she/he should give all that she/he has to get "wisdom"
(2nd Interpretation) If I read the KJV and NKJV translations then I interpret it in the following manner:
A fool is a person who has "no heart"
which in turn means she/he has No desire for "wisdom"
therefore a fool should Not set a fixed/concrete price on "wisdom" because she/he has does Not care about having "wisdom"
(3rd Interpretation) Some of the commentaries on biblehub.com ( https://biblehub.com/commentaries/proverbs/17-16.htm ) seems to suggest:
"Cambridge Bible for Schools and Colleges" ---> "Wisdom cannot be bought for a price: it can only be assimilated by a wise, or wisdom-loving heart" which seems to suggest that "wisdom" can Only be acquired by a "wisdom-loving heart", and therefore, it can Not be bought at a financially-based/monetary-based/material-based "price"
Therefore, could someone please read the OT Hebrew translation, and evaluate which of the aforementioned interpretations is more closely aligned with the OT Hebrew translation?