Why is "flesh and bone" translated as "flesh and blood"?

Question

The phrase “flesh and bones” appear six times in the Old Testament. It is true for Septuagint and the Masoretic Text.

And Adam said: “This is now bone of my bones And flesh of my flesh; She shall be called Woman, Because she was taken out of Man.” (Genesis 2:23)

And Laban said to him, “Surely you are my bone and my flesh.” And he stayed with him for a month. (Genesis 29:14)

“Please speak in the hearing of all the men of Shechem: ‘Which is better for you, that all seventy of the sons of Jerubbaal reign over you, or that one reign over you?’ Remember that I am your own flesh and bone.” (Judges 9:2)

Then all the tribes of Israel came to David at Hebron and spoke, saying, “Indeed we are your bone and your flesh. (2 Samuel 5:1)

You are my brethren, you are my bone and my flesh. Why then are you the last to bring back the king?’ (2 Samuel 19:12)

Then all Israel came together to David at Hebron, saying, “Indeed we are your bone and your flesh. (1 Chronicles 11:1 )

Why would New International Version, New Living Translation, Berean Standard Bible, Christian Standard Bible, and other translations, keep the original meaning of Genesis 2:23 but change the other five to “flesh and blood”?

https://biblehub.com/genesis/2-23.htm

https://biblehub.com/genesis/29-14.htm

https://biblehub.com/judges/9-2.htm

https://biblehub.com/2_samuel/5-1.htm

https://biblehub.com/2_samuel/19-12.htm

https://biblehub.com/1_chronicles/11-1.htm

Answer 1

For some context - see appendix below.

The Bible appears to make a distinction in meaning between the two phrases, "flesh and blood" vs, "flesh and bone":

• "flesh and bone" indicates a person of the same family and appears to indirectly allude to Gen 2:23, the original family of Adam and Eve
• "flesh and blood" is idiom for a mortal/human person and all appear to indirectly allude to Num 19:5 (a dead animal)

Thus, I agree with the implied OP's annoyance that the NIV does not render this more literally in some places by giving "flesh and blood" rather than "flesh and bone". Now, I am no defender of the NIV - it has it troubles as do all translations. However, in this case, the NIV translators appear to have opted for a more common modern phrase which they presumably thought meant something similar.

APPENDIX - "Flesh and blood" vs "Flesh and bone"

We have the statement of Jesus found in Luke 24:39 after His resurrection:

See my hands and my feet, that it is I myself. Touch me, and see. For a spirit does not have flesh and bones as you see that I have.”

To understand the significance of this statement, Jesus was using a Hebrew idiom that alludes to several OT passages.

• Gen 2:23 - Then the man said, “This at last is bone of my bones and flesh of my flesh; she shall be called Woman, because she was taken out of Man.”
• Gen 29:14 - and Laban said to him, “Surely you are my bone and my flesh!” And he stayed with him a month.
• Judges 9:2 - “Say in the ears of all the leaders of Shechem, ‘Which is better for you, that all seventy of the sons of Jerubbaal rule over you, or that one rule over you?’ Remember also that I am your bone and your flesh.”
• 1 Sam 5:1 - Then all the tribes of Israel came to David at Hebron and said, “Behold, we are your bone and flesh.
• 2 Sam 19:12 - You are my brothers; you are my bone and my flesh. Why then should you be the last to bring back the king?’
• 2 Sam 19:13 - And say to Amasa, ‘Are you not my bone and my flesh? God do so to me and more also, if you are not commander of my army from now on in place of Joab.’”
• 1 Chron 11:1 - Then all Israel gathered together to David at Hebron and said, “Behold, we are your bone and flesh.
• Job 2:5 - But stretch out Your hand and strike his flesh and bones, and he will surely curse You to Your face.”
• Eph 5:30 - For we are members of His body, of His flesh and of His bones. (Byzantine text, NKJV - the UBS5/NA28 does have the last two phrases)

Note that in all cases, the familial relationship is implied. This is especially true in Jesus' use of the term after His resurrection to show His human-ness; ie, that He was not a ghost or spirit but a real human, like the people with whom he was speaking, the disciples.

By contrast, "flesh and blood" is distributed much differently:

• Num 19:5 - And the heifer shall be burned in his sight. Its skin, its flesh, and its blood, with its dung, shall be burned.
• Matt 16:17 - And Jesus answered him, “Blessed are you, Simon Bar-Jonah! For flesh and blood has not revealed this to you, but my Father who is in heaven.
• 1 Cor 15:50 - I tell you this, brothers: flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God, nor does the perishable inherit the imperishable.
• Gal 1:16 - to reveal His Son in me so that I might preach Him among the Gentiles, I did not rush to consult with flesh and blood,
• Eph 6:12 - For we do not wrestle against flesh and blood, but against the rulers, against the authorities, against the cosmic powers over this present darkness, against the spiritual forces of evil in the heavenly places.
• Heb 2:14 - Since therefore the children share in flesh and blood, he himself likewise partook of the same things, that through death he might destroy the one who has the power of death, that is, the devil

In all these cases, mortal humans are implied - humans without any aid of divine instruction or enlightenment as they all appear to indirectly allude to the sacrifice in Num 19:5. Note the important difference in usage:

• "flesh and bone" indicates a person of the same family and appears to indirectly allude to Gen 2:23, the original family of Adam and Eve
• "flesh and blood" is idiom for a mortal/human person and all appear to indirectly allude to Num 19:5 (a dead animal)